📚 Exam by Category
▾
Objective Questions

Latest ECIL Junior Technical Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Awareness, Mechanical Engineering

Question Bank ECIL Junior Technical Officer (Mechanical Engineering) Exam - English
Back to Exam

General Awareness

Question 1Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
  1. A
    Window
  2. B
    Pop-up menu
  3. C
    Message box
  4. D
    Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
  1. A
    a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
  2. B
    a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
  3. C
    both a and b above mentioned
  4. D
    A software
  5. E
    None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
  1. A
    A window that is minimized
  2. B
    The window currently receiving user input
  3. C
    Any window currently open
  4. D
    The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
  1. A
    An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
  2. B
    A computer operating system
  3. C
    A spreadsheet application
  4. D
    A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
  1. A
    word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
  2. B
    computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
  3. C
    Both a and b above mentioned
  4. D
    a document
  5. E
    None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance        
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 7Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance 
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 8Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A
    Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B
    Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C
    Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D
    Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 9Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A
    1 and 3
  2. B
    2 and 3
  3. C
    1 and 2
  4. D
    1,2 and 3
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A
    Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B
    Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C
    Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D
    Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 11Single Answer
What is the theme of the ‘National Science Day 2022’?
  1. A
    Integrated Approach in Science and Technology for Sustainable Future
  2. B
    Science and Technology for Atmanirbhar Bharat
  3. C
    Vigyan Sarvatra Pujyate
  4. D
    Amrut Kaal Vigyan
Question 12Single Answer
What does ‘S’ Stand for in ‘SWIFT’ Financial messaging service ?
  1. A
    Secure
  2. B
    Society
  3. C
    Simple
  4. D
    Service
Question 13Single Answer
The Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) announced a research collaboration with which company to develop a vaccine for Covid-19 ?
  1. A
    Bharat Biotech International Ltd
  2. B
    Biocon
  3. C
    Institute of India
  4. D
    Dr. Reddy’s Laboratories Limited
Question 14Single Answer
Name the world’s first airport fully powered by solar energy, that is set to become power-positive ?
  1. A
    Chennai International Airport 
  2. B
    Cochin International Airport    
  3. C
    Thriuvanthapuram International Airport
  4. D
    Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel International Airport      
Question 15Single Answer
Name the operation launched by Indian Government for the evacuation of Indian National from Ukraine due to Russia -Ukraine war.
  1. A
    Operation Yamuna
  2. B
    Operation Ganga
  3. C
    Operation Rahat
  4. D
    Operation Insaniyat
Question 16Single Answer
‘Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance’ (RAMP) is supported by which global institution ?
  1. A
    International Monetary Fund
  2. B
    World Bank
  3. C
    UNICEF
  4. D
    World Economic Forum
Question 17Single Answer
Which section of Railways has completed 100 per cent electrification across the Zone ?
  1. A
    Konkan Railway
  2. B
    North East Frontier Railway 
  3. C
    East Coast Railway
  4. D
    South Central Railway    
Question 18Single Answer
Kaziranga National Park is located along which Indian River ?
  1. A
    Ganga
  2. B
    Yamuna
  3. C
    Brahmaputra
  4. D
    Sutlej
Question 19Single Answer
Which bank acquired the Indian consumer banking business of City Bank ?
  1. A
    HDFC Bank
  2. B
    Axis Bank
  3. C
    ICICI Bank
  4. D
    Yes Bank   
Question 20Single Answer
The Lok Sabha passed a bill to merge three municipal corporations of which city into a single entity ?
  1. A
    Mumbai
  2. B
    Delhi
  3. C
    Kolkata
  4. D
    Chennai

Mechanical Engineering

Question 21Single Answer
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
  1. A
    Greater than 1
  2. B
    Equal to 1
  3. C
    Between 1 and 3
                   4        4
  4. D
    Less than 1
Question 22Single Answer
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
  1. A
    1
  2. B
    2
  3. C
    3
  4. D
    4
Question 23Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
  1. A
    Newtonian fluid 
  2. B
    Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
  3. C
    Pseudo-plastic fluids
  4. D
    Dilatent fluids
Question 24Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
  1. A
    8
  2. B
    6
  3. C
    4
  4. D
    2
Question 25Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
  1. A
    0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
  2. B
    4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
  3. C
    0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
  4. D
    4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 26Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A
    Both 1 and 2
  2. B
    1 only 
  3. C
    2 only
  4. D
    Neither 1 nor 2 
Question 27Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible? 
  1. A
    Possible for steady, incompressible flow
  2. B
    Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
  3. C
    Possible for steady, compressible flow 
  4. D
    Not Possible 
Question 28Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A
    0.25
  2. B
    0.26
  3. C
    2
  4. D
    4
Question 29Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
  1. A
    10 kW 
  2. B
    20 kW
  3. C
    30 kW
  4. D
    50 kW
Question 30Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
  1. A
    man power
  2. B
    profit
  3. C
    inventory
  4. D
    manufacturing
Question 31Single Answer
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
  1. A
    3 m/s2
  2. B
    6 m/s2
  3. C
    9 m/s2
  4. D
    15 m/s2
Question 32Single Answer
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
  1. A
    9
  2. B
    -6
  3. C
    117
  4. D
    10.8
Question 33Single Answer
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
  1. A
    More for lighter fluid
  2. B
    More for denser fluid
  3. C
    Less for denser fluid
  4. D
    Less for lighter fluid
Question 34Single Answer
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
  1. A
    Linearly with fluid density
  2. B
    Inversely with pressure drop
  3. C
    Directly as square of pipe radius
  4. D
    Inversely with fluid velocity
Question 35Single Answer
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
  1. A
    1.5mm
  2. B
    2.5mm
  3. C
    4.0mm
  4. D
    5.0mm
Question 36Single Answer
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
  1. A
    0.05m 
  2. B
    0.07m
  3. C
    0.08m
  4. D
    0.09m
Question 37Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
 
  1. A
    8 kW     
  2. B
    4 kW
  3. C
    2 kW    
  4. D
     1 kW
Question 38Single Answer
In a hydraulic coupling
  1. A
    The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
  2. B
    The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
  3. C
    The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
  4. D
    The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque 
Question 39Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
  1. A
    1,2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1,2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1,2, 3 and 4 
Question 40Single Answer
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
  1. A
    150 N
  2. B
    1470 N
  3. C
    340 N
  4. D
    900 N
Question 41Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A
    1,2 and 3
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    1 and 3 only
  4. D
    2 and 3 only
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
  1. A
    Energy 
  2. B
    Mass
  3. C
    Momentum
  4. D
    Angle
Question 43Single Answer
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
  1. A
    Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  2. B
    Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
  3. C
    Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  4. D
    Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid 
Question 44Single Answer
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
  1. A
    2Q
  2. B
    A little more than 2Q
  3. C
    A little less than 2Q
  4. D
    4Q
Question 45Single Answer
 Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
  1. A
     7.5 W/m2K      
  2. B
    15 W/m2K
  3. C
    25 W/m2K      
  4. D
     35 W/m2K
Question 46Single Answer
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
  1. A
    Remains constant over the cross-section
  2. B
    Varies linearly with the radial distance
  3. C
    Must be zero at all point 
  4. D
    Varies parabolically with radial distance
Question 47Single Answer
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
  1. A
    Creep
  2. B
    Malleability
  3. C
    Ductility
  4. D
    Elasticity in the metal
Question 48Single Answer
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
  1. A
    Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
  2. B
    Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
  3. C
    The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
  4. D
    No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
Question 49Single Answer
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
  1. A
    Pressure and inertial forces
  2. B
    Gravity and inertial forces
  3. C
    Viscous and inertial forces
  4. D
    Pressure and inertial forces
Question 50Single Answer
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
  1. A
    Penstock/nozzl
  2. B
    Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
  3. C
    Vanes receiving impact of jet
  4. D
    Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube 
Important Questions Package

ECIL Junior Technical Officer Exam Online Question Bank Package

Buy ECIL Junior Technical Officer Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in ECIL Junior Technical Officer question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.

+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.Package NameAmount
1.ECIL Junior Technical Officer (Civil Engineering) Exam - English
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
₹181 [₹500]
2.ECIL Junior Technical Officer (Civil Engineering) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1400 Question with Answer.
₹181 [₹500]
3.ECIL Junior Technical Officer (Electrical Engineering) Exam - English
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
₹181 [₹500]
4.ECIL Junior Technical Officer (Electrical Engineering) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1200 Question with Answer.
₹181 [₹500]
5.ECIL Junior Technical Officer (Mechanical Engineering) Exam - English
Description : 1430 Question with Answer.
₹181 [₹500]
6.ECIL Junior Technical Officer (Mechanical Engineering) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
₹181 [₹500]
7.ECIL Junior Technical Officer (Electronic Engineering) Exam - English
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
₹181 [₹500]
8.ECIL Junior Technical Officer (Electronic Engineering) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
₹181 [₹500]
Back to Exam
Question for ECIL Junior Technical Officer 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam