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Latest General Surgery Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

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General Surgery

Question 1Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of a cholecystectomy?

A
Appendicitis
B
Gallstone removal
C
Hernia repair
D
Kidney transplant

Question 2Single Answer

Which organ is primarily involved in a Whipple procedure?

A
Stomach
B
Pancreas
C
Liver
D
Small intestine

Question 3Single Answer

In a laparoscopic surgery, what type of instrument is used for cutting tissues?

A
Grasper
B
Scissors
C
Trocar
D
Suture needle

Question 4Single Answer

What is the primary indication for a splenectomy?

A
Appendicitis
B
Splenic rupture
C
Gastric ulcer
D
Colorectal cancer

Question 5Single Answer

squamous cell carcinoma. The most appropriate next step is:

A
Esophagectomy with gastric pull-up
B
Chemoradiation therapy
C
Chemotherapy alone
D
Endoscopic stent placement
E
Observation with palliative care

Question 6Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of a thoracotomy?

A
Repair of a hernia
B
Treatment of lung cancer
C
Removal of the spleen
D
Appendectomy

Question 7Single Answer

What is the main purpose of a colostomy?

A
Gastric bypass
B
Diverticular disease management
C
Appendectomy
D
Gallbladder removal

Question 8Single Answer

Which procedure is commonly performed to treat varicose veins?

A
Angioplasty
B
Endarterectomy
C
Vein ligation and stripping
D
Cardiac catheterization

Question 9Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of a lobectomy?

A
Treatment of liver cirrhosis
B
Removal of a lobe of the lung
C
Repair of a hiatal hernia
D
Treatment of esophageal cancer

Question 10Single Answer

Which of the following is a common complication after gastric bypass surgery?

A
Hepatitis
B
Dumping syndrome
C
Hyperthyroidism
D
Osteoporosis

Question 11Single Answer

Which condition is characterized by the presence of stones in the urinary tract?

A
Nephrosis
B
Urethritis
C
Urolithiasis
D
Cystitis

Question 12Single Answer

Which condition is characterized by inflammation of the appendix?

A
Diverticulitis
B
Appendicitis
C
Cholecystitis
D
Pancreatitis

Question 13Single Answer

In the context of wound healing, what is the term for the removal of sutures or staples?

A
Debridement
B
Evisceration
C
Suturolysis
D
Hemostasis

Question 14Single Answer

Which surgical procedure is commonly performed to treat morbid obesity?

A
Nephrectomy
B
Appendectomy
C
Gastric bypass
D
Thyroidectomy

Question 15Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of a laminectomy?

A
Removal of a brain tumor
B
Repair of a hernia
C
Treatment of spinal stenosis
D
Appendectomy

Question 16Single Answer

What is the primary function of the gallbladder?

A
Digestion of carbohydrates
B
Storage of bile
C
Production of insulin
D
Filtration of blood

Question 17Single Answer

Which of the following is a common complication after a total hip replacement surgery?

A
Respiratory distress
B
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
C
Gastric ulcer
D
Osteoarthritis

Question 18Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of a prostatectomy?

A
Treatment of prostate cancer
B
Repair of a hernia
C
Removal of the appendix
D
Treatment of urinary incontinence

Question 19Single Answer

Which imaging technique is commonly used to visualize the biliary tract?

A
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
B
Computed Tomography (CT) scan
C
Ultrasonography
D
Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan

Question 20Single Answer

Which condition is characterized by inflammation of the lining of the stomach?

A
Gastritis
B
Colitis
C
Appendicitis
D
Diverticulitis

Question 21Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of a herniorrhaphy?

A
Repair of a hernia
B
Removal of the gallbladder
C
Treatment of appendicitis
D
Reconstruction of the esophagus

Question 22Single Answer

In the context of wound healing, what is the term for the removal of dead tissue?

A
Dehiscence
B
Debridement
C
Hemostasis
D
Adhesion

Question 23Single Answer

What is a common complication following a thyroidectomy?

A
Hypothyroidism
B
Hyperthyroidism
C
Cushing's syndrome
D
Diabetes mellitus

Question 24Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of a gastrectomy?

A
Treatment of gastric ulcers
B
Removal of the gallbladder
C
Repair of a hernia
D
Treatment of pancreatic cancer

Question 25Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of a mastectomy?

A
Treatment of breast cancer
B
Removal of a cyst
C
Repair of a broken rib
D
Treatment of lung cancer

Question 26Single Answer

Which of the following is a common cause of acute abdominal pain in young adults?

A
Irritable bowel syndrome
B
Appendicitis
C
Diverticulosis
D
Gastric ulcer

Question 27Single Answer

What is the classic symptom of cholecystitis?

A
Pain radiating to the back
B
Right upper quadrant pain, often after fatty meals
C
Central chest pain
D
Sharp left lower abdominal pain

Question 28Single Answer

Which of the following is a red flag for intestinal obstruction?

A
Diarrhea
B
Vomiting of feculent material
C
Mild, intermittent pain
D
Increased appetite

Question 29Single Answer

What is the first step in managing severe abdominal pain in a primary care setting?

A
Prescribe antibiotics
B
Provide pain relief and hydration
C
Conduct imaging studies
D
Perform surgery

Question 30Single Answer

Which symptom differentiates chronic abdominal pain from acute abdominal pain?

A
Pain lasting less than 24 hours
B
Persistent pain over weeks or months
C
Sudden onset and intense severity
D
Pain relieved by eating

Question 31Single Answer

Which type of hernia is most common in men?

A
Umbilical hernia
B
Incisional hernia
C
Inguinal hernia
D
Femoral hernia

Question 32Single Answer

A reducible hernia means:

A
The hernia cannot be pushed back in
B
The hernia can be pushed back into the abdominal cavity
C
The hernia has caused infection
D
The hernia is life-threatening

Question 33Single Answer

What is the primary risk of leaving an untreated hernia?

A
Chronic pain
B
Strangulation of the herniated tissue
C
Fever
D
Weight loss

Question 34Single Answer

Which hernia is often seen in infants and resolves on its own?

A
Inguinal hernia
B
Umbilical hernia
C
Incisional hernia
D
Femoral hernia

Question 35Single Answer

When should a patient with a hernia be referred for surgical intervention?

A
When the hernia is small and painless
B
When there are signs of obstruction or strangulation
C
When the hernia is reducible
D
When the hernia has been present for less than a week

Question 36Single Answer

What is the most common symptom of internal hemorrhoids?

A
Severe pain
B
Bright red rectal bleeding
C
Fever
D
Constipation

Question 37Single Answer

What is a common cause of hemorrhoids?

A
High-fiber diet
B
Prolonged sitting or straining during defecation
C
Regular exercise
D
Hydration

Question 38Single Answer

Which grade of hemorrhoids prolapse but reduce spontaneously?

A
Grade I
B
Grade II
C
Grade III
D
Grade IV

Question 39Single Answer

What is the first-line management for hemorrhoids?

A
Surgery
B
Lifestyle modifications, including increased fiber intake
C
Antibiotics
D
Laxatives only

Question 40Single Answer

When should hemorrhoids be referred to a specialist?

A
If they are asymptomatic
B
If they are Grade IV or thrombosed
C
If they are Grade I
D
If they occur after a single episode of constipation

Question 41Single Answer

What is a typical symptom of an anal fissure?

A
Painless rectal bleeding
B
Severe pain during defecation
C
Constipation without pain
D
Fever

Question 42Single Answer

Which of the following is the first step in managing an acute anal fissure?

A
Immediate surgery
B
High-fiber diet and topical analgesics
C
Antibiotics
D
Complete fasting

Question 43Single Answer

An anorectal abscess is primarily caused by:

A
Poor diet
B
Infection of anal glands
C
Sedentary lifestyle
D
Hemorrhoids

Question 44Single Answer

What is the definitive treatment for an anorectal abscess?

A
Oral antibiotics
B
Incision and drainage
C
Sitz baths only
D
Painkillers

Question 45Single Answer

When should a patient with an anal fissure be referred?

A
If symptoms persist despite conservative management
B
Immediately upon diagnosis
C
After 24 hours of symptoms
D
If they experience mild discomfort

Question 46Single Answer

Which organism most commonly causes cellulitis?

A
Staphylococcus aureus
B
Escherichia coli
C
Klebsiella pneumoniae
D
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 47Single Answer

What is the characteristic feature of cellulitis?

A
Painless swelling
B
Red, warm, and tender skin
C
Cold and pale skin
D
Non-progressive swelling

Question 48Single Answer

What is the recommended treatment for a small, uncomplicated boil?

A
Oral antibiotics
B
Incision and drainage if fluctuant
C
Immediate surgery
D
No treatment needed

Question 49Single Answer

What is a sign that an abscess needs surgical drainage?

A
Redness alone
B
Fluctuant swelling
C
Mild pain
D
Normal skin temperature

Question 50Single Answer

Which of the following is critical in managing soft tissue infections?

A
Wound care and appropriate antibiotics
B
Avoiding hydration
C
Delaying treatment until severe
D
Applying dry dressings only

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General Surgery

Question 51Single Answer

Which of the following is an essential part of taking a comprehensive medical history?

A
Blood pressure measurement
B
Past surgeries
C
Physical examination
D
Diagnostic imaging

Question 52Single Answer

Which of the following should be included in a patient's medical history for surgery?

A
Age and weight only
B
Family history, medications, allergies
C
Current occupation
D
Blood group

Question 53Single Answer

What should be asked regarding allergies during a preoperative history?

A
All food allergies
B
Only drug allergies
C
Any history of allergic reactions to anesthesia
D
Both B and C

Question 54Single Answer

In which scenario is it most important to focus on the patient's surgical history?

A
When assessing their fitness for work
B
When interpreting radiology results
C
When planning for a surgery
D
When prescribing post-operative medications

Question 55Single Answer

The family history section of a surgical history should be focused on which of the following?

A
Surgical history of parents
B
Inherited conditions such as cancer
C
Occupational hazards
D
Travel history

Question 56Single Answer

What is the primary goal of a physical examination in surgery?

A
To confirm diagnosis with imaging
B
To assess the patient’s surgical readiness
C
To evaluate pain tolerance
D
To exclude other medical conditions

Question 57Single Answer

When performing a physical examination, which of the following is essential for evaluating the surgical area?

A
Percussion and auscultation
B
Inspection, palpation, and range of motion
C
Measurement of blood pressure
D
Urinalysis

Question 58Single Answer

Which of the following is NOT typically involved in the physical examination of a surgical patient?

A
Skin condition and scars
B
Abdominal palpation
C
Mental status assessment
D
Eye pressure measurement

Question 59Single Answer

What is the significance of examining the surgical area in detail during a physical examination?

A
To assess for infection or inflammation
B
To assess cardiovascular function
C
To evaluate mental clarity
D
To check for joint mobility

Question 60Single Answer

In which scenario is physical examination critical for deciding surgical intervention?

A
If the patient reports significant pain
B
When imaging results are ambiguous
C
When a patient has multiple comorbidities
D
All of the above

Question 61Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of diagnostic tests before surgery?

A
To confirm the exact type of surgery required
B
To assess the patient’s fitness for surgery
C
To monitor for postoperative complications
D
To assess potential drug interactions

Question 62Single Answer

Which of the following is a common preoperative test for assessing a patient's cardiovascular status?

A
Chest X-ray
B
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
C
Complete blood count (CBC)
D
Liver function tests

Question 63Single Answer

What is the purpose of a complete blood count (CBc) before surgery?

A
To evaluate renal function
B
To detect anemia or infection
C
To assess blood sugar levels
D
To evaluate liver function

Question 64Single Answer

What diagnostic test is commonly used to assess the patient's respiratory function before surgery?

A
Chest X-ray
B
CT scan
C
Bronchoscopy
D
Pulmonary function tests

Question 65Single Answer

Why is a urine test typically ordered before surgery?

A
To detect renal stones
B
To check for diabetes
C
To evaluate for urinary tract infections (UTIs)
D
All of the above

Question 66Single Answer

What is the first step in preoperative assessment?

A
Reviewing the patient’s medical history
B
Ordering diagnostic tests
C
Physical examination
D
Deciding on anesthesia plan

Question 67Single Answer

Which of the following is important to assess during preoperative evaluation?

A
Patient’s psychological readiness for surgery
B
Past surgical history
C
Current medications
D
All of the above

Question 68Single Answer

What is the main objective of preoperative risk assessment?

A
To avoid unnecessary surgeries
B
To identify potential complications and manage them
C
To decide the surgical technique to be used
D
To recommend lifestyle changes

Question 69Single Answer

Which of the following factors is commonly assessed to evaluate a patient’s fitness for surgery?

A
Age and weight
B
Comorbid conditions such as hypertension or diabetes
C
Smoking and alcohol history
D
All of the above

Question 70Single Answer

Why is it important to assess the patient's nutritional status before surgery?

A
To estimate blood loss during surgery
B
To predict the healing process and recovery
C
To determine if they need a blood transfusion
D
To check for allergies

Question 71Single Answer

Which of the following is a high-risk factor for complications during surgery?

A
Obesity
B
Smoking
C
Poorly controlled diabetes
D
All of the above

Question 72Single Answer

The ASA classification system is used to assess which aspect of a patient before surgery?

A
Cardiac function
B
Anesthetic risk
C
Surgical technique
D
Nutritional status

Question 73Single Answer

What does the risk assessment aim to identify before surgery?

A
Unnecessary diagnostic tests
B
The likelihood of complications during or after surgery
C
The need for a second opinion
D
The exact surgical technique

Question 74Single Answer

What is the role of preoperative assessment in identifying drug interactions?

A
To eliminate all medications
B
To determine which medications may interfere with anesthesia or surgery
C
To assess the patient's allergy status
D
To check the patient's psychological state

Question 75Single Answer

In a preoperative risk assessment, why is it important to evaluate the patient's coagulation profile?

A
To assess blood transfusion requirements
B
To determine the risk of bleeding during surgery
C
To predict recovery time
D
To evaluate liver function

Question 76Single Answer

When should a patient be instructed to stop eating before surgery?

A
12 hours prior to surgery
B
6 hours prior to surgery
C
24 hours prior to surgery
D
2 hours prior to surgery

Question 77Single Answer

Why is it important to instruct patients to stop smoking before surgery?

A
Smoking does not affect the surgical outcome
B
Smoking may impair wound healing and increase infection risk
C
Smoking reduces the effectiveness of anesthesia
D
Smoking has no impact on surgery

Question 78Single Answer

Which of the following is typically advised as part of preoperative instructions?

A
Adjusting medication dosages if needed
B
Increasing food intake to build strength
C
Avoiding all forms of exercise
D
Taking additional vitamins

Question 79Single Answer

How should medications be managed preoperatively in patients on blood thinners?

A
They should be stopped immediately before surgery
B
They should be continued without change
C
They may need to be paused, based on doctor’s advice
D
Only aspirin should be stopped

Question 80Single Answer

Why is it important to provide preoperative instructions for anesthesia?

A
To assess the patient’s pain tolerance
B
To prepare the patient for anesthesia and avoid complications
C
To increase anxiety
D
To prevent the patient from feeling any discomfort

Question 81Single Answer

What is the most important factor to consider in a preoperative risk assessment for a patient with cardiovascular disease?

A
Surgical duration
B
Cardiovascular stability and control of the disease
C
Type of anesthesia to be used
D
Postoperative care required

Question 82Single Answer

Which of the following is commonly used to assess the patient's pulmonary risk before surgery?

A
Arterial blood gas analysis
B
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
C
Chest X-ray
D
Pulmonary function tests

Question 83Single Answer

For a patient with a history of hypertension, which of the following is the most important consideration before surgery?

A
Stabilizing blood pressure and managing antihypertensive medication
B
Discontinuing all medications
C
Encouraging fluid intake
D
Assessing family history of hypertension

Question 84Single Answer

The patient's renal function is critical in assessing which of the following risks before surgery?

A
Blood loss during surgery
B
Anesthesia tolerance
C
Wound healing post-surgery
D
Infection control

Question 85Single Answer

Which of the following is a key factor in evaluating the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the preoperative assessment?

A
Patient’s smoking history
B
Patient’s age and immobility
C
Patient’s nutritional status
D
Type of surgery performed

Question 86Single Answer

Why is it important to instruct patients to avoid alcohol before surgery?

A
Alcohol may impair liver function and anesthesia metabolism
B
Alcohol reduces blood pressure significantly
C
Alcohol increases clotting time
D
Alcohol makes the surgery longer

Question 87Single Answer

How long before surgery should a patient typically stop taking anticoagulants such as warfarin?

A
2 hours before surgery
B
7 days before surgery
C
24 hours before surgery
D
1 week before surgery

Question 88Single Answer

What is the typical preoperative instruction regarding oral intake before surgery?

A
No food or drink 24 hours before surgery
B
No food or drink after midnight on the night before surgery
C
Only clear liquids are allowed 2 hours before surgery
D
Patients can eat and drink until the day of surgery

Question 89Single Answer

Why are preoperative instructions about medications, including those taken for chronic conditions, so important?

A
To prevent interactions with anesthesia and other drugs
B
To speed up the recovery process
C
To minimize the risk of infection post-surgery
D
To decrease postoperative pain

Question 90Single Answer

When should a patient typically be instructed to stop smoking before surgery for optimal outcomes?

A
At least 2 weeks before surgery
B
1 day before surgery
C
6 hours before surgery
D
24 hours after surgery

Question 91Single Answer

What is the primary goal of immediate postoperative care in the recovery room?

A
To assess pain management needs
B
To monitor the patient's vital signs and anesthesia recovery
C
To promote early ambulation
D
To check the surgical wound for signs of infection

Question 92Single Answer

Which of the following is a crucial postoperative measure for a patient recovering from abdominal surgery?

A
Ambulation to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
B
Immediate wound closure
C
Administration of antibiotics
D
Keeping the patient in the supine position at all times

Question 93Single Answer

Which of the following is essential in the monitoring of a postoperative patient?

A
Blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation
B
Body temperature and serum glucose levels
C
Wound inspection and bowel sounds
D
All of the above

Question 94Single Answer

After surgery, when is it important to begin assessing the patient's ability to tolerate oral intake?

A
Within 1 hour after surgery
B
When the patient regains consciousness and is alert
C
After 24 hours of fasting
D
Immediately after the surgery without delay

Question 95Single Answer

Postoperative care includes monitoring for which of the following potential complications?

A
Infection, bleeding, and thromboembolic events
B
Anemia and leukopenia
C
Psychological distress and depression
D
Increased appetite

Question 96Single Answer

Which of the following is commonly used for managing postoperative pain in the immediate recovery phase?

A
Oral narcotics
B
Intravenous analgesics
C
Topical creams
D
Cold packs only

Question 97Single Answer

When should a patient's pain management plan be re-evaluated postoperatively?

A
After the first 24 hours
B
When the patient requests medication
C
At regular intervals, based on pain level and surgical recovery
D
Only if the patient develops complications

Question 98Single Answer

What is the primary goal of postoperative pain management?

A
To eliminate all pain
B
To reduce pain to a tolerable level while promoting healing
C
To ensure the patient is fully sedated
D
To avoid all opioid use

Question 99Single Answer

Which of the following factors is a consideration when prescribing postoperative analgesia?

A
The patient's preoperative medication history
B
The type and location of surgery performed
C
The patient's age and comorbidities
D
All of the above

Question 100Single Answer

Which of the following is the most important factor in monitoring during surgery?

A
Temperature regulation
B
Heart rate and rhythm
C
Urine output
D
Blood glucose levels

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