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GATE Mechanical Engineering Exam (Only MCQ) - English

Duration: 180 · Questions: 65 · Max Marks: 65 · Language: 1

View GATE Mechanical Engineering 2027 Exam Page

General Aptitude

1
Inhaling the smoke from a burning _____ could _____ you quickly.
  1. A.tire/tier
  2. B.tire/tyre
  3. C.tyre/tire
  4. D.tyre/tier
2
Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher yields sustainably.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information given in the above passage ?
  1. A.GSR is an alternative to regular rice, but it grows only in an extreme weather
  2. B.GSR be used in future in response to adverse effects of climate change
  3. C.GSR grows in an extreme weather, but the quantity of produce is lesser than regular rice
  4. D.Regular rice will continue to provide good yields even in extreme weather
3
The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is :
  1. A.15
  2. B.16
  3. C.18
  4. D.25
4
Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank full of water in 10 and 6 minutes, respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34 litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate. If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres) ? 
  1. A.26.8 
  2. B.60.0 
  3. C.120.0
  4. D.127.5
5
Choose the grammatically correct sentence?
  1. A.Neither of the robots are functioning properly
  2. B.Neither robots is functioning properly
  3. C.Neither of the robot are functioning properly
  4. D.Neither of the robots is functioning properly

Engineering Mathematics

1
Consider the following expression :
where z, y, and t are variables, and   is a complex number. The partial differential equation derived from the above expression is
    2
    For the equation
    the correct description is
    1. A.
      an ordinary differential equation of order 3 and degree 2 
    2. B.
      an ordinary differential equation of order 3 and degree 3 
    3. C.
      an ordinary differential equation of order 2 and degree 3 
    4. D.an ordinary differential equation of order 3 and degree â€‹
    3
    The value of (1 + i)12, where â€‹ , is.
    1. A.
      – 64 i 
    2. B.
      64 i
    3. C.64 
    4. D.– 64
    4
    If (A=\begin{bmatrix}1&2\3&4\end{bmatrix}), what is (\det(A))?
    1. A.2
    2. B.(-2)
    3. C.5
    4. D.10
    5
    If (A) is a (3\times3) matrix with (\det(A)=5), what is (\det(2A))?
    1. A.10
    2. B.40
    3. C.20
    4. D.80

    Mechanical Engineering

    1
    For a rigid body in planar static equilibrium, which set of equations must be satisfied?
    1. A.ΣM = 0 only
    2. B.ΣFx = 0 only
    3. C.ΣFx = ΣFy
    4. D.ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0
    2
    A two-force member in equilibrium carries forces that are?
    1. A.equal and concurrent but non-collinear
    2. B.unequal and parallel
    3. C.equal and perpendicular
    4. D.equal, opposite and collinear
    3
    The method of joints is primarily used to determine?
    1. A.beam deflection
    2. B.member forces in a truss
    3. C.fluid pressure
    4. D.gear tooth stress
    4
    In an ideal pin-jointed truss, external loads are assumed to act at?
    1. A.midpoints of members
    2. B.joints
    3. C.centroids of members
    4. D.random points on members
    5
    For pure translation of a rigid body, the angular velocity is?
    1. A.equal to linear velocity
    2. B.zero
    3. C.infinite
    4. D.constant and nonzero
    6
    The instantaneous center of zero velocity in plane motion is a point where?
    1. A.acceleration is always zero
    2. B.angular velocity is zero
    3. C.force is zero
    4. D.velocity is zero at that instant
    7
    Linear impulse is equal to the change in?
    1. A.potential energy
    2. B.angular displacement
    3. C.linear momentum
    4. D.mass
    8
    Angular impulse about a point equals the change in?
    1. A.angular momentum about that point
    2. B.mass moment of area
    3. C.linear displacement
    4. D.strain energy only
    9
    Work-energy principle relates net work done to change in?
    1. A.kinetic energy
    2. B.Poisson's ratio
    3. C.mass
    4. D.temperature
    10
    D'Alembert's principle converts a dynamics problem into an equivalent problem of?
    1. A.elastic instability only
    2. B.heat balance
    3. C.mass diffusion
    4. D.static equilibrium by adding inertia forces
    11
    The kinetic energy of a rotating rigid body about a fixed axis is?
    1. A.1/2 mω²
    2. B.I/ω
    3. C.Iω
    4. D.1/2 Iω²
    12
    Normal stress is defined as?
    1. A.shear force divided by length
    2. B.strain divided by modulus
    3. C.normal force divided by area
    4. D.moment divided by volume
    13
    Within the elastic range, Hooke's law states that stress is proportional to?
    1. A.strain
    2. B.density
    3. C.area
    4. D.temperature only
    14
    Poisson's ratio is the ratio of?
    1. A.Young's modulus to density
    2. B.lateral strain to longitudinal strain in magnitude
    3. C.shear stress to normal stress
    4. D.volumetric stress to pressure
    15
    The relation between Young's modulus E, shear modulus G and Poisson's ratio ν is?
    1. A.E = 2G(1+ν)
    2. B.E = G(1+ν)
    3. C.E = 3G(1−ν)
    4. D.E = G/(1+ν)
    16
    For an isotropic material, the relation between E, bulk modulus K and ν is?
    1. A.E = 2K(1+ν)
    2. B.E = Kν
    3. C.E = 3K(1+2ν)
    4. D.E = 3K(1−2ν)
    17
    On a principal plane, the shear stress is?
    1. A.always tensile
    2. B.zero
    3. C.equal to normal stress
    4. D.maximum
    18
    Maximum in-plane shear stress equals?
    1. A.half the difference between principal stresses
    2. B.principal stress product
    3. C.twice the average stress
    4. D.sum of principal stresses
    19
    For a thin cylindrical pressure vessel, hoop stress is?
    1. A.4pt/d
    2. B.pd/(2t)
    3. C.pt/(2d)
    4. D.pd/(4t)
    20
    For a thin cylindrical pressure vessel, longitudinal stress is?
    1. A.2pd/t
    2. B.pd/(2t)
    3. C.pd/(4t)
    4. D.pt/d
    21
    A particle of mass 8 kg moves at 4 m/s. Its kinetic energy is?
    1. A.32 J
    2. B.64 J
    3. C.32 J
    4. D.128 J
    22
    The slope of the shear-force diagram at a section equals?
    1. A.negative load intensity under the usual sign convention
    2. B.Young's modulus
    3. C.bending moment
    4. D.deflection
    23
    In pure bending of a homogeneous beam, normal stress varies?
    1. A.quadratically with depth
    2. B.linearly with distance from the neutral axis
    3. C.inversely with depth
    4. D.uniformly over depth
    24
    The flexure formula is?
    1. A.M/I = σ/y = E/R
    2. B.T/J = σ/y
    3. C.P/A = E/R
    4. D.M/Z = τ/R
    25
    The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter d is?
    1. A.πd²/4
    2. B.πd⁴/64
    3. C.πd³/16
    4. D.πd⁴/32
    26
    Euler buckling load for a pin-ended column is?
    1. A.πEI/L
    2. B.π²EI/L²
    3. C.π²EA/L
    4. D.2π²EI/L²
    27
    Slenderness ratio of a column is?
    1. A.area divided by length
    2. B.effective length divided by radius of gyration
    3. C.length divided by area
    4. D.radius of gyration divided by length
    28
    Strain energy per unit volume in uniaxial linear elasticity is?
    1. A.σ/E
    2. B.2σ²/E
    3. C.E/(2σ²)
    4. D.σ²/(2E)
    29
    A fully restrained bar subjected to temperature rise develops?
    1. A.compressive thermal stress
    2. B.tensile thermal stress
    3. C.no stress under any condition
    4. D.pure shear stress
    30
    Gauge factor of a metallic strain gauge is approximately the ratio of?
    1. A.strain to resistance
    2. B.stress to strain
    3. C.fractional resistance change to strain
    4. D.voltage to current
    31
    A three-element rectangular strain rosette is commonly used to determine?
    1. A.fluid viscosity
    2. B.hardness number only
    3. C.gear module
    4. D.principal strains and their directions
    32
    A universal testing machine is commonly used for?
    1. A.only creep tests
    2. B.only hardness tests
    3. C.tensile and compressive tests
    4. D.only impact tests
    33
    Brinell hardness testing uses an indenter that is typically?
    1. A.a knife edge
    2. B.a hard spherical ball
    3. C.a sharp diamond cone only
    4. D.a flat punch
    34
    Grashof's law for a four-bar chain involves the sum of the shortest and longest links being?
    1. A.less than or equal to the sum of the other two links for at least one link to rotate fully
    2. B.always greater than the other two
    3. C.unrelated to link lengths
    4. D.equal to the product of the other two
    35
    The Coriolis acceleration component appears when a point moves?
    1. A.along a rotating link
    2. B.only on a fixed link
    3. C.only in pure translation
    4. D.only under static loading
    36
    The fundamental law of gearing requires the common normal at contact to pass through?
    1. A.the dedendum circle
    2. B.any point on base circle
    3. C.the pitch point
    4. D.the addendum circle center
    37
    For involute gears, the pressure angle during engagement is?
    1. A.constant
    2. B.zero
    3. C.continuously decreasing
    4. D.continuously increasing
    38
    Interference in involute gears is associated with contact below the?
    1. A.root circle of both gears simultaneously
    2. B.addendum circle only
    3. C.pitch circle only
    4. D.base circle of one gear
    39
    In a simple gear train, an idler gear changes?
    1. A.pressure angle
    2. B.module
    3. C.direction of rotation but not the magnitude of velocity ratio
    4. D.velocity ratio magnitude only
    40
    A reverted gear train has?
    1. A.only internal gears
    2. B.input and output shafts coaxial
    3. C.only bevel gears
    4. D.all shafts parallel but never coaxial
    41
    A flywheel primarily reduces?
    1. A.gear backlash
    2. B.mean speed to zero
    3. C.bearing friction
    4. D.cyclic fluctuation of speed within a cycle
    42
    A cam converts rotary motion into?
    1. A.a prescribed follower motion
    2. B.electrical power
    3. C.fluid pressure
    4. D.only uniform rotation
    43
    A constant force of 20 N acts for 4 s. The linear impulse is?
    1. A.5 N·s
    2. B.24 N·s
    3. C.80 N·s
    4. D.40 N·s
    44
    A governor controls?
    1. A.mean speed under varying load
    2. B.cyclic speed fluctuation within one cycle
    3. C.shaft deflection only
    4. D.gear tooth temperature
    45
    A Porter governor differs from a Watt governor mainly by the presence of?
    1. A.a central load on the sleeve
    2. B.a gear train
    3. C.a cam
    4. D.a flywheel
    46
    Primary balancing of a reciprocating mass is achieved by balancing the?
    1. A.friction force
    2. B.primary inertia force
    3. C.secondary couple only
    4. D.gas force only
    47
    For complete balancing of several rotating masses in different planes, both the vector sum of forces and?
    1. A.the vector sum of couples must be zero
    2. B.angular velocities must be zero
    3. C.shaft torque must be infinite
    4. D.all masses must be equal
    48
    Gyroscopic couple magnitude is proportional to?
    1. A.I/ωΩ
    2. B.IωΩ
    3. C.EI/L²
    4. D.mω only
    49
    Natural frequency of an undamped SDOF spring-mass system is?
    1. A.√(k/m)
    2. B.km
    3. C.k/m
    4. D.√(m/k)
    50
    Critical damping coefficient for an SDOF system is?
    1. A.2√(km)
    2. B.k/(2m)
    3. C.2km
    4. D.√(km)
    51
    Damping ratio is defined as?
    1. A.critical damping divided by actual damping
    2. B.stiffness divided by mass
    3. C.actual damping divided by critical damping
    4. D.frequency divided by displacement
    52
    For an underdamped system, the damped natural frequency is?
    1. A.ζωn²
    2. B.ωn√(1−ζ²)
    3. C.ωn/ζ
    4. D.ωn(1+ζ)
    53
    Resonance in an undamped forced vibration system occurs when forcing frequency equals?
    1. A.twice natural frequency only
    2. B.natural frequency
    3. C.critical damping
    4. D.zero frequency
    54
    Vibration isolation generally begins when frequency ratio r is?
    1. A.greater than √2
    2. B.less than 1/2
    3. C.exactly 1 for all damping
    4. D.equal to zero
    55
    Transmissibility refers to the ratio of transmitted force amplitude to?
    1. A.exciting force amplitude
    2. B.displacement only
    3. C.stiffness
    4. D.mass
    Question for GATE Mechanical Engineering 2027 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam