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Latest ECIL Technical Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Science, Logical Reasoning, English, General Knowledge, Aptitude, Computer Science
Question Bank ECIL Technical Officer Exam (Computer Science) - English
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 2 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 3 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 4 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 5 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 6 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 7 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 8 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 9 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 10 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 11 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 12 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 13 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 14 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 15 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 16 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 17 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 18 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 19 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 20 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Logical Reasoning
Q 21 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 22 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 23 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 24 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 25 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 26 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 27 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 28 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 29 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 30 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 31 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 32 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 33 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 34 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 35 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 38 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 40 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
English
Q 41 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 42 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 43 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 44 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 45 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 46 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 47 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 48 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 49 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 50 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
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English
Q 51 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 52 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 53 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 54 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 55 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 56 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 57 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 58 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 59 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 60 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
General Knowledge
Q 61 :
Zoox, that was recently acquired by Amazon, is a start-up firm related to which field?
A.Self-driving Car
B.Aerial Transport
C.Social Media
D.Ride Hailing Service
Q 62 :
Which Union Ministry launched the Pradhan Mantri FME Scheme, to generate investments of Rs. 35,000 crore?
A.Ministry of MSME
B.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
C.Ministry of Agriculture and Family Welfare
D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Q 63 :
Where is the headquarters of United Nations office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) located?
A.Geneva
B.New York
C.Vienna
D.Paris
Q 64 :
Which Indian became the youngest umpire to enter International Cricket Council (ICC) Elite Panel
A.Srinivas Venkatraghavan
B.Sundaram Ravi
C.Nitin Menon
D.Krish Srikanth
Q 65 :
Which is the parent organization of “Global Forum on transparency and Exchange of Information for tax purposes”?
A.Financial Action Task Force
B.Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
C.G-20
D.Common Wealth
Q 66 :
Milton Glaer, who recently passed away, was associated with which field?
A.Sports
B.Politics
C.Graphics Design
D.Space Science
Q 67 :
A community centre called “Sanskritik Sadbhav Mandap” is located being constructed in which state?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Uttar Pradesh
C.Maharashtra
D.Bihar
Q 68 :
Who is the head of the Health Ministry’s committee, which recommended the Serological Survey?
A.V K Paul
B.Harsh Vardhan
C.Amitabh Kant
D.V.K. Saraswat
Q 69 :
Who has been conferred with the lifetime achievement award for his contribution to statistics?
A.D Subba Rao
B.C Rangarajan
C.Bimal Jalan
D.Y V Reddy
Q 70 :
Which Global organization has approved a project for India called “Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for states program (STARS)?
A.World Bank
B.World Economic Forum
C.International Monetary Fund
D.Asian Development Bank
Q 71 :
The World Bank has approved USD 250 million loan for affordable housing projects of which Indian state?
A.Odisha
B.West Bengal
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Kerala
Q 72 :
Which is the first Indian state/UT to launch a dedicated Plasma Bank to treat COVID-19 patients?
A.Kerala
B.Maharashtra
C.New Delhi
D.Uttar Pradesh
Q 73 :
Which state government is set to launch the ‘Kill Corona’ campaign, to control the spread of coronavirus?
A.Bihar
B.Uttar Pradesh
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Gujarat
Q 74 :
The Indian Government has banned 59 Chinese apps, by invoking its power under which act?
A.Information Technology (IT) Act
B.Right to Information Act
C.The Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act
D.Export-Quality Control and Inspection Act
Q 75 :
What is the theme of the ‘National Statistics Day’ 2020, celebrated on June 29?
A.Sustainable Development Goals 3 and 5
B.Honouring P. C. Mahalanobis
C.Statistics is Life
D.Indian statistics
Q 76 :
Which Union Ministry has developed a new web portal to issue No Objection Certificate (NOC) for power projects?
A.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
B.Ministry of Power
C.Ministry of Defence
D.Ministry of Coal
Q 77 :
Kholongchhu is the first joint venture hydroelectric project between India and which country?
A.Singapore
B.Bangladesh
C.Bhutan
D.Myanmar
Q 78 :
Who has been named as ‘India’s Most Valuable Test Player of the 21st Century’ by Wisden?
A.Mahendra Singh Dhoni
B.Virat Kohli
C.Ravindra Jadeja
D.R Ashwin
Q 79 :
Which is the headquarters of United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA)?
A.Geneva
B.New York
C.Nairobi
D.Paris
Q 80 :
Which is the “International Asteroid Day” celebrated across the world?
A.June 30
B.July 1
C.July 2
D.July 3
Aptitude
Q 81 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 82 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 83 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 84 :
Mr. Sinha distributes a certain sum of money among his five sons, one daughter and his wife in such a way that each son gets double the amount of his daughter and the wife gets double the amount of each son. If each son gets Rs. 15000, what was the total amount distributed ?
A.Rs. 123000
B.Rs. 112500
C.Rs. 138500
D.Rs. 132500
Q 85 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 86 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 87 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 88 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 89 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 90 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 91 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 92 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 93 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 94 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 95 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 96 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 97 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 98 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 99 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 100 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Computer Science
Q 101 :
When two number are added in excess-3 code and the sum is less than 9 , then in order to get the correct answer it is necessary to
A.subtract 0011 from the sum
B.add 0011 to the sum
C.subtract 0110 from the sum
D.add 0110 to the sum
Q 102 :
The characteristic equation of an SR filp-flop is given by
A.Qn+1 = S+RQn
B.Qn+1 = S n+ Qn
C.Qn+1 = ​ + RQn
D.Qn+1 = S+ Qn
Q 103 :
A graph with n vertices and n-1 edges that is not a tree , is
A.Connected
B.disconnected
C.Euler
D.A circuit
Q 104 :
Networks that use different technologies can be connected by using
A.Packets
B.Switches
C.Bridges
D.Routers
Q 105 :
A read bit can be read
A.and written by CPU
B.and written by peripheral
C.by peripheral and written by CPU
D.by CPU and written by the peripheral
Q 106 :
The term ‘aging’ refers to
A.booting up the priority of the process in multi-level of queue without feedback .
B.gradually increasing the priority of job that wait in the system for a long time to remedy infinite booking .
C.keeping track of the following a page has been in memory for the purpose of LRU replacement .
D.letting jobs reside in memory for a certain amount of time so that the no pages required can be estimated accurately
Q 107 :
Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1 ,r2………….. rn To be run on a uni processor machine . Which of the following processer scheduling algorithms will result in the maximum throughput ?
A.Round Robin
B.Shortest job first
C.Highest response ratio first
D.First come first served
Q 108 :
Consider a job scheduling program with 4 jobs J1 , J2, J3 and J4 With corresponding deadlines : (d1 , d2 , d3 , d4) = (4, 2, 4, 2). Which of the following is not a feasible schedule without violating any job schedule?
A.J2, J4, J1, J3
B.J4, J1, J2, J3
C.J4, J2, J1, J3
D.J4, J2, J3, J1
Q 109 :
By using a eight bit optical encoder the degree of resolution that can be obtained is (approximately)
A.1.8o
B.3.4 o
C.2.8 o
D.1.4 o
Q 110 :
The principal of the locality of reference justifies the use of
A.virtual memory
B.interrupts
C.main memory
D.cache memory
Q 111 :
Consider the following pseudo-code
x ; = 1;
I ; = 1;
While (x,=1000) begin
x ; =2x;
i ; = i+1;end;
what is the value of I at the end of the pseudo-code
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
Q 112 :
The five items : A, B, C, D and E are pushed in stack, one after other starting from A. The stack is popped four items and each element is inserted in a queue . The two element are deleted from the queue and pushed back on the stack, Now one item is popped from the stack . The popped item is
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
Q 113 :
Round Robin schedule is essentially the pre-emptive version of
A.FIFO
B.Shortest job first
C.Shortest remaining time
D.Longest remaining time
Q 114 :
The number of digit 1 present in the binary representative of 3 x 512 + 7 x 6 + 5 x 8 + 3 ? is
A.8
B.9
C.10
D.12
Q 115 :
Assume that each character code consists of 8 bits. The number of characters that can be transmitted per second through an synchronous serial line at 2400 baud rate, and with two stop bits is
A.109
B.216
C.218
D.219
Q 116 :
If the bandwidth of a single is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz, what is the highest frequency
A.5 kHz
B.10 kHz
C.I47 kHz
D.57 kHz
Q 117 :
An Ethernet hub
A.Function as a repeater
B.Connects to a digital PBX
C.Connects to a token-ring network
D.Function as a gateway
Q 118 :
Which of the following is an illegal array definition?
Type COLONGE: (LIME, PINE, MUSK, MENTHOL):
A.var a: array (COLONGE) or REAL;
B.var a: array [REAL] of REAL;
C.var a: array [‘A’……..’Z’] of REAL;
D.var a: array [BOOLEAN] of REAL;
Q 119 :
The team phong associated with
A.Ray tracing
B.Shading
C.Hiddenline removal
D.a game
Q 120 :
The Boolean expression is given by
A.A
B.B
C.​
D.AB
Q 121 :
The subnet mask 255.255.255.192
A.extends the network portion to 6 bits
B.extends the network portion to 26 bits
C.extends the network portion to 36 bits
D.has no effects on the network portion of an IP address
Q 122 :
On a LAN, where are IP datagram transported?
A.In the LAN header
B.In the application field
C.In the information field of the LAN frame
D.After the TCP header
Q 123 :
In Ethernet, the source address field in the MAC frame is the ____ address.
A.Original sender’s physical
B.Previous station’s physical
C.Next destination’s physical
D.Original sender’s service port
Q 124 :
Which of the following transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation?
A.Radio
B.Optical fibers
C.Coaxial cable
D.Twisted pair
Q 125 :
The postfix expression AB + CD – * can be evaluated using a
A.stack
B.tree
C.queue
D.linked list
Q 126 :
Both hosts and routers are TCP/IP protocol software. However, routers do not use protocol from all layers. The layer for which protocol software is not needed by a router is
A.Layer – 5 (Application)
B.Layer – 1 (Physical)
C.Layer – 3 (Internet)
D.Layer – 2 (Network Interface)
Q 127 :
Phase transition for each it are used in
A.Amplitude modulation
B.Carrier modulation
C.Manchester encoding
D.NRZ encoding
Q 128 :
The TCP sliding window
A.Can be used to control the flow of information
B.always occurs when the field value is 0
C.always occurs when the field value is 1
D.occurs horizontal
Q 129 :
Study the following program
// precondition: x. =0
Public void demo (int x)
{ System. out. print(x%10)
If ((x/10 ) ! = 10)
{
Demo (x/10) ;
}
System. outsprint (x % 10)
}
Which of the following is printed as a result of the call demo (1234)?
A.1441
B.3443
C.12344321
D.43211234
Q 130 :
Of the following sort algorithms, which has execution time that is least dependent on initial ordering of the input ?
A.Insertion sort
B.Quick sort
C.Merge sort
D.Selection sort
Q 131 :
What is the bandwidth of the signal that ranges from 40 kHz 4 kHz
A.36MHz
B.360 kHz
C.3.96mHz
D.396 MHz
Q 132 :
If there are five routers and six network in intranet using link state routing, how many routing tables are there ?
A.1
B.5
C.6
D.11
Q 133 :
virtual memory is
A.Part of Main Memory only used for swapping
B.A technique to allow a program, of size more than the size of main memory, to run
C.Part of secondary storage used in program execution
D.none of these
Q 134 :
The level of aggregation of information required for operational control is
A.Detailed
B.Aggregate
C.Qualitative
D.None of these
Q 135 :
Which Project 802 standard provides for a collision-free protocol?
A.802.2
B.802.3
C.802.5
D.802.6
Q 136 :
The set of all Equivalence Classes of a set A of Cardinality C
A.is of cardinality 2C
B.have the some cardinality as A
C.forms a partition of A
D.is of cardinality c2
Q 137 :
0.75 decimal system is equivalent to ………. In octal system.
A.0.60
B.0.52
C.0.54
D.0.50
Q 138 :
In an SR latch made by cross-coupling two NAND gates, if both S and R inputs are set to 0, then it will result in
A.Q = 0, Q’ = 1
B.Q = 1, Q’ = 0
C.Q = 1, Q’ = 1
D.Indeterminate states
Q 139 :
Identify the correct translation into logical notation of the following assertion. Some boys in the class are taller than all girls Note: taller (x,y) is true if x is taller then y.
Q 140 :
Company X shipped 5 computer chips, 1 of which was defective, and company Y shipped 4 computer chips, 2 of which were defective. One computer chip is to be chosen uniformly at a random from the 9 chips shipped by the companies. If the chosen chips is found to be defective, what is the probability that the chip came from the company Y?
A.2
9
B.4
9
C.2
3
D.1
2
Q 141 :
Ring counter is analogous to
A.Toggle Switch
B.Latch
C.Stepping Switching
D.S-R slip flop
Q 142 :
The output 0 and 1 level for TTL logic family is approximately
A.0.1 and 5 V
B.0.6 and 3.5 V
C.0.9 and 1.75 V
D.-1.75 and 0.9 V
Q 143 :
Consider a computer system that stores a floating-point number with 16-bit mantissa and an 8-bit exponent, each in two’s complement. The smallest and largest positive values can be stored are
A.1 x 10-128 and 215 x 10128
B.1 x 10-256 and 215 x 10256
C.1 x 10-128 and 215 x 10127
D.1 x 10-128 and (215-1) x 10127
Q 144 :
In comparison with static RAM memory, the dynamic RAM memory has
A.lower bit density and higher power consumption
B.higher bit density and higher power consumption
C.lower bit density and lower power consumption
D.higher bit density and lower power consumption
Q 145 :
The Hexadecimal equivalent of 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 is
A.CD73E
B.ABD3F
C.7CDE3
D.FA4CD
Q 146 :
Disk requests are received by a disk drive for cylinder 5, 25, 18, 3, 39, 8 and 35 in that order. A seek takes 5 msec per cylinder moved. How much seek time is needed to serve these request for a shortest seek first (SSF) algorithm? Assume that the arm is at cylinder 20 when the last of these requests is made with none of the requests yet served
A.125 msec
B.295 msec
C.575 msec
D.750 msec
Q 147 :
Consider a system having ‘m’ resources of the same type. The resources are shared by 3 processes A, B, C which have peak time demands of 3, 4, 6, respectively. The minimum value of ‘m’ that ensures that deadlock will never occur is
A.11
B.12
C.13
D.14
Q 148 :
A task in a blocked state
A.is executable
B.is running
C.must still be placed in the run queues
D.is waiting for some temporarily unavailable resources
Q 149 :
Semaphores
A.synchronize critical resources to prevent deadlock
B.synchronize critical resources to prevent contention
C.are used to do input/output
D.are used for memory management
Q 150 :
On a system using non-preemptive scheduling, processes with expected run times of 5, 18, 9 and 12 are in the ready queue. In what order should they be run to minimize wait time ?
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
n+ 
Qn 
Qn 
is given by