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Subjects : Life Sciences

Question Bank Goa State Eligibility Test Exam Paper II (Life Science) - English
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Life Sciences

Question 1Single Answer
In each of the following groups of words is a hidden number,  based on which you should arrange them in descending order. Pick the correct answer :
E.  Papers  I  xeroxed
F.  Wi - Fi  veteran
G.  Yourself  ourselves
H.  Breaks even
  1. A
    H,  F,  G,  H     
  2. B
    E,  G,  F,  H
  3. C
    H,  F,  G,  E       
  4. D
    H,  E,  F,  G
Question 2Single Answer
Count the number of squares in the given figure.
  1. A
    32
  2. B
    30
  3. C
    29
  4. D
    28
Question 3Single Answer
A  shopkeeper purchases a product for Rs 100 and  sells it making a profit of 10% . The customer resells it to the same shopkeeper incurring a loss of  10% . In these dealing the shopkeeper makes :
  1. A
    no  profit,  no loss    
  2. B
    Rs  11
  3. C
    Rs  1                   
  4. D
    Rs  20
Question 4Single Answer
Five congruent rectangles are drawn inside a big rectangle of perimeter  165  as shown. What is the perimeter of one of the five rectangles?
  1. A
    37          
  2. B
    75
  3. C
    15           
  4. D
    165
Question 5Single Answer
A person walks downhill at 10 km/h. If the 6km/h and  on the plane at  7.5 km/h. If the person takes 3 hours to go from a place A to another place  B,  and  1 hour on the way back,  the distance between  A and  B is :
  1. A
    15 km
  2. B
    23.5 km
  3. C
    16 km
  4. D
    Given data is insufficient to calculate the distance 
Question 6Single Answer
 A vessel is partially filled with water. More water is added to it at a rate directly proportional to time   . Which of the following graphs depicts correctly the variation of total volume  V of water with time  t?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Question 7Single Answer
At one instant the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock are one over the other in between the markings for  5 and  6 on the dial. At this instant,  the tip of the minute hand
  1. A
    is closer to the marking for  6
  2. B
    is equidistant from the markings for  5 and  6
  3. C
    is closer to markings for  5
  4. D
    is equidistant from the markings for  11 and  12  
Question 8Single Answer
A bird leaves its nest and flies away. Its distance x from the nest is plotted as a function of time t. Which of the following plots cannot be right?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Question 9Single Answer
A cubicle cardboard box made of 1 cm thick card board has outer side of 29 cm. A tight - fitting cubical box of the same thickness is placed inside it, then another one inside it and so on. How many cubical boxes will be there in the entire set?
  1. A
    29        
  2. B
    28
  3. C
    15        
  4. D
    14
Question 10Single Answer
Secondary colours are made by a mixture of three primary colours,  Red Green and Blue,  in different proportions'. each of the primary colours comes in 8 possible levels. Grey corresponds to equal proportions of Red. Green and Blue. How many shades of grey exist in this scheme?
  1. A
    8 3        
  2. B
    8
  3. C
    3 8    
  4. D
    8.3 
Question 11Single Answer
The triangle formed by the lines  y  =  x,   y  =  1 --  x and  x  =  0  in a two dimensional plane is ( x and  y axes have the same scale)
  1. A
    isosceles and right - angled
  2. B
    isosceles but not right - angled
  3. C
    right - angled but not isosceles 
  4. D
    neither isosceles nor right - angled  
Question 12Single Answer
The are two buckets  A and  B. Initially  A has 2 litres of water and B is empty. At every hour 1 litre of water is transferred from  A to B followed by returning   litre back to  A from B half an hour later.  The earliest  A  will get empty is in :
  1. A
    5 h     
  2. B
    4 h
  3. C
    3 h               
  4. D
    2  h
Question 13Single Answer
Statement  A : The following statements is true
Statement  B : The preceding statement is false Choose the correct inference from the following :
  1. A
    Statements  A and  B are always true
  2. B
    Statements A and  B can be true if there is at least one statement between A and  B
  3. C
    Statements  A and  B can  be true if there are at least two statements between A and  B
  4. D
    Statements  A and  B can never be true,  independently. 
Question 14Single Answer
A car is moving at 60 km/h. The instantaneous velocity of the upper most points of its wheels is :
  1. A
    60 km/h forward
  2. B
    120 km/h forward
  3. C
    60 km/h backward
  4. D
    120 km/h backward   
Question 15Single Answer
If  D +  I  +  M  =  1501
C + I + V + I + L  =  157
L + I + V + I + D  =  557
C + I + V + I + C = 207         
What is  V +  I +  M  =  ?
  1. A
    Cannot  be  found
  2. B
    1009
  3. C
    1006
  4. D
    509 
Question 16Single Answer
A living cell has a protoplasm which is water based and demarcated by a lipid bilayer membrane.  If a cell is pierced up to   th  of its diameter with a very sharp needle,  after taking the needle out.
  1. A
    no effect will be observed.
  2. B
    protoplasm will leak out from the hole made by the needle for a few minutes until the cell heals the wound.
  3. C
    protoplasm will keep on leaking out till the cell is dead.
  4. D
    the cell will burst like a balloon.  
Question 17Single Answer
Density of a rice grain is 1.5 g/cc and  bulk density of rice heap is 0.80 g/cc. If a 1 litre container is completely filled with rice, what will be the approximate volume of pore space in the container  ?
  1. A
    350 cc   
  2. B
    465 cc
  3. C
    550 cc     
  4. D
    665 cc
Question 18Single Answer
A turtle starts swimming from a point A located on the circumference a circular pond. After swimming for 4 metes in a straight line it hits point B on the circumference of the pond. From there it changes direction and swims for 3 meters in a straight line and arrives at point D diametrically opposite to point A. How far is point  D from  A?
  1. A
    3 m     
  2. B
    4 m
  3. C
    7 m           
  4. D
    5 m 
Question 19Single Answer
 Four circles of unit radius each are drawn such that each one touches two others and their centers lie on the vertices of a square. The area of the region enclosed between the circles is :
  1. A
     -    1 
  2. B
     -  2
  3. C
    3 -    
  4. D
    4  - 
Question 20Single Answer
A film projector and  microscope give equal magnification. But a film projector is not used to see living cells because  :
  1. A
    a living cell cannot be placed in a film projector.
  2. B
    the viewer's  eye is close to a microscope whereas it is far away from the projector 's  screen.
  3. C
    a microscope produces a virtual a virtual image whereas a projector produces a real image.
  4. D
    a microscope has greater resolving power than a projector. 
Question 21Single Answer
The ionic strength of a 0.2 M Na2 HPO4 solution will be :
  1. A
    0.2 M                
  2. B
    0.4 M
  3. C
    0.6 M        
  4. D
    0.8 M
Question 22Single Answer
A cell line deficient in salvage pathway for nucleotide biosynthesis was fed with medium containing 15N labelled  amino acids. Purines were then extracted. Treatment with which one of the following amino acids is likely to produce 15N  labelled  purines?
  1. A
    Aspartic acid
  2. B
    Glycine
  3. C
    Glutamine
  4. D
    Aspartamine 
Question 23Single Answer
Enzymes accelerate a reaction by which one of the following strategies?
  1. A
    Decreasing energy required to form the transition state.
  2. B
    Increasing kinetic energy of the substrate.
  3. C
    Increasing the free energy different between substrate and the product.
  4. D
    Increasing the turn over number of enzymes.  
Question 24Single Answer
Coupling of the reaction centers of oxidative phosphorylation is achieved by which one of the following  ?
  1. A
    Making a complex of all four reaction centers.
  2. B
    Locating all four complexes in the inner membrane.
  3. C
    Ubiquinones and  cytochrome C.
  4. D
    Pumping of protons  
Question 25Single Answer
The genome of a bacterium is composed of a single  DNA  molecule which is 109 bp long. How many moles of genomic  DNA  is present in the bacterium?  ( Consider Avogadro No = 6  x 1023 )
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Question 26Single Answer
If takes 40 minutes for a typical E. coli to completely replicate its chromosome. Simultaneous to the ongoing replication,  20 minutes of a fresh round of replication is completed before the cell divides. What would be the generation time of  E. coli growing at 370C in complex medium?
  1. A
    20 minutes        
  2. B
    40  minutes
  3. C
    60 minutes    
  4. D
    30 minutes 
Question 27Single Answer
Glycophorin having one highly hydrophobic domain is able to span a phospholipid bilayer membrane only  :
  1. A
    Once             
  2. B
    Twice
  3. C
    Thrice     
  4. D
    Four times 
Question 28Single Answer
Given below are events in the cell cycle.
(a)  Phosphorylation of lamina A,  B,  C
(b)   Phosphorylation of Rb ( Retinoblastoma protein
(c)  Polyubiquitination of securin
(d)  Association of inner nuclear membrane proteins and nuclear pore complex proteins with chromosomes.
Which one of the following reflects the correct sequence of events in the mammalian cell cycle?
  1. A
    a  →   b →   c →  d
  2. B
    b  →  c →   d →   a
  3. C
    c  →  a →   b →   d
  4. D
    b  →  a →   c →  d
Question 29Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is a  DNA intercalator?
  1. A
    5 - Bromoracil
  2. B
    Ethyl  methane  sulphonate
  3. C
    Acridine orange
  4. D
    UV   
Question 30Single Answer
An antibiotic that resembles the  3' end of a charged  tRNA  molecule is :
  1. A
    Streptomycin      
  2. B
    Sparsomycin
  3. C
    Puromcin            
  4. D
    Tetracycline 
Question 31Single Answer
α - Amanitin is a fungal toxin which inhibits eukaryotic  RNA  polymerases. The three eukaryotic  RNA polymerases show differential sensitivity to this toxin. Which one of the following order ( higher to lower)  is correct in respect of sensitivity towards α - amanitin  ?
  1. A
    RNA  POL  III  >  RNA  POL II >  RNA POL I
  2. B
    RNA POL II >  RNA  POL III >  RNA POL I
  3. C
    RNA  POL I  >  RNA  POL III > RNA POL II
  4. D
    RNA  POL II  >  RNA  POL I > RNA  POL III 
Question 32Single Answer
In eukaryotic replication,  helicase loading occurs at all replicators during :
  1. A
    G0  phase
  2. B
    G1 phase
  3. C
    S phase
  4. D
    G2 phase   
Question 33Single Answer
 Cytotoxic  T cells express :
  1. A
    CD8  marker and are class  II MHC restricted
  2. B
    CD4 marker and class  I MHC restricted
  3. C
    CD4  marker and are class II MHC restricted
  4. D
    CD8 marker and are class  I MHC restricted  
Question 34Single Answer
The mutation in an oncogene falls under which of the following classes?
  1. A
    Loss of function mutation
  2. B
    Frame shift mutation
  3. C
    Gain of function mutation
  4. D
    Dominant negative mutation
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a cell adhesion protein?
  1. A
    Cadherin
  2. B
    Selectin
  3. C
    Immunoglobulin (Ig)  superfamily
  4. D
    Laminin  
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a second messenger?
  1. A
    Cyclin  GMP
  2. B
    Diacylglycerol
  3. C
    Inositol triphosphate
  4. D
    Phosphatidyl  inositol 
Question 37Single Answer
In chick, development of wing feather, thigh feather and claws depends on epithelial specificity conferred by induction from mesenchymal components from different sources of the dermins. This may be attributed to  ?
  1. A
    Autocrine interaction
  2. B
    Regional specificity of induction
  3. C
    Receptor activation by hormones
  4. D
    Inactivation of genetic interactions 
Question 38Single Answer
Alveolar cells of the lung arise from which one of the following layer(s) ?
  1. A
    Mesoderm
  2. B
    Endoderm
  3. C
    Ectoderm
  4. D
    Both ectoderm and  endoderm 
Question 39Single Answer
Migration of individual cells from the surface into embryo 's interior is termed as :
  1. A
    ingression 
  2. B
    involution
  3. C
    invagination    
  4. D
    delamination 
Question 40Single Answer
Floral organ development is controlled by overlapping expression of  'A'  class,  ' B'  class and  ' C'  class genes in different whorls. In an  Arabidopsis mutant,  the flowers had sepals,  sepals,  carpels and  carpels in the four whorls. Mutation in which one of the following is the cause for the mutant phenotype  ?
  1. A
    ' A ' class  gene alone
  2. B
    ' B ' class gene alone
  3. C
    ' A ' and  ' B ' class  genes
  4. D
    ' C ' class gene  alone   
Question 41Single Answer
Phenylalanine,  a precursor of most of the phenolics in higher plants is a product of which one of the following pathways?
A.  Phenylalanine,  a precursor of most of the phenolics in higher plants is a product of which one of the following pathways?
  1. A
    Shikimic acid  pathway
  2. B
    Malonic  acid pathway
  3. C
    Mevalonic acid pathway
    D.  Methylerythritol pathway   
  4. D
    Methylerythritol pathway   
Question 42Single Answer
For which one of the following physiological studies  12CO2 and  13CO2 are  used?
  1. A
    Estimate the rate of photosynthesis
  2. B
    Determine rate of photorespiration
  3. C
    The ratio of C4 and  CAM pathways of CO2  fixation
  4. D
    The ratio of C3 and  C4  pathways of CO2  fixation  
Question 43Single Answer
Gibberllic acid ( GA)  controls seed germination by directing breakdown of the stored starch. In which one of the following tissues of the  barley seed, 𝛼- amylase gene is induced in response to  GA?
  1. A
    Endosperm 
  2. B
    Coleptile
  3. C
    Aleurone layer     
  4. D
    Embryo 
Question 44Single Answer
The photosynthetic assimilation of atmospheric CO2 by leaves yield sucrose and starch as end product of two gluconeogenic pathways that are physically separated. Which one of the following combination of cell organelles are involved in such physical separation of the process?
  1. A
    Sucrose in cytosol and starch in mitochondria
  2. B
    Sucrose in chloroplasts and  starch in cytosol
  3. C
    Sucrose in mitochondria and starch in cytosol
  4. D
    Sucrose in cytosol and starch in chloroplasts.    
Question 45Single Answer
A diabetic patient developed metabolic acidosis resulting in deep and rapid breathing which is called  :
  1. A
    Kussmaul breathing
  2. B
    Cheyne-stokes respiratory pattern
  3. C
    Apneustic breathing
  4. D
    Periodic breathing 
Question 46Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT involved with the pacemaker potential of heart?
  1. A
    ' h' - channel
  2. B
    Transient calcium channel
  3. C
    Long-lasting calcium channel
  4. D
     ' f ' - channel 
Question 47Single Answer
 You are asked to identify the stage of estrus cycle in vaginal smear of a mouse containing large number of leukocytes and very few nucleated epithelial cells. Which one of the following will be the correct stage of estrus cycle?
  1. A
    Early estrus,  late proestrus
  2. B
    Late estrus,  early metestrus
  3. C
    Late metestrus, early diestrus
  4. D
    Late diesyrus, early proestrus 
Question 48Single Answer
Which one of the following neurotransmitters is secreted by the pre-ganglionic neurons of sympathetic nervous system?
  1. A
    Epinephrine      
  2. B
    Acetylcholine
  3. C
    Dopamine    
  4. D
    Norepinephrine 
Question 49Single Answer
Following is a hypothetical biochemical pathway responsible for pigmentation of leaves. The pathway is controlled by two independently assorting genes  ' A ' and  ' B ' encoding enzymes as shown below. Mutant alleles ' a ' and  ' b ' code for non-functional proteins.

What is the expected progeny after selfing a plant with the genotype  AaBb? 
  1. A
    Green (9):  White (4):  Yellow  (3)
  2. B
    Green (9):  Yellow (4):   White (3)
  3. C
    Green (9): Yellow (6):  White (1)
  4. D
    Green (9):  White (7) 
Question 50Single Answer
 Mutation in gene ' X ' leads to lethality in a haploid  organism. Which one of the following is best suited to analyze the function of gene  ' X ' ?
  1. A
    Pleiotropic mutants
  2. B
    Temperature - sensitive mutants
  3. C
    Recessive mutants
  4. D
    Mutants with low penetrance  
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