Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 3Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 4Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 5Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 9Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 10Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 11Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 14Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 15Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 16Single Answer
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A
UW483
B
ZA26
C
TU420
D
ST380
E
None of these
Question 17Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A
U
B
T
C
A
D
G
E
None of these
Question 18Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A
E
B
G
C
F
D
B
E
None of these
Question 19Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A
M
B
K
C
H
D
J
E
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
E
None of these
Question 21Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A
P
B
K
C
J
D
I
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A
8
B
1
C
9
D
2
E
None of these
Question 23Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A
A
B
G
C
H
D
B
E
None of these
Question 25Single Answer
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A
S 3 H *
B
T#H*
C
T*#H
D
S*H5
E
SH*1
Numerical Ability
Question 26Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 28Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 29Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 30Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 31Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 32Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 33Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 34Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 35Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 36Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 37Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 38Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 39Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 40Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 41Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 42Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 43Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 44Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 45Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
General Awareness
Question 46Single Answer
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A
It is a financial establishment
B
It acts like a financial intermediary
C
It accepts deposits from the public
D
It provides safe locker facility
E
All the above
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A
A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B
They include general utility services and agency services.
C
A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D
A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E
A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Question 48Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A
Issuance of debit and credit cards
B
Providing safe custody of valuable items
C
ATM services
D
Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E
Online transfer of funds across the globe
Question 49Single Answer
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A
Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C
Banking Regulation Act 1949
D
Company Act 1956
E
None of the above
Question 50Single Answer
Banks in India are regulated by :
A
The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B
The Banking regulation Act,1949
C
The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D
The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E
None of the above
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General Awareness
Question 51Single Answer
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A
Zero Hour
B
Input devices
C
Privilege motion
D
Sedimentary
E
Invest rate swap
Question 52Single Answer
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A
Investment Banking
B
Core Banking
C
Mobile Banking
D
National Banking
E
Specialized Banking
Question 53Single Answer
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A
Will
B
Registration
C
Nomination
D
Indemnity
E
Guarantee
Question 54Single Answer
Which of the following is not banking term?
A
Letter of credit
B
MIBOR
C
Factoring services
D
Entry load
E
None of the above
Question 55Single Answer
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A
Mutual Funds
B
Life Insurance Companies
C
Commercial Banks
D
Post office saving schemes
E
None of the above
Question 56Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 57Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 58Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 59Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 60Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 61Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 62Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 63Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 64Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 66Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 67Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 68Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 69Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 70Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 71Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 72Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 73Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 74Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 75Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
Question 76Single Answer
Joha rice, which was seen in the news, is from which state/UT ?
A
West Bengal
B
Assam
C
Odisha
D
Bihar
Question 77Single Answer
Which Union Ministry announced changes in UAV Export Policy to make it simpler and liberalized ?
A
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B
Ministry of MSME
C
Ministry of External Affairs
D
Ministry of Home Affairs
Question 78Single Answer
Archaeologists have unearthed a 4,000-year-old sanctuary in which country ?
A
Netherlands
B
Greece
C
Japan
D
China
Question 79Single Answer
Heliopolis Memorial, which was seen in the news, is located in which country ?
A
Japan
B
USA
C
Egypt
D
Germany
Question 80Single Answer
Which country leads the ‘Minerals Security Partnership (MSP)’ ?
A
USA
B
India
C
Germany
D
Italy
Question 81Single Answer
‘Arkadag’, a US$5 billion ‘smart’ city, was unveiled in which of the following countries to honor its former leader Gurbanguly Berdymukhamedov ?
A
Iran
B
Russia
C
Oman
D
Turkmenistan
Question 82Single Answer
Who among the following has been appointed as a special Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) ?
A
Manoj Sashidhar
B
Ajay Bhatnagar
C
Sharad Agarwal
D
Anurag Joshi
Question 83Single Answer
In June 2023, which country will be collaborating with India in the defence sector, with a particular focus on the maritime domain ?
A
Thailand
B
Indonesia
C
The Philippines
D
Nepal
Question 84Single Answer
Who among the following would take over Markus Duesmann as the CEO & Chairman of Audi ?
A
Gernot Dollner
B
Oliver Hoffmann
C
Xavier Ros
D
Renate Vachenauer
Question 85Single Answer
How much amount has been approved by the World Bank to accelerate the development of India’s low-carbon energy sector ?
A
$2.4 billion
B
$3.1 billion
C
2 billion
D
1.5 billion
Question 86Single Answer
Kyriakos Mitsotaki has been elected as the Prime Minister of which country ?
A
France
B
Greece
C
Japan
D
South Korea
Question 87Single Answer
What is the rank of India in “WCC’s Global Competitiveness Index’ ?
A
12
B
25
C
40
D
56
Question 88Single Answer
Which bloc has conducted a joint military drill named ‘Solidarity Exercise’ ?
A
EU
B
G-20
C
ASEAN
D
BIMSTEC
Question 89Single Answer
Which organization approved USD 255.5 million loan for Multidisciplinary Education and Research in India ?
A
ADB
B
AIIB
C
IMF
D
World Bank
Question 90Single Answer
Utah Mountains, which were seen in the news, for Watermelon Snow, is situated in which country ?
A
Russia
B
Ukraine
C
USA
D
Indonesia
Management and Ethics
Question 91Single Answer
Indicate the correct code for the scope of managerial economics from the following :
(a) Demand Analysis
(b) Production and Cost Analysis
(c) Pricing and Investment Decisions
(d) Factor pricing Decisions
(e) Economic Environmental Analysis
Codes :
A
(a), (b), (c), (d)
B
(b), (c), (d), (e)
C
(a), (b), (c), (e)
D
(a), (c), (d), (e)
Question 92Single Answer
Which one of the following will be the appropriate pricing strategy for a new product expecting an expanding market?
A
Monopoly pricing
B
Skimming pricing
C
Penetrating pricing
D
Differential pricing
Question 93Single Answer
Match the items of the List-I with those of the List-II and suggest the correct code from the following :
List-I List-II
(a) Loss Leader (i) Locational price differentials
(b) Unchanged Pricing (ii) Products with high initial demands
(c) Basing Point Pricing (iii) Product line pricing
(d) Skimming Pricing (iv) Oligopoly pricing
Code :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
D
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Question 94Single Answer
In case the firm makes varying investments on the different investment projects, the appropriate project evaluation technique would be, which one of the following?
A
Average annual rate of return technique
B
Pay back period technique
C
Net present value technique
D
Profitability index technique
Question 95Single Answer
According to Henry Fayol, which one of the following combinations of qualities are required in a manager?
A
Physical, mental, experience, educational and conceptual.
B
Technical, human, conceptual, mental and moral.
C
Physical, mental, moral, educational, technical and experience
D
Mental, moral, conceptual, educational, technical and experience.
Question 96Single Answer
Neo-classical organisation theory emphasises on which one of the following?
A
Flat structure of organisation
B
Tall structure of organisation.
C
Coordination by hierarchy
D
Unity of command
Question 97Single Answer
According to Graicuna’s formula of span of management, if a superior has three subordinates, what number of cross-relationships would be?
A
three
B
six
C
nine
D
eighteen
Question 98Single Answer
In Reddin’s Tridimensional Grid’, which one of the following is a less effective style of leadership?
A
Developer
B
Missionary
C
Executive
D
Bureaucrat
Question 99Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Attribution theory is based on relationship between personal perception and interpersonal behaviour.
Reasoning (R) : Since most ‘whys’ are not directly observable, people must depend upon cognitions, particularly perception.
Codes :
A
(A) is right but (R) is wrong.
B
(A) is wrong but (R) is right.
C
Both (A) & (R) are right but (R) doesnot explain (A).
D
Both (A) & (R) are right and (R) explains (A).
Question 100Single Answer
Arrange the following steps of training and development process in the right sequence :
(a) Need analysis
(b) Validation
(c) Evaluation
(d) Implement the programme
(e) Instructional design
A
(a), (e), (d), (c), (b)
B
(a), (e), (c), (b), (d)
C
(a), (e), (b), (d), (c)
D
(a), (b), (e), (c), (d)
Question 101Single Answer
Which one of the following is related to ‘Standard of Personnel’?
A
Job Specification
B
Job Description
C
Job Design
D
Job Evaluation
Question 102Single Answer
If an employee desires to pay more than the minimum required contribution under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 then :
A
employer shall also pay an amount equal to the total contribution of employee.
B
employer shall pay only half of the additional contribution of employee.
C
employer is under no obligation to pay the additional contribution.
D
the act is silent regarding this matter.
Question 103Single Answer
Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948, sickness benefit can be paid for which one of the following maximum periods?
A
45 days in two consecutive benefit periods.
B
66 days in two consecutive benefit perieds.
C
91 days in two consecutive benefit periods.
D
180 days in two consecutive benefit periods.
Question 104Single Answer
Which one of the following laws is enacted by the Central Government and enforced by the State Governments?
A
The Employess State Insurance Act, 1948
B
The Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
C
Factories Act, 1948
D
The Mines Act, 1952
Question 105Single Answer
The cost of external equity can be most appropriately computed as per the :
A
Earnings price ratio
B
Dividend price ratio
C
Dividend price plus growth ratio
D
Capital assets pricing model
Question 106Single Answer
For the following items in List-I and List-II, indicate the correct code after matching them :
List-I List-II
(a) Net income (i) Modigliani, M and
approach for capital Miller MH.
a structure
(b) Net operating (ii) Robert Bruner
income approach
for capital structure
(c) Irrelevance of (iii) Ezra Soloman
capital structure for
the value of the firm
(d) FRICT analysis (iv) David Durand
for capital structure
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (C) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
D
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Question 107Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a feature of ‘Preference Shares’?
A
Prior claim on income / assets of the company over equity shareholders
B
Redeemability after certain period.
C
Possessing voting rights on important issues of the company.
D
May possess the right to participate in surplus profits of the company.
Question 108Single Answer
The basic consideration for dividend payout for a company excludes which one of the following?
A
Investment opportunities for the company
B
Expectations of the shareholders of the company
C
Legal and financial restrictions for the company
D
Stability of the dividend considerations
Question 109Single Answer
For the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) indicate the correct code :
Assertion (A) : Shareholders Wealth Maximisation (SWM) & not the profit maximisation is an appropriate & operationally feasible financial management goal.
Reasoning (R) : There exists a princi-pal-agent relationship between the shareholders and the management of the company.
Codes :
A
(A) and (R) both are correct.
B
(A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
C
(A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
D
(A) and (R) both are incorrect.
Question 110Single Answer
Which one of the following components is not the part of broad marketing environment?
A
Technological environment.
B
Task environment
C
Demographic environment
D
Natural environment
Question 111Single Answer
The Coco Cola Company markets a wide range of different beverage products including bottled water, soft-drinks juices and sports drinks. Each product appeals to a different segment. This is an example of which type of market offering?
A
Differentiated marketing
B
Target marketing
C
Undifferentiated marketing
D
Intensified marketing
Question 112Single Answer
Temporarily reducing prices to increase short-run sales is an example which one of the following?
A
Segmented pricing
B
Promotional pricing
C
Dynamic pricing
D
Geographical pricing
Question 113Single Answer
Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and indicate the code of correct matching :
List-I List-II
(a) Brand elements (i) The marketer’s vision
of what the brand must
be & do for consumers.
(b) Brand line (ii) All products original
as well as line and category extensions,
sold under a particular
brand name.
(c) Brand personality (iii) Those trademarkable
devices that serve to
identify & differentiate
the brand.
(d) Brand promise (iv) The specific mix of
human traits that may
be attributed to a
particular brand.
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
D
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Question 114Single Answer
Statement-I : In developing advertising programme marketing managers must always start by identifying the target market and buyer motives.
Statement-II : A company may run multiple ad campaigns at the same time, each emphasizing different aspects of its brand and service.
A
Only Statement-I is correct.
B
Only Statement-II is correct.
C
Both Statement-I and II are correct.
D
Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
Question 115Single Answer
Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the code of correct matching with regard to forecasting models for operations.
List -I List-II
(Model Type Name) (Description)
(a) Delphi Technique (i) Causal quantitative
model
(b) Ecnomic modeling (ii) Quantitative model
(Naive)
(c) Exponetital (iii) Qualitative model
Smoothing
Code :
A
(a) (b) (c)
(i) (ii) (iii)
B
(iii) (i) (ii)
C
(iii) (ii) (i)
D
(ii) (iii) (i)
Question 116Single Answer
In which one of the following situations, a product oriented layout is appropriate?
A
A medical clinic
B
An automated carwash
C
A work centre for welding, heat treating and painting
D
A home plumbing repair business
Question 117Single Answer
A graphic tool to trace the interaction of several workers with one machine is termed as :
A
Gang process chart
B
Flow process chart
C
Activity chart
D
Operation chart
Question 118Single Answer
Which one of the following is a technique of statistical quality control used for product control?
A
R-chart
B
Sampling plan
C
np-chart
D
control-chart
Question 119Single Answer
The decision-criterion in which a decisionmaker selects an alternative that maximizes H (criterion of realism) = [a × (maximum in column)] + [(1 – a) × (minimum in column)] is called :
A
Laplace criterion
B
Hurwicz criterion
C
Wald’s criterion
D
Bayesian criterion
Question 120Single Answer
A Bernoulli process has all but which one of the following properties?
A
Each trial has two possible outcomes.
B
The probability of a success on any trial remains fixed over time.
C
The probability of success on any trial is equal to the probability of failure.
D
Trials are statistically independent.
Question 121Single Answer
Statement-I : The product of coefficient of correlation, standard deviation of variable “X’ and standard deviation of variable ‘Y’ gives the measure of covariance between X and Y variables. Statement-II : The product of coefficient of correlation between X and Y variables and the ratio between standard deviation of X variable to standard deviation of Y variable measures the slope of the regression line of X on Y variable.Codes :
A
Both the Statements are correct.
B
Both the Statements are incorrect.
C
Statement-I is correct while Statement-II is incorrect.
D
Statement-I is incorrect while Statement-II is correct.
Question 122Single Answer
Statement-I : Both the probable error and standard error of the coefficient of correlation are different. Statement-II : When a sampling distribution of mean is prepared by taking small sized samples from a normally distributed population, the distribution takes the shape of normal distribution.
Codes :
A
Both the Statements are correct.
B
Both the Statements are incorrect.
C
Statement-I is correct while Statement-II is incorrect.
D
Statement-I is incorrect while Statement-II is correct.
Question 123Single Answer
Which one of the following is not the major characteristics of internet?
A
Open
B
Expensive
C
Global
D
Untrusted
Question 124Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Private foreign capital lends to flow to the high profit areas rather than to the priority sectors. Reasoning (R) : One of the important limitations to utilize the foreign capital is the absorptive capacity of the recipient country.
Codes :
A
(A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
(A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is correct whereas (R) is incorrect.
D
(R) is correct whereas (A) is incorrect.
Question 125Single Answer
Consider the following statements and identify the correct code of true statements :
(a) When an organization’s survival is threatened and it is not competing effectively, retrenchment strategies are often needed.
(b) Turnaround strategy is used when an organization is performing well but has not yet reached a critical stage.
(c) Divestment strategy involves selling the business or setting it up as a separate corporation.
(d) Liquidation strategy involves closure of business which is no longer profitable.
Codes :
A
Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
B
Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
C
Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
D
Only (a) and (d) are correct.
Question 126Single Answer
Statement-I : Most businesses start off as “Question Marks”, in that they enter a high growth market in which there is already a market leader. Statement-II : A “Star” is the market leader in a high-growth market, but it does not necessarily provide much cash.
A
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
B
Statement-II is correct but Statement- I is incorrect.
C
Both the Statements are incorrect.
D
Both the Statements are correct.
Question 127Single Answer
Match the items of List-I with List-II and identify the code of correct matching : List-I List-II
(a) Consistent actions (i) A perspective.
one time
(b) It reflects the decision (ii) A ploy
of the firm to offer particular
products or services in
particular markets.
(c) A manoeuvre intended (iii) A position
to outwit competitor
(d) A view of what the (iv) A pattern
organization is to become.
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
B
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
C
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
D
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Question 128Single Answer
Apple computers uses a differentiation competitive strategy that emphasizes innovative product with creative design.' This is an example of :
A
Functional strategy
B
Business strategy
C
Operating strategy
D
Product strategy
Question 129Single Answer
Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the code of correcting matching : List-I List-II
(a) Richard Cantillon (i) Entrepreneur must
accept the challenge
and should be willing hard
to achieve something.
(b) Joseph A (ii) Entrepreneurs are
Schumpeter all those persons who are
engaged in economic
activity.
(c) J.K. Golbraith (iii) Entrepreneur is a
person who introduces
innovation and change.
Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c)
(iii) (i) (ii)
B
(i) (iii) (ii)
C
(ii) (iii) (i)
D
(ii) (i) (iii)
Question 130Single Answer
Total Quality Management, job redesigning, new techniques of doing things and management by consensus are the examples of which one of the following?
A
Opportunistic entrepreneurship
B
Administrative entrepreneurship
C
Incubative entrepreneurship
D
Mass entrepreneurship
Question 131Single Answer
Under technology and quality upgradation support to help manufacturing MSMEs buy energy efficient technologies for production, what percentage of the actual expenditure is provided as financial support by the Government of India?
A
75%
B
60%
C
50%
D
25%
Question 132Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a personal characteristic of an entrepreneur?
A
Innovative
B
Hardworking
C
Practical
D
Submissive
Question 133Single Answer
Which one of the following is the most insignificant reason for sickness in SSI sector?
A
Power shortage
B
Lack of demand
C
Management problems
D
Equipment problems
Question 134Single Answer
Statement-I : Ethical principles tend to be broader than legal principles. Statement-II : Laws and ethics are closely related.
Codes :
A
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
B
Statement-II is correct but Statement-I is incorrect.
C
Both the Statements are correct.
D
Both the Statements are incorrect.
Question 135Single Answer
Assertion (A) : The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forest and wildlife of the country. Reasoning (R) : The Directive principles of state policy of the Indian Constitution Command the State to ensure protection and improvement of environment and to safeguard forest and wildlife.
Codes :
A
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
B
(R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
C
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
D
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
Agriculture, Agriculture Economy and Computer awareness
Question 136Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 137Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 138Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 139Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 140Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 142Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 143Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 144Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 145Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 146Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 147Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 148Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 149Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
Supply is a flow concept and stock is not a flow.com
C
Both supply and stock are flow concepts
D
None of the above
Question 152Single Answer
What is the shape of supply curve
A
Convex to x axis or upward sloping
B
Downward sloping
C
Concave
D
Can be any of the
Question 153Single Answer
What is the relation between individual and market supply curve
A
Market supply curve is the horizontal summation of individual supply curve
B
