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Question Bank

Question for DU B.ED JEE - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

View DU B.ED JEE 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in DU B.ED JEE exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in DU B.ED JEE exams.

Latest DU B.ED JEE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Awareness, Teaching Aptitude, Reasoning, Social Science, English, General Hindi

Question Bank DU B.ED JEE Exam (Social Science) - English

General Awareness

Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
Q 11 :
‘Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance’ (RAMP) is supported by which global institution ?
  1. A.International Monetary Fund
  2. B.World Bank
  3. C.UNICEF
  4. D.World Economic Forum
Q 12 :
Which section of Railways has completed 100 per cent electrification across the Zone ?
  1. A.Konkan Railway
  2. B.North East Frontier Railway 
  3. C.East Coast Railway
  4. D.South Central Railway    
Q 13 :
Kaziranga National Park is located along which Indian River ?
  1. A.Ganga
  2. B.Yamuna
  3. C.Brahmaputra
  4. D.Sutlej
Q 14 :
Which bank acquired the Indian consumer banking business of City Bank ?
  1. A.HDFC Bank
  2. B.Axis Bank
  3. C.ICICI Bank
  4. D.Yes Bank   
Q 15 :
The Lok Sabha passed a bill to merge three municipal corporations of which city into a single entity ?
  1. A.Mumbai
  2. B.Delhi
  3. C.Kolkata
  4. D.Chennai

Teaching Aptitude

Q 16 :
Which is the main objective of research?
  1. A.To review the literature
  2. B.To summarize what is already known
  3. C.To get an academic degree
  4. D.To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Q 17 :
Sampling error decreases with the
  1. A.decrease in sample size
  2. B.increase in sample size
  3. C.process of randomization
  4. D.process of analysis
Q 18 :
The principles of fundamental research are used in
  1. A.action research
  2. B.applied research
  3. C.philosophical research
  4. D.historical research
Q 19 :
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
  1. A.Passive audience
  2. B.Active audience
  3. C.Positive audience
  4. D.Negative audience
Q 20 :
Classroom communication can be described as
  1. A.Exploration
  2. B.Institutionalisation
  3. C.Unsignified narration
  4. D.Discourse
Q 21 :
Ideological codes shape our collective
  1. A.Productions
  2. B.Perceptions
  3. C.Consumptions
  4. D.Creations
Q 22 :
In communication, myths have power, but are
  1. A.Uncultural.
  2. B.Insignificant.
  3. C.imprecise.
  4. D.Unpreferred.
Q 23 :
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
  1. A.Samachar
  2. B.API
  3. C.Hindustan Samachar
  4. D.Samachar Bharati
Q 24 :
Organisational communication can also be equated with
  1. A.intra-personal communication
  2. B.inter-personal communication
  3. C.group communication
  4. D.mass communication
Q 25 :
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
  1. A.Contradictory
  2. B.Contrary
  3. C.Sub-contrary
  4. D.Sub-alternation
Q 26 :
Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak. Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi  and Bengali?
  1. A.Archana
  2. B.Bulbul
  3. C.Ananya
  4. D.Krishna
Q 27 :
A stipulative definition may be said to be
  1. A.Always true
  2. B.Always false
  3. C.Sometimes true, sometimes false
  4. D.Neither true nor false
Q 28 :
Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
  1. A.Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics,  New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2006
  2. B.Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics,  New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2003
  3. C.Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics,  New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2002
  4. D.Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics.  New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Q 29 :
When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
  1. A.Circular argument
  2. B.Inductive argument
  3. C.Deductive argument
  4. D.Analogical argument
Q 30 :
A workshop is
  1. A.a conference for discussion on a topic.
  2. B.a meeting for discussion on a topic.
  3. C.a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
  4. D.a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.

Reasoning

Q 31 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 32 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 33 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 34 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 38 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 39 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 40 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
Q 41 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
Q 42 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
Q 43 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 44 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 45 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 46 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
Q 47 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
Q 48 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 49 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
Q 50 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

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