Hadfields operation is performed for which of the following pathology ?
A
Duct ectasia
B
Fibroadenoma
C
Mondors disease
D
Inflammatory breast carcinoma
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following is not true about medullary thyroid cancinoma ?
A
Are a type of neuroendocrine tumors
B
Associated with MEN 2 A and 2 B syndrome
C
Form about 25% of the thyroid malignancies
D
Tumor cells may secrete serotonin, ACTH and VIP
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following is not a marker for severity of acute pancreatitis ?
A
Serum amylase and / or serum lipase
B
Hematocirt > 44%
C
BUN > 22 mg%
D
None of the above
Question 4Single Answer
Lucid interval is classically seen in โ
A
Extradural hematoma
B
Acute subdural hematoma
C
Chronic subdural hematoma
D
Intraventricular hemorrhage
Question 5Single Answer
Shoulder pain after laproscopic surgery, next step in management is โ
A
Oral paracetamol for 2-3 days
B
USG of shoulder region
C
Diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy
D
Intraarticular lignocaine injection
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following should be done for an acute onset painful scrotal swelling in 12 years old male ?
A
Doppler stethoscope evaluation
B
Administer analgestics
C
Advise bed rest
D
Administer antibiotics
Question 7Single Answer
Earliest hematological change following spleenectomy is โ
A
Leuckocytosis and thrombocytosis
B
Presence of Heinz bodies
C
Evidence of Howell Jolly bodies
D
Pikilocytosis
Question 8Single Answer
Following road traffic accident patient suffers polytrauma and is evaluated in the emergency section of the hospital . His pulse rate is 116 , respiratory rate is 24, blood pressure of 122/78 mm of Hg and patient is mildly anxious . What is the approximate blood loss patient has following trauma ?
A
<750 ml
B
750 -15 00ml
C
1500-2000 ml
D
>2000ml
Question 9Single Answer
First treatment of flail chest is โ
A
O2ย administration and analgesia
B
Mechanical ventrilation
C
Surgical stabilization
D
Intrapleural analgesia
Question 10Single Answer
Salivary gland stone is most common in which salivary gland ?
A
Parotid gland
B
Submandibular gland
C
Sublingual gland
D
Minor salivary glandย
Question 11Single Answer
Which intraocular muscle inserts closest to limbus -
A
Lateral Rectus
B
Medial Rectus
C
Superior Rectus
D
Inferior Rectus
Question 12Single Answer
Mittendorf dot is found on -
A
Anterior capsule of lens
B
Posterior capsule of lens
C
Vitreous
D
Retina
Question 13Single Answer
Foster kennedy syndrome seen with -
A
AION
B
Retinal detachment
C
Forntal lobe tumor
D
Macular edema
Question 14Single Answer
KISA % is associated with-
A
Keratoconus
B
Keratoglobus
C
Hypermetropia with astigmation
D
Terrien's marginal degenerationย
Question 15Single Answer
Most common malignant eyelid carcinoma in India -
A
Basal cell carcinoma
B
Squamous cell carcinoma
C
Keratoacanthoma
D
Sebaceous gland carcinoma
Question 16Single Answer
Nasolabial cyst occurs at -
A
Union of two nasal processes
B
Union of nasal and maxillary process
C
Union of palatal process with maxillary
D
Nasal with palatal process
Question 17Single Answer
What is deposited in band keratopathy -
A
CaSO4
B
CaPO4
C
MgSO4
D
MgPO4
Question 18Single Answer
What is the length of optic nerve
A
20 mm
B
30 mm
C
40 mm
D
50 mm
Question 19Single Answer
Optic radiations arise from -
A
Lateral Geniculate body
B
Medial Geniculate Body
C
Superior colliculus
D
Inferior colliculus
Question 20Single Answer
What cause pseudoproptosis -
A
Hyperthyroidism
B
Optic nerve glioma
C
High myopia
D
Orbital pseudotomour
Question 21Single Answer
Iliotibial band contracture in patients of poliomyelitis will lead to -
A
Flexion at hip and knee
B
Flexion at hip, extention at knee
C
Extention at hip flexion at knee
D
Extention at hip and knee
Question 22Single Answer
Not true about anterior cruciate ligament -
A
It begins just behind the anterior horn of lateral meniscus on tibia
B
It is taut in extention
C
It provides propriceptive inputs to knee
D
It is intrasynovial
Question 23Single Answer
Jumpers knee -
A
Apophysitis of patellar tendon as it inserts in patella
B
Apophysitis of patellar tendon as it inserts in tibia
C
Apophysitis of quadriceps tendon as it inserts in patella
D
Apophysitis of hamstring tendon as it inserts in tibia
Question 24Single Answer
ย CTEV shoe true is -
A
It is the same as normal shoe
B
It has straight medial border
C
It has medical shoe raise
D
It has heel with extra lengthย
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following is not true regarding in flammatory arthritis -
A
Presence of morning stiffness
B
Sclerosis on X-ray
C
Anemia of chronic disease
D
Presence of fever , weight loss and elevated ESR
Question 26Single Answer
Cubitus valgus develops as complication of -
A
Jupitor fracture
B
Smiths fracture
C
Malgaigne fracture
D
Staddle fracture
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following is not true about Galeazzi fracture dislocation ?
A
Fracture of distal third of radius and dislocation of distal radio -ulnar joint
B
Results from fall on outstretched hand
C
The distal end of ulna dislocates volarly after disruption of distal radio-ulnar joint
D
Radius is angulated medially and anteriorlyย
Question 28Single Answer
Which of following is not true about the tests for hip instability in neonates ?
A
Ortolanis test has two parts
B
They are performed at 2 -3 days of birth
C
In ortolanis test examiners fingers rest on the greater trochanter
D
In barlowsย test examiners thumb is placed in the groin
Question 29Single Answer
Most commonly lesion associated with pathological fracture in hand is -
A
Enchondroma
B
Metastases
C
Osteoid osteoma
D
Osteochondroma
Question 30Single Answer
Bamboo spine appearance is seen in -
A
Ankylosing spondylitis
B
Rheumatoid arthritis
C
Osteoarthritis
D
DISH
Question 31Single Answer
Which of the following antidepressant is also used in cessation of smoking?
A
Sertraline
B
Buproprion
C
Venalafaxine
D
Amitryptiline
Question 32Single Answer
Aversion therapy is used in treatment of-
A
Paraphilias
B
Tribaldism
C
Cunnilingus
D
Nymphomania
Question 33Single Answer
Most common hallucination in schizophrenia is-
A
Tactile
B
Visual
C
Somatic
D
Auditory
Question 34Single Answer
When a person /I asked about his blood sugar level, he answers like โDiabetes have sweet urine...urine and feces are excretaโโฆ Before finally telling his blood sugar. It is an example of?
A
Tangentiality
B
Circumstantiality
C
Flight of ideas
D
Loosening of association
Question 35Single Answer
A depressed patient thinks her intestines are rotten. It is an example of?
A
Hallucination
B
Illusion
C
Ekbom syndrome
D
Nihilistic delusion
Question 36Single Answer
All are true Tourette syndrome except?
A
Motor tics
B
More common in females
C
Associated with OCD
D
Neuroleptics are useful in the treatment
Question 37Single Answer
A girl falls in love with a film star & believes that he also loves her. It is best exemplified by?
A
Persecutory delusion
B
Grandiose delusion
C
Erotomania
D
Nymphomania
Question 38Single Answer
Narcolepsy is associated with?
A
Decreased NREM sleep
B
Hypnagogic hallucination
C
Late age of onset
D
Normal sleep architecture
Question 39Single Answer
A primigravida female feeling depressed and showing emotional lability soon after delivery most likely cause is?
A
Post partum blues
B
Post partum psychosis
C
Post partum depression
D
Post partum pinks
Question 40Single Answer
Squeeze technique is used for the treatment is-
A
Retrograde ejaculation
B
Premature ejaculation
C
Erectile dysfunction
D
UTI
Question 41Single Answer
Most common complication of central venous line insertion is?
A
Lung apex injury
B
Infection at catheter site
C
Cardiac tamponade
D
Pneumothorax
Question 42Single Answer
Fastest acting inhalational anaesthetic agent is?
A
Sevoflurane
B
Isoflurane
C
Ether
D
Halothane
Question 43Single Answer
True about capnography is?
A
It cannot detect esophageal intubation
B
It cannot detect mechanical ventilation failure
C
It is used to detect correct intubation in patients
D
It cannot detect saddle embolism
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following prevents aspiration?
A
LMA
B
airway
C
Nasopharyngeal airway
D
Proseal LMAย
Question 45Single Answer
Not true about CPR?
A
Chest compressions at 100/min
B
Ratio 30:2
C
Chest compression > 6 inches
D
Breathing rate 8-10 breaths/minย
Question 46Single Answer
Appropriate post operative urine output is?
A
1 ml/kg/hr
B
2 ml/kg/hr
C
3 ml/kg/hr
D
4 ml/kg/hr
Question 47Single Answer
Shifting patient from assisted ventilation to voluntary ventilation which of the following shows failure?
A
O2ย saturation < 80%
B
PEEP < 5cms
C
RR < 35mins
D
Tidal volume > 5 ml/kg
Question 48Single Answer
Ideal inhalational inducing agent of choice is?
A
Halothane
B
Desflurane
C
Sevoflurane
D
Isoflurane
Question 49Single Answer
Which anaesthetic agent is safe to use in porphyria?
A
Etomidate
B
Ketamine
C
Thiopentone
D
Propofol
Question 50Single Answer
Positive and-expiratory pressure causes increase in which respiratory parameter-
A
Lung compliance
B
FRC
C
Tidal volume
D
All of the above
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Clinical
Question 51Single Answer
Community medicine primarily focuses on :
A
Individual patient care
B
Preventive healthcare
C
Specialized surgeries
D
Emergency medicine
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following is a core principle of community medicine ?
A
Curative care
B
Early diagnosis
C
Health promotion and disease prevention
D
Surgery and interventions
Question 53Single Answer
What is the main goal of primary healthcare ?
A
Treating complex diseases
B
Providing specialized surgeries
C
Delivering essential healthcare to all individuals and families
D
Managing chronic illnesses
Question 54Single Answer
Which level of healthcare focuses on specialized medical and surgical services ?
A
Primary healthcare
B
Secondary healthcare
C
Tertiary healthcare
D
Quaternary healthcare
Question 55Single Answer
The "Five A's" of healthcare delivery include all of the following except :
A
Accessibility
B
Affordability
C
Accountability
D
Acceptability
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following is a major component of community diagnosis ?
A
Individual diagnosis
B
Family diagnosis
C
Hospital diagnosis
D
Disease diagnosis
Question 57Single Answer
The epidemiological triad includes all of the following elements except :
A
Host
B
Environment
C
Agent
D
Treatment
Question 58Single Answer
The concept of herd immunity is important in controlling :
A
Chronic diseases
B
Acute infections
C
Genetic disorders
D
Non-communicable diseases
Question 59Single Answer
The "Healthy People 2030" initiative aims to improve :
A
Medical technology
B
Hospital infrastructure
C
Population health and well-being
D
Specialty medical services
Question 60Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a non-communicable disease ?
A
Influenza
B
Tuberculosis
C
Diabetes
D
Malaria
Question 61Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of radio diagnosis in medicine ?
A
To provide treatment options
B
To perform surgeries
C
To diagnose medical conditions
D
To administer medication
Question 62Single Answer
Which imaging technique uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of internal body structures ?
A
X-ray
B
Ultrasound
C
MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
D
CT scan (Computed Tomography
Question 63Single Answer
Which type of imaging uses ionizing radiation to create images of the body's internal structures ?
A
Ultrasound
B
MRI
C
X - ray
D
PET scan (Positron Emission Tomography)
Question 64Single Answer
Which imaging modality is most commonly used for evaluating bone fractures and lung conditions ?
A
Ultrasound
B
MRI
C
X - ray
D
CT scan
Question 65Single Answer
CT scan provides ______ images of the body than a standard X - ray
A
Fewer detailed
B
More detailed
C
Similar
D
No
Question 66Single Answer
Which imaging technique is used to visualize blood vessels and blood flow ?
A
Ultrasound
B
X - ray
C
Angiography
D
PET scan
Question 67Single Answer
Which imaging technique is safe to use during pregnancy due to its lack of ionizing radiation ?
A
X - ray
B
CT scan
C
Ultrasound
D
MRI
Question 68Single Answer
In nuclear medicine, which imaging method involves injecting a small amount of radioactive material into the body ?
A
X - ray
B
MRI
C
Ultrasound
D
PET scan
Question 69Single Answer
What does PACS stand for in the context of radio diagnosis ?
A
Picture Archiving and Communication System
B
Primary Analysis and Computer System
C
Personal Assessment and Communication Software
D
Processed Archival and Clinical System
Question 70Single Answer
What is the purpose of a contrast agent in radio diagnosis ?
A
To reduce radiation exposure
B
To enhance visualization of certain body structures
C
To replace traditional imaging methods
D
To eliminate the need for imaging equipment
Question 71Single Answer
Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat hypertension ?
A
Metformin
B
Lisinopril
C
Aspirin
D
Omeprazole
Question 72Single Answer
What is the primary function of insulin in the body ?
A
Control blood pressure
B
Regulate blood sugar levels
C
Stimulate digestion
D
Increase heart rate
Question 73Single Answer
Which medication is used to relieve pain and reduce fever ?
A
Propranolol
B
Ibuprofen
C
Metoprolol
D
Itinerant
Question 74Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of antibiotics ?
A
Lower blood sugar levels
B
Treat fungal infections
C
Treat bacterial infections
D
Reduce cholesterol levels
Question 75Single Answer
Which medication is commonly prescribed for gastro esophageal reflux disease (GERD) ?
A
Acetaminophen
B
Prednisone
C
Pantoprazole
D
Dioxin
Question 76Single Answer
What is the main function of statin medications ?
A
Control blood pressure
B
Reduce inflammation
C
Lower cholesterol levels
D
Increase insulin production
Question 77Single Answer
Which drug class is commonly used to treat depression and anxiety ?
A
Beta-blockers
B
ACE inhibitors
C
SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)
D
Diuretics
Question 78Single Answer
Which medication is used to treat bacterial infections by inhibiting cell wall synthesis ?
A
Metronidazole
B
Ciprofloxacin
C
Penicillinย
D
Amoxicillin
Question 79Single Answer
What is the primary role of diuretics ?
A
Lower blood pressure
B
Increase blood sugar levels
C
Reduce cholesterol levels
D
Treat bacterial infections
Question 80Single Answer
Which class of drugs is commonly used to manage type 2 diabetes ?
A
Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
B
Beta-blockers
C
Oral hypoglycemic
D
Anticoagulants
Question 81Single Answer
Which medication is often prescribed to control asthma symptoms ?
A
Albuterol
B
Warfarin
C
Digoxin
D
Metformin
Question 82Single Answer
Which anticoagulant medication requires regular monitoring of INR levels ?
A
Aspirin
B
Heparin
C
Clopidogrel
D
Rivaroxaban
Question 83Single Answer
What is the primary function of ACE inhibitors ?
A
Lower blood pressure
B
Increase heart rate
C
Reduce cholesterol levels
D
Treat fungal infections
Question 84Single Answer
Which medication is used to treat an allergic reaction ?
A
Prednisone
B
Ranitidine
C
Omeprazole
D
Metoprolol
Question 85Single Answer
Which drug class is commonly prescribed to treat high blood pressure and heart failure ?
A
Statins
B
Calcium channel blockers
C
Beta-blockers
D
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Question 86Single Answer
Which medication is commonly used to treat bacterial skin infections ?
A
Fluconazole
B
Azithromycin
C
Cephalexin
D
Furosemide
Question 87Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of antacids ?
A
Reduce blood pressure
B
Lower cholesterol levels
C
Neutralize stomach acid
D
Treat bacterial infections
Question 88Single Answer
Which medication is used to manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) ?
A
Loperamide
B
Montelukast
C
Ipratropium bromide
D
Loratadine
Question 89Single Answer
Which class of medications is commonly prescribed to treat seizures and epilepsy ?
A
Beta-blockers
B
Anticoagulants
C
Antiepilepticโs
D
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
Question 90Single Answer
Which medication is used to lower triglyceride levels ?
A
Simvastatin
B
Gemfibrozil
C
Metformin
D
Lisinopril
Question 91Single Answer
What is the normal duration of human pregnancy, commonly referred to as gestation ?
A
6 months
B
7 months
C
9 months
D
12 months
Question 92Single Answer
Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the uterine lining during pregnancy and preventing uterine contractions until labor begins ?
A
Estrogen
B
Progesterone
C
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Question 93Single Answer
What is the term for the delivery of a baby through an incision made in the abdominal and uterine walls ?
A
Vaginal delivery
B
Breech delivery
C
Cesarean section
D
Vacuum extraction
Question 94Single Answer
Which presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first instead of the head ?
A
Vertex presentation
B
Frank breech presentation
C
Complete breech presentation
D
Footling breech presentation
Question 95Single Answer
What is the term for the process of the fetus moving from the uterus into the birth canal prior to labor and delivery ?
A
Effacement
B
Engagement
C
Flexion
D
Descent
Question 96Single Answer
What is the first-line treatment for a child experiencing an acute asthma attack ?
A
Antibiotics
B
Bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol)
C
Antipyretics
D
Intravenous fluids
Question 97Single Answer
What is the most common cause of seizures in children aged 6 months to 5 years ?
A
Meningitis
B
Febrile illness
C
Hypoglycaemia
D
Head injury
Question 98Single Answer
What is the recommended initial management for a child with a suspected foreign body aspiration ?
A
Administering antibiotics
B
Inducing vomiting
C
Performing chest compressions
D
Immediate bronchoscopy
Question 99Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kawasaki disease ?
A
Persistent cough
B
Strawberry tongue
C
Jaundice
D
Cyanosis
Question 100Single Answer
In a child with a suspected appendicitis, which imaging modality is often preferred for diagnosis ?
A
Chest X-ray
B
Abdominal ultrasound
C
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Question 101Single Answer
What is the primary treatment for dehydration in a child with gastroenteritis ?
A
Intravenous antibiotics
B
Oral rehydration therapy (ORT)
C
Antiemetic medications
D
Intramuscular injections
Question 102Single Answer
What is the initial step in managing a child with anaphylaxis ?
A
Administering epinephrine
B
Applying cold compresses
C
Giving antihistamines
D
Checking blood pressure
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following is a classic sign of meningococcal sepsis in a child ?
A
Koplik spots
B
Petechial rash
C
Strawberry tongue
D
Honey-colored crusted lesions
Question 104Single Answer
What is the preferred method for assessing a child's core body temperature during an emergency situation ?
A
Axillary temperature measurement
B
Oral temperature measurement
C
Rectal temperature measurement
D
Tympanic temperature measurement
Question 105Single Answer
What is the recommended position for a child experiencing a febrile seizure ?
A
Supine position
B
Prone position
C
Left lateral decubitus position
D
Trendelenburg position
Question 106Single Answer
What is the primary intervention for a child with a suspected ingestion of a toxic substance ?
A
Administering activated charcoal
B
Inducing vomiting
C
Providing intravenous fluids
D
Applying a warm compress
Question 107Single Answer
In the management of a child with a head injury, what is the initial priority ?
A
Administering pain medication
B
Monitoring vital signs
C
Obtaining a detailed medical history
D
Performing a physical examination
Question 108Single Answer
Which condition is characterized by sudden, uncontrolled movements or tics in a child ?
A
Epilepsy
B
Tourette syndrome
C
Cerebral palsy
D
Muscular dystrophy
Question 109Single Answer
What is the recommended treatment for a child with a simple febrile seizure ?
A
Long-term antiepileptic medication
B
Antibiotic therapy
C
Observation and reassurance
D
Immediate hospitalization
Question 110Single Answer
What is the primary management for a child with a suspected case of near-drowning ?
A
Inducing vomiting
B
Performing chest compressions
C
Administering oxygen
D
Placing the child in a warm bath
Question 111Single Answer
What is the primary goal of exploratory laparotomy ?
A
Removal of gallbladder stones
B
Examination of the abdominal cavity
C
Repair of hernias
D
Removal of kidney stones
Question 112Single Answer
Which surgical procedure is commonly performed for the treatment of appendicitis ?
A
Cholecystectomy
B
Appendectomy
C
Colostomy
D
Nephrectomy
Question 113Single Answer
In which condition would a surgeon perform a thyroidectomy ?
A
Gallstones
B
Thyroid cancer
C
Appendicitis
D
Hernia
Question 114Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a mastectomy ?
A
Treatment of appendicitis
B
Removal of a breast
C
Repair of a hernia
D
Removal of kidney stones
Question 115Single Answer
Which surgical procedure is performed to remove a portion of the colon ?
A
Gastrectomy
B
Colectomy
C
Nephrectomy
D
Cholecystectomy
Question 116Single Answer
What is the primary objective of a hernia repair surgery ?
A
Removal of gallbladder stones
B
Closure of an abnormal opening in the abdominal wall
C
Treatment of appendicitis
D
Repair of damaged blood vessels
Question 117Single Answer
Which surgical procedure is commonly performed for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) ?
A
Appendectomy
B
Cholecystectomy
C
Fundoplication
D
Colectomy
Question 118Single Answer
In what type of surgery is a laparoscope commonly used ?
A
Open-heart surgery
B
Knee replacement surgery
C
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
D
Craniotomy
Question 119Single Answer
Which procedure involves the removal of a portion of the stomach for weight loss purposes ?
A
Appendectomy
B
Gastrectomy
C
Colectomy
D
Cholecystectomy
Question 120Single Answer
What is the primary goal of a vascular bypass surgery ?
A
Removal of a portion of the colon
B
Treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C
Restoration of blood flow to a blocked or narrowed artery
D
Repair of a hernia
Question 121Single Answer
What is the term for the process of expulsion of the placenta and fetal membranes after childbirth ?
A
Effacement
B
Dilation
C
Expulsion
D
Crowning
Question 122Single Answer
Which hormone is responsible for initiating and maintaining uterine contractions during labour ?
A
Progesterone
B
Estrogenic
C
Oxytocin
D
Prolactin
Question 123Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of the Apgar score given to a newborn at 1 and 5 minutes after birth ?
A
Assessing maternal well-being
B
Evaluating the infant's respiratory status and overall condition
C
Determining the mother's blood type
D
Measuring uterine contractions
Question 124Single Answer
What is the recommended position for a pregnant woman to sleep in to reduce the risk of stillbirth ?
A
Supine
B
Right lateral
C
Left lateral
D
Prone
Question 125Single Answer
What is the term for the surgical incision made in the perineum to widen the vaginal opening during childbirth ?
A
Episiotomy
B
Hysterotomy
C
Cesarean section
D
Salpingotomy
Question 126Single Answer
What is the term for the period during which contractions cause the cervix to dilate and efface, leading to the birth of the baby ?
A
Latent phase
B
Active phase
C
Transition phase
D
Expulsion phase
Question 127Single Answer
In obstetrics, what is the purpose of administering Rh immunoglobulin (RhIg) to an Rh-negative mother ?
A
Prevention of preterm labour
B
Prevention of preeclampsia
C
Prevention of Rh isoimmunization in future pregnancies
D
Prevention of gestational diabetes
Question 128Single Answer
Which prenatal screening test assesses the risk of chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome ?
A
Non-Stress Test (NST)
B
Biophysical Profile (BPP)
C
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening
D
Integrated screening
Question 129Single Answer
What is the typical duration of a full-term pregnancy ?
A
32 weeks
B
37 weeks
C
40 weeks
D
45 weeks
Question 130Single Answer
What is the medical term for the expulsion of the foetus and placenta before the 20th week of gestation ?
A
Ectopic pregnancy
B
Spontaneous abortion
C
Placenta previa
D
Preterm birth
Question 131Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a cholecystectomy?
A
Appendicitis
B
Gallstone removal
C
Hernia repair
D
Kidney transplant
Question 132Single Answer
Which organ is primarily involved in a Whipple procedure?
A
Stomach
B
Pancreas
C
Liver
D
Small intestine
Question 133Single Answer
In a laparoscopic surgery, what type of instrument is used for cutting tissues?
A
Grasper
B
Scissors
C
Trocar
D
Suture needle
Question 134Single Answer
What is the primary indication for a splenectomy?
A
Appendicitis
B
Splenic rupture
C
Gastric ulcer
D
Colorectal cancer
Question 135Single Answer
squamous cell carcinoma. The most appropriate next step is:
A
Esophagectomy with gastric pull-up
B
Chemoradiation therapy
C
Chemotherapy alone
D
Endoscopic stent placement
E
Observation with palliative care
Question 136Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a thoracotomy?
A
Repair of a hernia
B
Treatment of lung cancer
C
Removal of the spleen
D
Appendectomy
Question 137Single Answer
What is the main purpose of a colostomy?
A
Gastric bypass
B
Diverticular disease management
C
Appendectomy
D
Gallbladder removal
Question 138Single Answer
Which procedure is commonly performed to treat varicose veins?
A
Angioplasty
B
Endarterectomy
C
Vein ligation and stripping
D
Cardiac catheterization
Question 139Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a lobectomy?
A
ย Treatment of liver cirrhosis
B
Removal of a lobe of the lung
C
Repair of a hiatal hernia
D
Treatment of esophageal cancer
Question 140Single Answer
Which of the following is a common complication after gastric bypass surgery?
A
Hepatitis
B
Dumping syndrome
C
Hyperthyroidism
D
Osteoporosis
Question 141Single Answer
What is the primary cause of the characteristic pigmentation loss in vitiligo?
A
Melanocyte destruction
B
Excessive melanin production
C
Bacterial infection
D
Fungal overgrowth
Question 142Single Answer
The โitch-scratchโ cycle is most commonly associated with which skin condition?
A
Vitiligo
B
Eczema
C
Psoriasis
D
Lichen Planus
Question 143Single Answer
Which skin condition is known for its "target lesions," typically seen in severe drug reactions?
A
Eczema
B
Psoriasis
C
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
D
Scabies
Question 144Single Answer
A complication of severe scabies infestation that can lead to a bacterial infection is known as:
A
Erythema
B
Cellulitis
C
Lymphangitis
D
Pityriasis
Question 145Single Answer
Which condition often manifests with silvery plaques on extensor surfaces like the elbows and knees?
A
Eczema
B
Psoriasis
C
Lichen Planus
D
Scabies
Question 146Single Answer
Which skin condition is known for the Koebner phenomenon, where lesions appear at the site of skin trauma?
A
Psoriasis
B
Vitiligo
C
Eczema
D
Scabies
Question 147Single Answer
In allergic dermatitis, which type of hypersensitivity reaction is primarily involved?
A
Type I
B
Type II
C
Type III
D
Type IV
Question 148Single Answer
A classic sign of scabies infestation is itching that worsens during which time?
A
Morning
B
Evening
C
Night
D
Afternoon
Question 149Single Answer
Vitiligo often starts with depigmentation on which areas of the body?
A
Palms and soles
B
Face and joints
C
Abdomen
D
Scalp
Question 150Single Answer
Which treatment is commonly used to repigment areas affected by vitiligo?