Market demand curve is the vertical summation of individual supply curve
C
Individual supply curve is the horizontal summation of market demand curve
D
Individual supply curve is the vertical summation of market demand curve
Question 154Single Answer
Contraction and extension of supply means
A
Increase in supply due to increased price and decrease in supply due
decreased price
B
Decrease in supply due to increased price increase in supply due to decreased
price
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 155Single Answer
More supply at same price and same supply at lower price means
A
Increased supply
B
Decreased supply
C
Constant supply
D
None of the above
Question 156Single Answer
Decrease in supply means
A
Less supply at same price and same supply at higher price
B
Higher supply at same price and same supply at decreased price
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 157Single Answer
Elasticity of supply is given by
A
% A quantity supplied / %A in demand
B
% A quantity demanded / % A in supply
C
% 4 in supply / % 4 in price
D
None of the above
Question 158Single Answer
Pick the incorrect one out in terms of (es= elasticity of supply)
A) Perfectly inelastic - es = 0
B) Perfectly elastic - es = 0
C) Inelastic - es <1
D) Elastic - es = 1
E) Unitary elastic - es = 1
A
Only A
B
Only B
C
Only C
D
None of the above
Question 159Single Answer
Market is in equilibrium when
A
Quantity demanded = quantity supplied
B
Quantity demanded > quantity supplied
C
Quantity demanded < quantity supplied
D
All of the above
Question 160Single Answer
Which one of the following is not correctly matched
A
Surplus when quantity supplied > quantity demanded
B
Deficit when quantity supplied < quantity demanded
C
Elastic supply curve has elasticity > 1
D
None of the above
Question 161Single Answer
An out-of-school system of education for rural people:
A
Extension
B
Management
C
Participation
D
Communication
Question 162Single Answer
Extension literally means:
A
Stretching out
B
Talking with
C
Deciding for
D
Thinking about
Question 163Single Answer
The term ‘Extension’ have originated in:
A
Latin
B
Persian
C
Greek
D
Sanskrit
Question 164Single Answer
The Latin roots for the word ‘extension’:
A
ex and tensio
B
ex and tension
C
ex and luceo
D
ex and termo
Question 165Single Answer
The term “University Extension” was first used in:
A
1866
B
1972
C
1901
D
1921
Question 166Single Answer
The person considered as father of extension:
A
James Stewatt
B
Seaman A Knapp
C
Edgar Dale
D
Paul Leagans
Question 167Single Answer
The term “Extension Education” was first coined in:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Netherlands
D
India
Question 168Single Answer
The first use of the word extension was done by:
A
Vorhees
B
Seaman A Knapp
C
Edgar Dale
D
Paul Leagans
Question 169Single Answer
The person considered as father of extension in india:
A
Adivi Reddy
B
O P Dahama
C
K N Singh
D
J B Chitambar
Question 170Single Answer
Extension can be considered to have developed from:
A
Sociology
B
Psychology
C
Education
D
Philosophy
Question 171Single Answer
Fat contain
A
3.9 Kcal. of energy per gm
B
9.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
C
9.3 Kcal. of energy per molecule
D
7.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
Question 172Single Answer
The proteins found only in animal body are
A
Glutelins
B
Albumins
C
Scleroproteins
D
All of the above
Question 173Single Answer
The sulphur containing amino acids are
A
Lysine
B
Alanine & valine
C
Arginine
D
Cysteine & methionine
Question 174Single Answer
Zwitter ion contain
A
+ve charge
B
-ve charge
C
Little or no net charge
D
More +ve charge and less -ve charge
Question 175Single Answer
The water soluble vitamins are
A
Vitamin A and D
B
Vitamin B - complex and Vitamin C
C
Vitamin E and K
D
All of the above
Question 176Single Answer
Gallic acid is chief components of
A
Condensed tannins
B
Hydrolysable tannins
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 177Single Answer
The flavonoids synthesized in plants are by
A
Mevaloni acid pathway
B
Malonic acid pathway
C
Shikmic acid pathway
D
Both (a) & (b)
Question 178Single Answer
The correct general formula of the carbohydrate is
A
Cn (H2O)n
B
C2n (H2,O)n
C
Cn (H2,O)2n
D
None of the above
Question 179Single Answer
Raffinose and gentianose are the example of
A
Disaccharides
B
Trisaccharides
C
Polysaccharides
D
Monosaccharides
Question 180Single Answer
If the optically active compound rotates the plane polarised light to right side, it is called as.........................and is denote by...............
A
Dextrorotary and is denoted by small italic letter d or + sigh
B
Levorotary and is denoted by small italic letter l or - sigh