Latest DSSSB TGT Natural Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English Language & Comprehension, General Awareness, Hindi Language & Comprehension, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Arithmetic & Numerical Ability, Natural Science
Question Bank DSSSB TGT Natural Science Exam - English
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 4Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 5Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 6Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 7Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 8Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 9Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 10Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 11Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 12Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 13Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 14Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 15Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
General Awareness
Question 21Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 22Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 23Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 24Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 26Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 27Single Answer
Which Delhi Sultan captured Qutub Minar while it was under construction?
A
Iltutmish
B
Alauddin Khalji
C
Qutub-ud-din Aibak
D
Muhammad Tughlaq
Question 28Single Answer
Where did the First Battle of Panipat take place?
A
Panipat
B
Delhi
C
Kurukshetra
D
Agra
Question 29Single Answer
Who built the Jama Masjid of Delhi?
A
Shah Jahan
B
Jahangir
C
Akbar
D
Aurangzeb
Question 30Single Answer
The iconic Humayun's Tomb was built by:
A
Babur
B
Humayun
C
Hamida Banu Begum
D
Akbar
Question 31Single Answer
The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar was originally from:
A
Kanauj
B
Mathura
C
Ujjain
D
Pataliputra
Question 32Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 33Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 34Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 35Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 36Single Answer
Who became the longest-serving continuous Finance Minister of India and presented her ninth straight Union Budget on February 1, 2026?
A
Nirmala Sitharaman
B
Arun Jaitley
C
Pranab Mukherjee
D
P. Chidambaram
Question 37Single Answer
How many Ramsar sites does India now have after adding two new ones (in Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat) in early February 2026?
A
98
B
97
C
96
D
100
Question 38Single Answer
In which rank did India stand in the Global Soft Power Index 2026, as reported around February 2026?
A
25th
B
32nd
C
28th
D
35th
Question 39Single Answer
What did the Supreme Court of India declare as a fundamental right in schools around February 2026?
A
Free education up to class 12
B
Sports infrastructure
C
Digital literacy programs
D
Menstrual health facilities
Question 40Single Answer
Which organization plans to launch India's first-ever National Household Income Survey (NHIS) and Annual Survey of Incorporated Service Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) starting April 2026?
A
RBI
B
SEBI
C
NITI Aayog
D
NSO (National Statistical Office)
Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 41Single Answer
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
A
गुण संधि के अनुसार
B
यण संधि के अनुसार
C
वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
D
अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Question 42Single Answer
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
A
त्
B
न्
C
द्
D
भ्
Question 43Single Answer
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
A
ल
B
ष
C
ड़
D
न
Question 44Single Answer
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
A
ख
B
ग
C
च
D
द
Question 45Single Answer
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
A
ट ड द ढ
B
च छ ज झ
C
त थ द ध
D
प फ ब भ
Question 46Single Answer
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
A
मूर्धा
B
कण्ठ
C
तालु
D
ओष्ठ
Question 47Single Answer
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
A
ए - ऐ
B
ए - ओ
C
ए - ऊ
D
त - द
Question 48Single Answer
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
A
समास
B
अव्यय
C
उपसर्ग
D
प्रत्यय
Question 49Single Answer
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
A
प्र
B
त
C
प्रख
D
आत
Question 50Single Answer
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
A
सखी
B
शाखा
C
राखी
D
साक्षी
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Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 51Single Answer
किस क्रम में वृत्तमुखी स्वर नहीं है -
A
आ
B
ऊँ
C
ओ
D
औ
Question 52Single Answer
उपसर्ग का प्रयोग होता है -
A
शब्द के आदि में
B
शब्द के मध्य में
C
शब्द के अंत में
D
इनमे से कोई नहीं
Question 53Single Answer
'पंडित दूध पीता है' इस वाक्य में कारक है -
A
कर्म, करण
B
सम्प्रदान, सम्बन्ध
C
कर्ता, कर्म
D
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Question 54Single Answer
'ने' किस कारक का चिह्न है -
A
कर्ता
B
करण
C
सम्प्रदान
D
कर्म
Question 55Single Answer
'वह जहाँ चाहे, जाये; मुझे क्या लेना-देना।' यह कैसा वाक्य है -
A
संयुक्त वाक्य
B
सरल वाक्य
C
मिश्रित वाक्य
D
संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य
Question 56Single Answer
व्याकरण के नियमानुसार किस वाक्य में पदक्रम सही है -
A
रावण को राम ने मारा।
B
राम ने रावण को मारा।
C
मारा राम ने रावण को।
D
संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य।
Question 57Single Answer
'अधिकरण' कारक का चिह्न है -
A
अरे
B
में
C
से
D
को
Question 58Single Answer
स्वर होते हैं -
A
घोष
B
अघोष
C
अल्पप्राण
D
महाप्राण
Question 59Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से वर्त्स्य है -
A
ल्
B
ड
C
ढ़
D
स्
Question 60Single Answer
'दित्व' का प्रयोग किस शब्द में नहीं हुआ है ?
A
सच्चा
B
कुत्ता
C
बल्गा
D
बग्गा
General Intelligence & Reasoning
Question 61Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 63Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 64Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 65Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 66Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 67Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 68Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 69Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 70Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 76Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 77Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 78Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 79Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 80Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Arithmetic & Numerical Ability
Question 81Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 83Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 84Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 85Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 86Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 87Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 88Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 89Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 90Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 91Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 92Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 93Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 94Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 95Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 96Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 97Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 98Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 99Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 100Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Natural Science
Question 101Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 102Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 103Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 104Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 105Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 106Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 108Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 109Single Answer
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A
[ML–2 T–2]
B
[ML–2 T–1]
C
[ML–1 T–1]
D
[ML–1 T–2]
Question 110Single Answer
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A
[M0L–1T]
B
[MLT–1]
C
[M0 L–1T0]
D
[ML0 T2]
Question 111Single Answer
'Farad' is the unit of
A
resistance
B
conductance
C
capacitance
D
inductance
Question 112Single Answer
S.I. unit of surface tension is
A
degree/cm
B
N/m
C
N/m²
D
Nm
Question 113Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimension ?
A
Potential energy and Kinetic energy
B
Density and specific gravity
C
Focal length and height
D
Gravitational force and frictional force
Question 114Single Answer
Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure ?
A
Angular momentum
B
Stress
C
Strain
D
Work
Question 115Single Answer
The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for
A
Holm
B
Halogen
C
Henry
D
Hertz
Question 116Single Answer
Light year is a measure of
A
time
B
distance
C
total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year
D
average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year
Question 117Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a dimension less quantity ?
A
Strain
B
Relative density
C
Frequency
D
Angle
Question 118Single Answer
The dimensions of universal gas constant are
A
[L² M¹ T–2 K–1]
B
[L¹ M² T–2 K–1]
C
[L¹ M¹ T–2 K–1]
D
[L² M² T–2 K–1]
Question 119Single Answer
The dimensions of magnetic moment are
A
[L²A¹]
B
[L²A–1]
C
[L²/A³]
D
[LA²]
Question 120Single Answer
The dimensions of Wien's constant are
A
[ML0TK]
B
[M0LT0K]
C
[M0L0TK]
D
[MLTK]
Question 121Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 122Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 123Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 124Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 125Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 126Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 127Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 128Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 129Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 130Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 131Single Answer
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A
Cyanohydrin
B
Dextran
C
Cyclohexane
D
Cyclonite
Question 132Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A
Phosphorus trichloride
B
Mercuric oxide
C
Graphite
D
Nitroglycerine
Question 133Single Answer
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A
Zinc and barium borosilicate
B
Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C
Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D
Pure silica and zinc oxide
Question 134Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A
Crystalline solid
B
Super cooled liquid
C
Condensed gas
D
Liquid crystal
Question 135Single Answer
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A
Ammonium nitrate
B
Ammonium sulphide
C
Ammonium phosphate
D
Ammonium sulphate
Question 136Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
A
Lithium
B
Sodium
C
Rubidium
D
Caesium
Question 137Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
A
It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
B
It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
C
It is used for disinfecting drinking water
D
It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Question 138Single Answer
Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
A
hard glass have Na in place of K
B
hard glass having K in place of Na
C
hard glass having both Na and K
D
None of the above
Question 139Single Answer
A complete fertilizer provides
A
N,P, K
B
S, K, N
C
S, B, K
D
N, S, P
Question 140Single Answer
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
A
sodium hydrogen phthalate
B
magnesium hydroxide
C
calcium hydroxide
D
manganese acetate
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 142Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 143Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 145Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 146Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
A
Cholesterol
B
Glycoplids
C
Proline
D
Phospholipids
Question 147Single Answer
The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
A
S–phase
B
G1–phase
C
G2–phase
D
M-phase
Question 148Single Answer
During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?
A
Phophase
B
Metaphase
C
Anaphase
D
Telophase
Question 149Single Answer
Lysosome arises from
A
endoplasmic reticulum
B
golgi apparatus
C
nucleus
D
mitochondria
Question 150Single Answer
The correct sequence of cell cycle is
A
S, G1, G2, M
B
S, M, G1, G2
C
G1, S, G2, M
D
M, G1, G2, S
Question 151Single Answer
Biological membranes are composed of
A
40% proteins and 60% lipids
B
50% proteins and 50% lipids
C
70% proteins and 30% lipids
D
60% proteins and 40% lipids
Question 152Single Answer
F1 particles / oxysome / elementary particles are present in
A
endoplasmic reticulum
B
chloroplast
C
mitochondria
D
golgi complex
Question 153Single Answer
"Endomitosis" refers to
A
division of nucleus without chromosomal division
B
division of chromosome without nuclear division
C
division of cytoplasm
D
None of the above
Question 154Single Answer
When the concentration of water and solutes on either side of the cell membrane is same, the solution is said to be
A
hypertonic
B
isotonic
C
hypotonic
D
None of these
Question 155Single Answer
The function of nucleous is the synthesis of
A
DNA
B
m - RNA
C
r- RNA
D
t - RNA
Question 156Single Answer
Mesosome in a bacterial cell is
A
plasmid
B
connection between two cells
C
plasma membrane infolded for respiration
D
None of these
Question 157Single Answer
In living cels synthesis of ribonoucleic acid (RNA) takes place in :
A
Cytoplasm
B
Nucleus
C
Golgi body
D
Nephron
Question 158Single Answer
The cell organelle storing substances like starch, oil and proteins is
A
Vacuole
B
Lysosome
C
Plastid
D
Golgi body
Question 159Single Answer
Organisms lacking nuclear membrane and cell organelles is called as :
A
Prokaryotes
B
Eukaryotes
C
Protozoa
D
Virus
Question 160Single Answer
Cell organelles that are involved in the waste disposal system of the cell are :
A
Golgi apparatus
B
Lysosomes
C
Chromosomes
D
Ribosomes
Question 161Single Answer
What generally happens to contractile-vacuole activity when a freshwater Amoeba is transferred to a sufficiently hypertonic saline solution?
A
It increases rapidly
B
It remains unchanged
C
It decreases markedly or may cease
D
The vacuole divides repeatedly
Question 162Single Answer
What is the median adhesive pad located between the two terminal claws of a cockroach leg called?
A
Unguis
B
Arolium
C
Tibial spur
D
Cercus
Question 163Single Answer
The binomial system of Carolus Linnaeus was devoid of which of the following categories ?
A
Genus and species
B
Class and order
C
Phylum and family
D
Kingdom and class
Question 164Single Answer
The mouthparts of a cockroach are adapted primarily for which mode of feeding?
A
Biting and chewing
B
Piercing and sucking
C
Siphoning
D
Sponging
Question 165Single Answer
Which mosquito is the biological vector responsible for natural transmission of human malaria?
A
Male Culex
B
Female Culex
C
Female Aedes
D
Female Anopheles
Question 166Single Answer
The grain size (USDA) of silt in soil ranges between :
A
0.2 mm to 0.5 mm
B
0.5 mm to 0.1 mm
C
0.1 mm to 0.05 mm
D
0.05 mm to 0.002 mm
Question 167Single Answer
What will be BOD, for a wastewater sample when 21 ml of sample is diluted to 300 ml in BOD bottle to determine dissolved oxygen .
[Given: Initial DO, = 10 mg/l; Five days later DO5 = 5 mg/l]
A
~ 5 mg/l
B
~ 25 mg/l
C
~ 71.4 mg/l
D
~75 mg/l
Question 168Single Answer
What will be the concentration of 40 ppb SO₂ in µg/m³ unit at 25°C ?
A
~ 0.04 µg/m³
B
~ 1047 µg/m³
C
~ 104.7 µg/m³
D
~ 10.47 µg/m³
Question 169Single Answer
National Ambient air quality standards typically include following components :
A
Maximum and Minimum pollutant levels, adjustment for co - pollutants
B
Abetment strategies, non - attainment penalties
C
Ambient temperature, size distribution and relative humidity
D
Indicator (Chemical/Chemical class), Averaging time, Pollutant form and level
Question 170Single Answer
Primary air pollutants differ from secondary air pollutants as they :
A
are present in levels that can be weighed on filter paper
B
are directly emitted from identified sources
C
have undergone chemical transformation in air after release from identified sources
D
are designated as hazardous air pollutants
Question 171Single Answer
Continuity equation expresses the law of conservation of :
A
Momentum
B
Mass
C
Entropy
D
Energy
Question 172Single Answer
Which of the following statements correctly represent the environmental wisdom worldwide ?
A
Our success depends on how well we manage the earth's life support systems mostly for our benefits
B
Our success depends on how well we manage the earth's life support systems for our benefit and for the rest of nature
C
Our success depends on learning how nature sustains itself and integrating such lessons from nature into the ways we think
D
Our success depends on using environmentally beneficial forms of economic growth and discourage environmentally harmful forms
Question 173Single Answer
Exposure concentration is _______ .
A
the amount of the chemical that is received by the target
B
the amount of chemical present in the medium with which an Organism has contact
C
the amount of the chemical that is excreted by the target
D
the amount of the chemical that is metabolized by the target
Question 174Single Answer
In ecotoxicology studies, ED - 50 is _______ .
A
the dose that affects 50% of the population or observed subjects
B
the dose that affects 95% of the population or observed subjects
C
the dose that affects 25% of the population or observed subjects
D
the dose that do not affect 50% of the total population
Question 175Single Answer
A hypothesis, that predicts a linear relationship in which rate of ecosystem processes is maximum with greatest number of species, is known as :
A
Rivet - popper hypothesis
B
Redundancy hypothesis
C
Diversity - stability hypothesis
D
Idiosyncratic hypothesis
Question 176Single Answer
Which of the following is not a phase of secondary succession ?
A
Initiation
B
Continuation
C
Termination
D
Invasion
Question 177Single Answer
The Concept of r - and k - selection was originally given by :
A
MacArthur and Wilson (1967)
B
Grime (1979)
C
Molles (2008)
D
Mayr (1942)
Question 178Single Answer
The prefix "steno" and "eury” have been used for :
A
comparing the relative degree of tolerance of an organism to a given environmental factor
B
comparing the body size of organisms occurring in a given habitat
C
comparing the metabolic activity of organisms in a given habitat
D
comparing the distribution limits of organisms occurring across a biome
Question 179Single Answer
The strong and rapidly moving circumpolar upper air westerly circulation in a narrow belt of a few hundred kilometers width in the upper limit of the troposphere is called _______ .
A
Rossby waves
B
Jet streams
C
Walker streams
D
Hadley Circulation
Question 180Single Answer
Coriolis effect is :
A
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air towards the right in the Northern Hemisphere
B
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air upwards in the Northern Hemisphere
C
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air towards the left in the Northern Hemisphere
D
the influence of Earth's rotation, which tends to turn air downwards in the Northern Hemisphere
Question 181Single Answer
Which Indian cattle breed is known for its high milk yield? (a) Sahiwal (b) Gir (c) Ongole (d) Kankrej
A
Sahiwal
B
Gir
C
Ongole
D
Kankrej
Question 182Single Answer
The Bikaneri breed is primarily reared for:
A
Milk production
B
Meat production
C
Draft work
D
Wool production
Question 183Single Answer
Which of the following is a key component of effective teaching?
A
Memorization
B
Active Learning
C
Passive Learning
D
Focus on Test Scores
Question 184Single Answer
Which teaching method emphasizes student collaboration and problem-solving?
A
Lecture Method
B
Inquiry-Based Learning
C
Lecture and Note-taking
D
Drill and Practice
Question 185Single Answer
What does the Constructivist theory of learning emphasize?
A
Passive absorption of information
B
Learners constructing their own knowledge
C
Memorizing facts and figures
D
Teacher-centered instruction
Question 186Single Answer
Which of the following is not an effective classroom management strategy?
A
Clear communication of expectations
B
Positive reinforcement
C
Ignoring disruptive behavior
D
Consistent routines
Question 187Single Answer
Which of the following teaching strategies promotes higher-order thinking?
A
Recall-based questions
B
Lecture-based instruction
C
Problem-solving and critical thinking tasks
D
Multiple-choice questions
Question 188Single Answer
According to Vygotsky, the 'Zone of Proximal Development' refers to:
A
The range of tasks a student can perform alone
B
The range of tasks a student cannot perform, even with assistance
C
The tasks a student can perform with minimal support
D
The range of tasks a student can perform with the help of a more knowledgeable other
Question 189Single Answer
In Bloom's Taxonomy, which of the following is the highest level of cognitive skills?
A
Knowledge
B
Comprehension
C
Synthesis
D
Evaluation
Question 190Single Answer
Which of the following best describes the purpose of differentiated instruction?
A
To maintain uniformity in teaching
B
To meet the varied learning needs of students
C
To make learning more challenging for all students
D
To reduce the workload for the teacher
Question 191Single Answer
The flipped classroom model primarily focuses on:
A
Teacher-centered direct instruction
B
Students learning at home through online resources
C
Learning through textbooks alone
D
Peer-teaching and collaboration
Question 192Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of an active learning strategy?
A
Reading a textbook chapter
B
Listening to a lecture
C
Group discussion and debates
D
Memorizing facts
Question 193Single Answer
What is the main focus of learner-centered teaching?
A
Teachers controlling the pace of the lesson
B
Encouraging students to take responsibility for their own learning
C
Focusing solely on lectures
D
Providing a rigid structure for the lesson
Question 194Single Answer
What type of teaching strategy is best for developing critical thinking skills?
A
Rote memorization
B
Lecture-based learning
C
Socratic questioning
D
Listening and note-taking
Question 195Single Answer
In what way does collaborative learning benefit students?
A
It encourages individual work
B
It allows students to learn only from the teacher
C
It helps students develop communication and teamwork skills
D
It focuses on rote memorization
Question 196Single Answer
Which of the following best describes 'scaffolding' in the context of teaching?
A
Giving all students the same level of support
B
Providing initial support that is gradually removed as students gain independence
C
Teaching without any prior assessment
D
Reducing the difficulty of tasks for students
Question 197Single Answer
The concept of 'multiple intelligences' was proposed by:
A
Jean Piaget
B
Howard Gardner
C
Lev Vygotsky
D
Benjamin Bloom
Question 198Single Answer
Mendel's law of segregation states that:
A
Alleles assort independently
B
Alleles separate during gamete formation
C
Alleles are linked together
D
Alleles show incomplete dominance
Question 199Single Answer
The law of independent assortment applies to:
A
Genes located on the same chromosome
B
Genes located on different chromosomes
C
Genes showing incomplete dominance
D
Genes showing co-dominance
Question 200Single Answer
In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous genotype results in: