Parasympathetic stimulation via vagus nerve causes?
A
Tachycardia
B
Bradycardia
C
Vasoconstriction
D
Increased contractility
Question 13Single Answer
During induction of anesthesia, laryngoscopy can cause?
A
Sympathetic stimulation leading to hypertension and tachycardia
B
Only parasympathetic response
C
No autonomic response
D
Only hypotension
Question 14Single Answer
Muscle relaxants can cause histamine release leading to?
A
Bradycardia
B
Increased blood pressure
C
No cardiovascular effect
D
Hypotension and tachycardia
Question 15Single Answer
The main effect of anesthesia on autonomic nervous system is?
A
Complete blockade
B
No effect
C
Hyperactivation
D
Attenuation of stress response and reflex arcs
Question 16Single Answer
Diaphragmatic movement during spontaneous ventilation under light anesthesia is?
A
Completely absent
B
Replaced by intercostal only
C
Predominant and visible
D
No change from awake state
Question 17Single Answer
Under deep anesthesia with muscle relaxants, the heart rate is mainly influenced by?
A
Only intrinsic pacemaker
B
No influence
C
Anesthetic agents and autonomic imbalance
D
Only sympathetic
Question 18Single Answer
Succinylcholine is contraindicated in patients with?
A
Risk of hyperkalemia (e.g., burns, neuromuscular disease)
B
Normal potassium
C
No contraindication
D
Only hypertension
Question 19Single Answer
Reversal of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants is done using?
A
Anticholinesterases like neostigmine with glycopyrrolate
B
Only neostigmine
C
No reversal
D
Only atropine
Question 20Single Answer
The autonomic effect most blunted by general anesthesia is?
A
Parasympathetic only
B
No blunting
C
Sympathetic response to surgical stress
D
Only vagal tone
Question 21Single Answer
During positive pressure ventilation under anesthesia, the diaphragm?
A
Contracts actively
B
Remains passive or paralyzed
C
Moves upward only
D
No effect
Question 22Single Answer
Heart rate under anesthesia is influenced by?
A
Only anesthetics
B
Only muscle relaxants
C
No influence
D
Depth of anesthesia, drugs, and autonomic tone
Question 23Single Answer
Parasympathetic dominance under anesthesia can cause?
A
Hypertension
B
Tachycardia
C
Bradycardia and hypotension
D
No change
Question 24Single Answer
The primary muscle for expiration during quiet breathing is?
A
Diaphragm
B
Abdominal muscles
C
Intercostals only
D
Passive elastic recoil
Question 25Single Answer
Muscle relaxants do not affect?
A
Skeletal muscles
B
Smooth muscles or cardiac muscle directly
C
Diaphragm
D
Intercostal muscles
Question 26Single Answer
Autonomic imbalance during anesthesia is monitored by?
A
Only temperature
B
Only oxygen saturation
C
No monitoring
D
Heart rate variability and hemodynamic parameters
Question 27Single Answer
In controlled ventilation, tidal volume is delivered by?
A
Patient effort
B
Mechanical ventilator
C
Diaphragm only
D
No delivery
Question 28Single Answer
The diaphragm is innervated by?
A
Vagus nerve
B
Phrenic nerve (C3-C5)
C
Intercostal nerves
D
Sympathetic chain
Question 29Single Answer
Under anesthesia, muscle relaxants facilitate?
A
Spontaneous breathing
B
Only surgery without relaxation
C
No facilitation
D
Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
Question 30Single Answer
Increased intracranial pressure can be exacerbated by?
A
Sympathetic stimulation during intubation
B
Hyperventilation
C
No effect
D
Only parasympathetic
Question 31Single Answer
Reversal agents for muscle relaxants can cause?
A
Only bradycardia
B
No side effect
C
Bradycardia if not paired with anticholinergic
D
Hypertension
Question 32Single Answer
During anesthesia, the autonomic nervous system response to pain is?
A
Attenuated but can still cause hemodynamic changes
B
Completely abolished
C
No response
D
Only parasympathetic
Question 33Single Answer
The main ventilatory muscle affected first by muscle relaxants is?
A
Intercostals
B
Abdominal muscles
C
No effect
D
Diaphragm (relatively resistant but eventually paralyzed)
Question 34Single Answer
Beta blockers are used in anesthesia to?
A
Increase heart rate
B
Only hypotension
C
No control
D
Control sympathetic response and tachycardia
Question 35Single Answer
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) in ventilation helps?
A
Decrease functional residual capacity
B
Only increase CO2
C
No effect
D
Prevent alveolar collapse and improve oxygenation
Question 36Single Answer
Autonomic effects of ketamine include?
A
Only parasympathetic
B
Sympathetic stimulation (increased HR and BP)
C
No stimulation
D
Only bradycardia
Question 37Single Answer
The heart continues to pump under muscle relaxants because?
A
Cardiac muscle is not dependent on neuromuscular junction
B
They affect cardiac muscle
C
No pumping
D
Only skeletal
Question 38Single Answer
Hypoventilation under anesthesia is due to?
A
Only increased metabolism
B
Respiratory depression and muscle relaxation
C
No depression
D
Only pain
Question 39Single Answer
Glycopyrrolate is used with neostigmine to?
A
Increase secretions
B
Only hypertension
C
No counter
D
Counteract bradycardia from anticholinesterase
Question 40Single Answer
The autonomic nervous system is divided into?
A
Only somatic
B
No division
C
Sympathetic and parasympathetic
D
Only central
Question 41Single Answer
During anesthesia, diaphragmatic excursion is?
A
Reduced or absent with relaxants
B
Increased
C
No change
D
Only abdominal
Question 42Single Answer
Succinylcholine can cause?
A
Transient increase in intragastric pressure
B
Only relaxation
C
No pressure change
D
Only decrease
Question 43Single Answer
Ventilation-perfusion matching is altered under anesthesia due to?
A
Only position
B
No alteration
C
Loss of diaphragmatic tone and atelectasis
D
Only drugs
Question 44Single Answer
The main neurotransmitter of parasympathetic system is?
A
Norepinephrine
B
Serotonin
C
Dopamine
D
Acetylcholine
Question 45Single Answer
Sympathetic stimulation causes?
A
Bronchoconstriction
B
Bronchodilation
C
No effect on bronchi
D
Only vasoconstriction
Question 46Single Answer
Under anesthesia, the primary reason for mechanical ventilation is?
A
Patient comfort
B
No reason
C
Muscle relaxation and respiratory depression
D
Only surgery
Question 47Single Answer
Atropine is used in anesthesia to?
A
Block vagal effects and reduce secretions
B
Decrease heart rate
C
No vagal block
D
Only hypotension
Question 48Single Answer
The phrenic nerve supplies?
A
Intercostal muscles
B
Diaphragm
C
Heart
D
Abdominal muscles
Question 49Single Answer
Non-depolarizing relaxants are reversed by?
A
Succinylcholine
B
Only time
C
No reversal
D
Neostigmine
Question 50Single Answer
Anesthesia blunts baroreceptor reflexes leading to?
A
Stable blood pressure
B
Greater hemodynamic instability
C
No instability
D
Only tachycardia
Important Questions Package
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Core subject (Operation Theatre Technician)
Question 51Single Answer
During positive pressure ventilation, venous return is?
A
Decreased
B
Increased
C
No change
D
Only increased in inspiration
Question 52Single Answer
The autonomic effect of propofol includes?
A
Sympathetic stimulation
B
No effect
C
Mild sympathetic inhibition and vasodilation
D
Only parasympathetic
Question 53Single Answer
Diaphragm paralysis requires?
A
Spontaneous breathing
B
No ventilation
C
Assisted or controlled ventilation
D
Only oxygen
Question 54Single Answer
Train-of-four monitoring assesses?
A
Only depth of anesthesia
B
No blockade
C
Degree of neuromuscular blockade
D
Only heart
Question 55Single Answer
Parasympathetic stimulation causes?
A
Miosis and increased secretions
B
Mydriasis
C
No secretion
D
Tachycardia
Question 56Single Answer
Hypercarbia under anesthesia stimulates?
A
Sympathetic system
B
Only parasympathetic
C
No stimulation
D
Only vagus
Question 57Single Answer
The main ventilatory change with anesthesia is?
A
Reduced functional residual capacity and atelectasis
B
Increased tidal volume
C
No change
D
Only increased compliance
Question 58Single Answer
Anticholinergics like glycopyrrolate are used to?
A
Increase heart rate only
B
Only secretions increase
C
No counter
D
Counter muscarinic effects of reversal agents
Question 59Single Answer
Sympathetic chain blockade in spinal anesthesia causes?
A
Hypertension
B
Hypotension due to vasodilation
C
No change
D
Bradycardia only
Question 60Single Answer
Under anesthesia, the diaphragm contributes less to ventilation because of?
A
Increased tone
B
Relaxation and cephalad displacement
C
No displacement
D
Only intercostal
Question 61Single Answer
Succinylcholine metabolism is by?
A
Liver
B
Kidney only
C
No metabolism
D
Plasma cholinesterase
Question 62Single Answer
Autonomic reflexes during surgery are best managed by?
A
Ignoring
B
Adequate depth of anesthesia and analgesia
C
No management
D
Only fluids
Question 63Single Answer
The heart rate under balanced anesthesia is influenced by?
A
Only volatiles
B
Only relaxants
C
No influence
D
Opioids, volatiles, and autonomic tone
Question 64Single Answer
Positive pressure ventilation can cause?
A
Decreased venous return and cardiac output
B
Increased venous return
C
No effect
D
Only increase output
Question 65Single Answer
Anesthesia affects autonomic control of?
A
Only respiration
B
Cardiovascular and respiratory systems significantly
C
No systems
D
Only digestion
Question 66Single Answer
The diaphragm is innervated mainly by?
A
Thoracic nerves
B
Vagus
C
Phrenic nerve from cervical plexus
D
Sympathetic
Question 67Single Answer
Muscle relaxants facilitate surgery by?
A
Only sedation
B
No relaxation
C
Providing muscle relaxation for better surgical access
D
Only analgesia
Question 68Single Answer
Sympathetic overactivity during emergence can cause?
A
Hypertension and tachycardia
B
Hypotension
C
No change
D
Bradycardia
Question 69Single Answer
In paralyzed patients, ventilation is maintained by?
A
Mechanical ventilator
B
Patient effort
C
Diaphragm alone
D
No ventilation
Question 70Single Answer
The parasympathetic system originates from?
A
Thoracolumbar region
B
Craniosacral outflow
C
No origin
D
Only lumbar
Question 71Single Answer
Anesthesia-induced atelectasis is mainly due to?
A
Loss of muscle tone and absorption collapse
B
Increased FRC
C
No atelectasis
D
Only position
Question 72Single Answer
Glycopyrrolate is preferred over atropine because?
A
More central effect
B
Only secretions
C
No difference
D
Less crossing blood-brain barrier and fewer tachycardia issues
Question 73Single Answer
The effect of muscle relaxants on heart is?
A
Direct depression
B
Indirect through autonomic or histamine release
C
No effect
D
Only increase rate
Question 74Single Answer
During anesthesia, the main drive for ventilation becomes?
A
Often mechanical due to drugs
B
Hypoxic drive
C
No drive
D
Only CO2
Question 75Single Answer
Autonomic nervous system monitoring during anesthesia includes?
A
Only BP
B
Heart rate, blood pressure, and pupillary response
C
No monitoring
D
Only temperature
Question 76Single Answer
The phrenic nerve can be affected during?
A
Neck or thoracic procedures leading to diaphragmatic paralysis
B
Only abdominal surgery
C
No effect
D
Only limb
Question 77Single Answer
Non-depolarizing relaxants are potentiated by?
A
Only volatiles
B
Only opioids
C
No potentiation
D
Volatile anesthetics, hypothermia, and certain antibiotics
Question 78Single Answer
Ventilation under anesthesia aims at?
A
Only oxygenation
B
Only hyperventilation
C
No CO2
D
Adequate oxygenation and CO2 elimination
Question 79Single Answer
The sympathetic nervous system originates from?
A
Craniosacral
B
Only sacral
C
No origin
D
Thoracolumbar region
Question 80Single Answer
Muscle relaxants allow?
A
Only awake surgery
B
Only local
C
No intubation
D
Safe intubation and controlled ventilation
Question 81Single Answer
Bradycardia during anesthesia is often due to?
A
Sympathetic stimulation
B
No vagal
C
Vagal stimulation or drugs
D
Only tachycardia drugs
Question 82Single Answer
Diaphragmatic breathing is replaced by?
A
Thoracic only under relaxants
B
No replacement
C
Mechanical ventilation
D
Only abdominal
Question 83Single Answer
The effect of anesthesia on heart rate variability indicates?
A
Only depth
B
Only pain
C
No variability
D
Autonomic nervous system balance
Question 84Single Answer
Reversal of neuromuscular blockade should be done when?
A
No twitch
B
No need
C
At least 4 twitches with minimal fade
D
Only clinically breathing
Question 85Single Answer
Autonomic reflexes are best suppressed by?
A
Only muscle relaxants
B
Only fluids
C
No suppression
D
Adequate analgesia and depth of anesthesia
Question 86Single Answer
The main respiratory change with muscle relaxants is?
A
Increased effort
B
Apnea requiring ventilation
C
No change
D
Only hyperpnea
Question 87Single Answer
Histamine release from atracurium can cause?
A
Hypotension and flushing
B
Only bradycardia
C
No effect
D
Hypertension
Question 88Single Answer
In anesthesia, the diaphragm is relatively resistant to?
A
Non-depolarizing relaxants compared to peripheral muscles
B
All relaxants
C
No resistance
D
Only depolarizing
Question 89Single Answer
Parasympathetic blockade is achieved by?
A
Only beta blockers
B
No blockade
C
Anticholinergics like atropine
D
Only alpha blockers
Question 90Single Answer
Controlled ventilation settings are adjusted based on?
A
Only weight
B
Only rate
C
No adjustment
D
End-tidal CO2, SpO2, and clinical parameters
Question 91Single Answer
The autonomic nervous system effect on pupils under anesthesia is?
A
Always dilated
B
Variable depending on agents
C
No effect
D
Only constricted
Question 92Single Answer
Muscle relaxants improve surgical conditions by?
A
Only sedation
B
Relaxing abdominal and other muscles
C
No improvement
D
Only analgesia
Question 93Single Answer
Sympathetic stimulation increases?
A
Bronchoconstriction
B
Myocardial oxygen demand
C
No demand
D
Only decrease
Question 94Single Answer
The primary reason for using muscle relaxants in OT is?
A
Only comfort
B
Facilitation of surgery and airway management
C
No facilitation
D
Only monitoring
Question 95Single Answer
Anesthesia and muscle relaxants together cause?
A
Need for mechanical ventilatory support
B
Increased spontaneous ventilation
C
No need
D
Only mild effect
Question 96Single Answer
The suprasternal notch (jugular notch) corresponds to which vertebral level?
A
T2-T3
B
C7
C
T4-T5
D
L4
Question 97Single Answer
Tuffier’s line (intercristal line) is drawn by joining the highest points of?
A
Suprasternal notch and xiphisternum
B
Anterior superior iliac spines
C
Both iliac crests
D
Posterior superior iliac spines
Question 98Single Answer
Tuffier’s line most commonly corresponds to which vertebral level or interspace?
A
L2-L3
B
S1-S2
C
T12-L1
D
L4 or L4-L5 interspace
Question 99Single Answer
The anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) is an important landmark for?
A
Only cardiac procedures
B
Identifying inguinal ligament and lumbar plexus blocks
C
No surgical use
D
Only head and neck surgery
Question 100Single Answer
For spinal anesthesia, the needle is commonly inserted at?
A
Cervical level
B
L3-L4 or L4-L5 interspace
C
Thoracic level
D
Sacral level only
Question 101Single Answer
The suprasternal notch is used as a landmark for?
A
Lumbar puncture
B
Only pelvic surgery
C
No landmark value
D
Identifying tracheal position and central venous access
Question 102Single Answer
The anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic tubercle are joined by?
A
Only ASIS
B
Iliac crest
C
No connection
D
Inguinal ligament
Question 103Single Answer
In patient positioning for spinal anesthesia, the iliac crest helps identify?
A
Lumbar interspaces via Tuffier’s line
B
Cervical level
C
No help
D
Only thoracic level
Question 104Single Answer
The spinous process of C7 is known as?
A
No special name
B
Vertebra prominens
C
Only thoracic
D
Lumbar landmark
Question 105Single Answer
The xiphoid process corresponds approximately to which vertebral level?
A
T9-T10
B
L1
C
T4
D
S1
Question 106Single Answer
The anterior superior iliac spine is palpated for?
A
Only cardiac surgery
B
Only head surgery
C
No palpation
D
Regional blocks like femoral nerve block and spinal level estimation
Question 107Single Answer
In supine position, the suprasternal notch is at the level of?
A
Only cervical
B
L4
C
No relation
D
T2-T3 vertebral body
Question 108Single Answer
Tuffier’s line is used by the anesthetist to?
A
Identify safe lumbar interspace for spinal or epidural anesthesia
B
Only measure height
C
No use in anesthesia
D
Only positioning for laparotomy
Question 109Single Answer
The posterior superior iliac spine corresponds to?
A
L4
B
S2 vertebral level
C
T12
D
No correspondence
Question 110Single Answer
During patient positioning for surgery, the ASIS is used as a landmark for?
A
Only supine position
B
Only prone position
C
No positioning use
D
Preventing pressure sores and alignment in lithotomy or lateral position
Question 111Single Answer
The cricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level?
A
C5
B
T4
C
T1
D
C6
Question 112Single Answer
In spinal anesthesia, the conus medullaris ends at?
A
L1-L2 in adults
B
S1
C
No ending
D
Only cervical
Question 113Single Answer
The suprasternal notch is a useful landmark during?
A
Only lumbar surgery
B
No landmark
C
Central line insertion and tracheostomy
D
Only pelvic surgery
Question 114Single Answer
The line joining both ASIS is called?
A
Only iliac line
B
Interspinous line
C
No specific name
D
Tuffier’s line
Question 115Single Answer
For safe spinal anesthesia, the needle should be inserted below?
A
L1
B
L2-L3 interspace (commonly L3-L4 or L4-L5)
C
No limit
D
Only thoracic
Question 116Single Answer
The sternal angle (angle of Louis) corresponds to?
A
T4-T5 vertebral level
B
T2
C
L4
D
No level
Question 117Single Answer
The ASIS is the origin of?
A
Only sartorius
B
Sartorius, inguinal ligament and tensor fascia lata
C
No origin
D
Only rectus
Question 118Single Answer
In prone position, pressure on ASIS can cause?
A
Only comfort
B
No injury
C
Injury to lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
D
Only back pain
Question 119Single Answer
The vertebral level for carina (tracheal bifurcation) is?
A
T2
B
L4
C
T4-T5
D
S2
Question 120Single Answer
Tuffier’s line is particularly useful in?
A
No use
B
Only thin patients
C
Obese patients for approximate lumbar level
D
Only cervical
Question 121Single Answer
The suprasternal notch is palpated for?
A
Identifying midline and tracheal deviation
B
Only thyroid
C
No palpation
D
Only heart
Question 122Single Answer
The iliac crest is at the level of?
A
No level
B
T12
C
L4
D
Only S1
Question 123Single Answer
In lateral position for surgery, the lower ASIS is protected to prevent?
A
Only comfort
B
Compression injury and nerve palsy
C
No protection needed
D
Only skin burn
Question 124Single Answer
The spinous process of L4 is approximately at?
A
Suprasternal notch
B
Level of iliac crests (Tuffier’s line)
C
No relation
D
Only xiphoid
Question 125Single Answer
The anterior superior iliac spine is used as a landmark for?
A
Only spinal anesthesia
B
No block
C
Ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve blocks
D
Only cardiac
Question 126Single Answer
The cricoid cartilage is at C6 and is important for?
Cricoid pressure (Sellick’s maneuver) during intubation
A
Only thyroid surgery
B
Cricoid pressure (Sellick’s maneuver) during intubation
C
No importance
D
Only lumbar
Question 127Single Answer
In obese patients, Tuffier’s line may correspond to?
A
Lower level
B
No change
C
Higher vertebral level than in thin patients
D
Only thoracic
Question 128Single Answer
The suprasternal notch to sternal angle distance helps in?
A
Estimating tracheal length
B
Only measurement
C
No estimation
D
Only pelvic
Question 129Single Answer
The posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) corresponds to?
A
L4
B
No correspondence
C
T4
D
S2 (dimples of Venus)
Question 130Single Answer
For epidural anesthesia, the landmark used is?
A
Intercristal line (Tuffier’s) for lumbar level
B
Only ASIS
C
No landmark
D
Only suprasternal
Question 131Single Answer
The xiphisternum corresponds to?
A
T9
B
L4
C
T10 vertebral level approximately
D
No level
Question 132Single Answer
The ASIS is used in?
A
Identifying the level for anterior approach in hip surgery
B
Only supine position
C
No surgical use
D
Only prone
Question 133Single Answer
The carina is at the level of?
A
Suprasternal notch
B
Sternal angle (T4-T5)
C
No level
D
Only ASIS
Question 134Single Answer
In OT, patient positioning prevents injury to?
A
Only skin
B
No prevention
C
Nerves and vessels using landmarks like ASIS and suprasternal notch
D
Only bones
Question 135Single Answer
The umbilicus corresponds to?
A
T10
B
L3-L4 approximately
C
No level
D
Only S1
Question 136Single Answer
Tuffier’s line is less reliable in?
A
Thin patients
B
Obese or pregnant patients
C
No issue
D
Only children
Question 137Single Answer
The suprasternal notch is the superior border of?
A
No border
B
Only body of sternum
C
Manubrium sterni
D
Only xiphoid
Question 138Single Answer
The ASIS and pubic symphysis are used to locate?
A
Inguinal region for hernia repair or blocks
B
Only heart
C
No location
D
Only spine
Question 139Single Answer
Spinal cord ends at?
A
No ending
B
S2
C
L1-L2 in adults
D
Only cervical
Question 140Single Answer
During spinal anesthesia, the patient is positioned to?
A
Only comfort
B
No positioning
C
Flex the spine and widen interspinous spaces using landmarks
D
Only supine
Question 141Single Answer
The sternal angle is at the level of?
A
Second costal cartilage
B
Only suprasternal
C
No cartilage
D
Only ASIS
Question 142Single Answer
The posterior superior iliac spine is used as?
A
Only anterior landmark
B
Only suprasternal
C
No use
D
Landmark for sacroiliac joint and S2 level
Question 143Single Answer
In OT, the OT technician uses surface landmarks for?
A
Only cleaning
B
No use
C
patient positioning and assisting in regional anesthesia
D
Only documentation
Question 144Single Answer
The intercristal line (Tuffier’s) is drawn at the level of?
A
Only PSIS
B
Only ASIS
C
No line
D
Highest point of iliac crests
Question 145Single Answer
The cricoid cartilage is the only complete ring and is at?
A
C5
B
T2
C
C6
D
L4
Question 146Single Answer
The ASIS is the attachment for?
A
Only inguinal ligament
B
Only diaphragm
C
No attachment
D
Inguinal ligament, sartorius and tensor fascia lata
Question 147Single Answer
In lateral position, the upper arm is positioned to avoid?
A
Only comfort
B
No injury
C
Brachial plexus injury using proper padding and landmarks
D
Only leg
Question 148Single Answer
The suprasternal notch is used to count?
A
Only ribs
B
No counting
C
Ribs for central line or chest tube insertion
D
Only vertebrae
Question 149Single Answer
Spinal anesthesia is contraindicated above?
A
L4
B
Only sacral
C
No contraindication
D
L2 (to avoid cord injury)
Question 150Single Answer
The xiphoid process is at the level of?
A
T9
B
L4
C
T10
D
S2
Question 151Single Answer
The anterior superior iliac spine helps in?
A
Locating the femoral artery (mid-inguinal point)
B
Only spinal
C
No location
D
Only heart
Question 152Single Answer
Tuffier’s line is more accurate when confirmed with?
A
Only palpation
B
Only x-ray
C
No confirmation
D
Ultrasound guidance in difficult cases
Question 153Single Answer
The suprasternal notch to manubrium helps identify?
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 162Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true
Question 163Single Answer
Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?
A
Kuchipudi
B
Odissi
C
Bharatnatyam
D
Kathak
Question 164Single Answer
As an exponent of Khayal, Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belonged to which music Gharana ?
A
Agra
B
Benaras
C
Kirana
D
Gwalior
Question 165Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 166Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 167Single Answer
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud
Question 168Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 169Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 170Single Answer
What is considered the national game of India ?
A
Field hockey
B
cricket
C
Chess
D
Kabaddi
Question 171Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 172Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 173Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 174Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 175Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 176Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 177Single Answer
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
A
Pongal
B
Onam
C
Baisakhi
D
Makar Sankranti
Question 178Single Answer
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems
Question 179Single Answer
Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?
A
Metaphysics
B
Aesthetics
C
Normative ethics
D
Epistemology
Question 180Single Answer
Which ethical theory focuses on the consequences of actions to determine right from wrong ?
A
Deontology
B
Virtue ethics
C
Utilitarianism
D
Ethical egoism
Question 181Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 182Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 183Single Answer
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990
Question 184Single Answer
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A
INSAT-1A
B
Aryabhata
C
Rohini
D
Bhaskara
Question 185Single Answer
Which is the longest river in India?
A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari
Question 186Single Answer
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis
Question 187Single Answer
Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
A
Ganges
B
Kosi
C
Son
D
Gandak
Question 188Single Answer
Who among the following was associated with Enlightenment philosophy?
A
Voltaire
B
Shakespeare
C
Erasmus
D
All of the above
Question 189Single Answer
When did World War II end?
A
1918
B
1939
C
1946
D
1945
Question 190Single Answer
Saint Simon, Charles Fourier and Robert Owen were:
A
Early Socialist
B
Renaissance
C
Portuguese sailor
D
Activities in the American War of Independence
Question 191Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 192Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Question 193Single Answer
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B
Atal Tunnel
C
Noida International Airport
D
Chenab Bridge
Question 194Single Answer
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A
Increased tariffs
B
Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C
Complete trade halt
D
New sanctions
Question 195Single Answer
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?
A
4.0% of GDP
B
5.0% of GDP
C
4.5% of GDP
D
4.3% of GDP
Question 196Single Answer
What was the total expenditure estimated in the Union Budget 2026-27?
A
₹49.6 lakh crore
B
₹53.5 lakh crore
C
₹55 lakh crore
D
₹60 lakh crore
Question 197Single Answer
What defence-related development was noted in the context of India’s preparedness amid global tensions in March 2026?
A
Reduction in capex
B
Withdrawal from international exercises
C
Complete self-reliance achieved
D
Surge in defence budget and modernisation push
Question 198Single Answer
What significant diplomatic agreement was announced between India and Canada in early March 2026?
A
Defence pact
B
Free Trade Agreement
C
Strengthened economic partnership
D
Climate alliance
Question 199Single Answer
Which airport or port received a critical LPG shipment (Pyxis Pioneer) in March 2026 amid West Asia tensions?
A
Mundra Port
B
Paradip Port
C
New Mangalore Port
D
Kandla Port
Question 200Single Answer
What major international sporting hosting rights did India receive in March 2026?
