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Latest GPAT Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : GPAT
Question Bank GPAT Exam - English
GPAT
Q 1 :
Match the types of terpenes under column I with their respective examples under Column II
Column I Column II
Types of terpenes Examples
(A) Monoterpenes (I) Lycopene
(B) Diterpenes (II) Camphor
(C) Sesquiterpenes (III) Taxol
(D) Tetraterpenes (IV) Zingiberene
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D-III)
B.(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D-I)
C.(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D-III)
D.(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D-III)
Q 2 :
Limit for the following heavy metal is mentioned in the WHO guidelines for herbal drug evaluation .
(A) Cadmium
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Arsenic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.B and D only
B.Only D
C.Only B and D
D.Only A and C
Q 3 :
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The Ayurvedic drug Asava contains self generated alcohol
Reason (R) : For preparation of Asava the extract of drugs is subjected to a process of calcination
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A.Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D.(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Q 4 :
The ring structure present in strychnine is :
A. Indole
B.Purine
C.Imidazole
D.henanthrene
Q 5 :
Marker compound analysis is one of the useful methods for evaluation of herbal drugs, The following statement is NOT true about marker compound analysis :
A.Used to verify potency or identity of herbal drug
B.Marker compounds are always therapeutically active
C.Quantification of marker compounds can be carried out by HPLC/HPTLC/GC
D.The marker compounds are generally secondary metabolites.
Q 6 :
The following classification of herbal drugs gives better understanding of biosynthetic pathway in the drug
A.Botanical
B.Chemotaxonomical
C.Taxonomical
D.Chemical
Q 7 :
Match the following under chemical compounds under Column I with their respective chemical tests under Column II
Column I Column II
Compounds Chemical tests
(A) Quinine (I) Borntrager's
(B) Digitoxin (II) Thallequin
(C) Atropine (III) Vitali Morin
(D)Sennosides (IV) Keller killiani
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
B.(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
C.(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
D.(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Q 8 :
Match the following vaccines under Column I with their respective content under Column II
Column I Column II
Vaccine Content
(A) OPV (I) Killed bacteria
(B) Typhoid (II) Live bacteria
(C) Tetanus (III) Killed virus
(D) BCG (IV) Live virus
(V) Toxoid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(A)-(III), (B)-(V), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
B.(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(V), (D)-(III)
C.(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(V), (D)-(II)
D.(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Q 9 :
Which of the following microbial form listed below.exhibits the highest level of resistance to physical and chemical methods of growth control ?
A.Naked Virus
B.Protozoan cyst
C.Vegetative bacterial cell
D.Bacterial endospore
Q 10 :
Amine group protection during peptide synthesis can be accomplished by converting the Amine to
A.9 fluroenyl methyl carbamate
B.1, 3 dithiane
C.Tetra-hydro pyranyl Ether
D.dimethyl acetal
Q 11 :
given below are two statements one is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as reason (R)
Assertion – Gram Negative bacteria do not retain the primary stain when washed with alcohol and subsequently stained again with secondary stain
Reason – The outer membrane of gram - negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharide
In light of the above statement choose the most appropriate answers from the given options
A.both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B.Both assertion and reason are correct and but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C.Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
D.Assertion is not correct but reason is correct
Q 12 :
Compendium of pharmaceuticals and specialities is an international Drug compendia from
A.German Pharmaceutical Association
B.Australian Pharmaceutical Association
C.Indian pharmaceutical Association
D.Canadian Pharmaceutical
Q 13 :
Which one of the following is a competitive antagonist at benzodiazepine site of Gaba receptor gated chloride channel ?
A.Muscimol
B.Picrotoxin
C.flumazenil
D.beta carboline (dmcm)
Q 14 :
Which of the following microbial form listed below exhibits the highest level of resistance to physical and chemical methods of growth control ?
A.Naked virus
B.Protozoan Cyst
C.Vegetative Bacterial Cell
D.Bacterial Endospore
Q 15 :
Limit for the following heavy metals is/are mentioned in the guidelines for Herbal drug evaluation
A. Cadmium
B. Lead
C. mercury
D. arsenic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A.A, B and D only
B.Only D
C.Only B and D
D.Only A and C
Q 16 :
Match the following
(A) Apoptosis (1) Progressive Degraded Action of Enzymes
(B) Necrosis (2) Tightly Regulated intracellular Program In Which Destined Cells to Day
(C) Anaplasia (3) Abnormal Mass of Tissue
(D) Neoplasm (4) lack of Differentiation
A.A2 C4 D3 B2
B.A4 B3 C2 D1
C.B1 C2 D3 A4
D.C2 D3 A4 B1
Q 17 :
The following classification of herbal drugs gives better understanding of biosynthetic pathway in the drug
A.Botanical
B.Chemo taxonomical
C.Taxonomical
D.Chemical
Q 18 :
Conversion of pseudostratified columnar epithelium in Chronic Bronchitis and bronchiectasisto columnar type epithelium is example of which type of metaplasia
A.Squamous metaplasia
B.Columnar metaplasia
C.Osseous metaplasia
D.Cartilaginous metaplasia
Q 19 :
HEPA filters are defined as _______ aur more efficient in removing from the air ______ particle generated by vaporization of the hydrocarbon EMORY 3004
A.99.99%, 0.1µm
B.99%, 0.3 µm
C.99.99%, 0.3 µm
D.99%, 0.1 µm
Q 20 :
Match the following
(A) Activator (1) Zinc Dibutyldithiocarbamate
(B) Curing Agen (2) Stearic Acid
(C) Accelerator (3) Carbon Black
(D) Fillers (4) Neoprene
(5) Peroxides
A.A2 B5 C1 D3
B.A5 B4 C2 D1
C.A4 B2 C3 D5
D.A3 B4 C2 D1
Q 21 :
Hospital formulary consists of
A.List of Hospital Staff
B.List of Drugs Present In the Hospital
C.List of Equipment
D.List of Patients
Q 22 :
The β1 and β2 adrenergic receptor subtype agonist acting at atrioventricular node produces following Responses
A.Increases contractility and conduction velocity
B.Increases automaticity and conduction velocity
C.Increases contractility and automaticity
D.Increases conduction velocity and heart rate
Q 23 :
To determine the effect of breath holding on the Deposition of particles the sedimentation efficiency S is defined as
A.S = (Distance the particle Falls during breath holding) ÷ (Mean regional Airway diameter)
B.S = (Distance the particle Falls during breath holding) × (Half mean regional Airway diameter)
C.S = (Distance the particle Falls during breath holding) + (Twice mean regional Airway diameter)
D.S = (Distance the particle Falls during breath holding) – (Mean regional Airway diameter)
Q 24 :
The initial concentration of a drug decomposing according to first order kinetics is 28 ml. The specific decomposition rate k obtained from an arrhenius plot is 2.09 x 10-5 hour - 1 at room temperature 25 degree celsius. Previous experimentation has shown that when the concentration of the drug Falls below 15 ml it is not sufficiently potent for use and should be removed from the market. What expiration date should be assigned to this product
A.Approximately 37, 012.15 hours
B.Approximately 32, 225.56 hours
C.Approximately 27, 216.12 hours
D.Approximately 39, 869.23 hours
Q 25 :
The ring structure present in strychnine is
A.Indole
B.Purine
C.Imidazole
D.Phenanthrene
Q 26 :
Match the following
(A) Monoterpenes (1) Lycopene
(B) Diterpenes (2) Camphor
(C) Sesquiterpenes (3) Taxol
(D) Tetra Terpenes (4) Zingiberene
A.A2 B1 C4 D3
B.A2 B3 C4 D1
C.A4 B1 C2 D3
D.A1 B2 C4 D3
Q 27 :
Dynamic vapour sorption (DVS) isotherm is a plot of _______
A.Crystallization peak energy VS percentage relative humidity
B.Percentage change in mass VS percentage relative humidity
C.Crystallization peak energy VS percentage change in mass
D.Crystallization peak energy Vs amorphous content
Q 28 :
Match the following
(A) Low Shear mixer (1) Manestry Drycota
(B) Rotary Tablet Machine (2) Chilsonator
(C) Capsule Filling machine (3) Slated Double Cone mixer
(D) Compaction Mill (4) Prosolv (JRS Pharma)
(5) PCF 1200 Model (Pharma Land)
A.A1 B2 C4 D3
B.A2 B3 C1 D4
C.A3 B1 C5 D2
D.A1 B2 C4 D3
Q 29 :
The split up of time cycle of cardiac cycle
A.Vs – 0.3 second, VD – 0.5 second, As – 0.1 second; AD – 0.7 second
B.Vs – 0.5 second, VD – 0.3 second, As – 0.7 second; AD – 0.1 second
C.Vs – 0.3 second, VD – 0.5 second, As – 0.5 second; AD – 0.3 second
D.Vs – 0.5 second, VD – 0.3 second, As – 0.3 second; AD – 0.5 second
Q 30 :
Match the following
(A) OPV vaccine (1) killed bacteria
(B) typhoid TAB vaccine (2) live bacteria
(C) Tetanus vaccine (3) killed virus
(D) BCG vaccine (4) live virus
(5) toxoid
A.A3 B5 C1 D2
B.A1 B2 C5 D3
C.A4 B1 C5 D2
D.A2 B3 C4 D1
Q 31 :
Haemophilia is caused due to reduction in the quantity or activity of which of the following clotting factors
A.Vitamin K
B.Clotting factor VIII
C.Clotting factor IV
D.Clotting factor IX
Q 32 :
Total number of facial bones in the human adult
A.1
B.7
C.14
D.21
Q 33 :
The part of prescription is that mean "take thou" is
A.Subscription
B.Inscriptio
C.Superscription
D.Signatura
Q 34 :
The size of AC was filled pores is _______ Angstrom
A.1 - 3
B.11 – 18
C.19 - 25
D.4 – 10
Q 35 :
Increase of solvents the following are examples of class1 Residual solvents that have been classified by ICH
A.Benzene, carbon tetrachloride and 1, 2 dichloroethane
B.Acetonitrile and cyclohexane and toluene
C.Methanol and n, n dimethyl acetamide
D.Acetic acid, acetone and ethanol
Q 36 :
The immunity acquired by inoculation of living organisms of Attenuated virulence is
A.Natural passive immunity
B.Passive immunity
C.Artificial Acquired Immunity
D.Natural Active Immunity
Q 37 :
The USP defines ______ as liquid preparations of vegetable drugs containing alcohol as a solvent or as a preservative, or both, so made that, unless otherwise specified in an individual monograph each ml contains the therapeutic constituents of 1 gm of the standard drug that it represents
A.Tinctures
B.Extracts
C.Infusions
D.Fluid extract
Q 38 :
Match the following
(A) Quinine (1) Borntrager's Test
(B) Digitoxin (2) Thalleoquin Test
(C) Atropine (3) Vitali Morin Test
(D) Sennosides (4) Keller- Kiliani Test
A.A2 B4 C3 D1
B.A3 B4 C2 D1
C.A1 B2 C3 D4
D.A4 B3 C2 D1
Q 39 :
Which of the following is not an intensive property ?
A.Concentration
B.Density
C.Pressure
D.Volume
Q 40 :
P - glycoprotein is highly expressed on the
A.Lungs
B.Pancreas
C.Superficial columnar epithelial cells of ileum and colon
D.Heart
Q 41 :
Desmethyl diazepam is an active metabolite having an elimination half - life of more than 40 hours of all thefollowing drugs except
A.Flurazepam
B.Chlordiazepoxide
C.Clorazepate
D.diazepam
Q 42 :
Class of enzymes which use oxygen as a hydrogen acceptor are known as
A.Dehydrogenases
B.Oxidases
C.Cytochromes
D.Nicotinamide coenzymes
Q 43 :
The system volume is increased when sheared is called
A.Dilatant flow
B.Newtonian flow
C.Plastic flow
D.Pseudo - plastic flow
Q 44 :
Which of the following method is used for the determination of osmotic pressure
A.Beckmann's method
B.Berkeley and Hartley's method
C.Cottrell's method
D.Landsberger's method
Q 45 :
Vigabatrin produces anti - epileptic activity through
A.Potentiating GABA mediated neuronal inhibition by depressing GABA Transporters
B.Modifying synaptic release of Glutamate/ GABA by binding to a specific Synaptic protein
C.Inhibiting GABA transaminase enzyme which degrades GABA
D.Potentiating postsynaptic GABA receptor effect
Q 46 :
For depot injections in which drug is slowly released over weeks or months which bioequivalence study design is used
A.Multiple Dose Study Design
B.Replicated Crossover Study Design
C.Non - Replicate Parallel Study Design
D.Randomised Crossover Design
Q 47 :
The artificial or synthetic seeds are prepared by the following process
A.Somatic Hybridization And Culture
B.Somatic Embryogenesis And Immobilization
C.Microprojectile And Transformation
D.Artificial Pollination And Embryogenesis
Q 48 :
To monitor the safety of the new drug under actual conditions of use in large number of patients has been classified as ________ clinical trials
A.Phase 3
B.Phase 2
C.Phase 4
D.Phase 1
Q 49 :
The phenomenon of increasing the solubility of weak electrolytes and nonpolar molecules by the addition ofa water miscible solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called
A.Complexation
B.Co-Solvency
C.Solubilization
D.Hydro Trophy
Q 50 :
Which one of the following is not a gene insertion technique into a Eukaryotic cell
A.electroporation
B.iontophoresis
C.shotgun Sequencing
D.microinjection
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Which one of the following plexuses is a part of the central nervous system in the brain and consists of capillaries, ventricles and ependymal cells ?
A.Celiac plexus
B.Choroid plexus
C.Cervical plexus
D.Brachial plexus
Q 52 :
Which one of the following is an unorganised drug ?
A.Rauwolfia root
B.Acacia gum
C.Senna leaves
D.Cinchona bark
Q 53 :
The value of R in energy of activation is
A.1.98 cal/deg.molecule
B.1.89 cal/deg.molecule
C.8.91 cal/deg.molecule
D.9.18 cal/deg.molecule
Q 54 :
Which of the following is false about HMP shunt
A.No ATP formation
B.Formation of NADPH
C.Synthesis of ribose 5 phosphate
D.Non oxidative phase of HMP pathway is Irreversible
Q 55 :
All the following can determine the protein structure except
A.mass spectrometry
B.x-ray crystallography
C.HPCL
D.NMR spectroscopy
Q 56 :
Match the following
(A) Brasses (1) copper tin alloy
(B) 18/8 stainless steel (2) rigid material
(C) keebush (3) chromium and Nickel
(D) bronzes (4) flexible material
(5) copper zinc alloys
A. A5 B3 C2 D1
B.A3 B2 C1 D5
C.A4 B2 C1 D3
D.A2 B4 B5 D3
Q 57 :
Match the following
(A) Guturri (1) into the left ear
(B) in oculumsinistram (2) into the right eye
(C) in Auremsinistram (3) for the left eye
(D) in oculumdextrum (4) to the throat
A.A4 B3 C1 D2
B.A2 B1 C4 D3
C.A3 B4 C1 D2
D.A1 B3 B2 D4
Q 58 :
The properties of a solution containing surface-active agents change sharply over a narrow concentration range and are called as
A.Critical micelle concentration
B.Ionic concentration
C.Hydrogen ion concentration
D.Surface tension
Q 59 :
Select the equation that gives the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet
A.Fick's law
B.Henderson - Hasselbalch equation
C.Noyes Whitney equation
D.Michaelis - Menten equation
Q 60 :
Which of the following statements is the correct description of product positioning ?
A.Selecting one or more segments to enter
B.Occupying a distinctive position in the mind of the customer
C.Identifying group of wires with a common need
D.Distinguishing the company's product from competitors' products
Q 61 :
Which of the following is a half reaction
A.Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu
B.H+ + OH → H2O
C.Ag+ + e → Ag
D.Ag + Cl → AgCl
Q 62 :
Which among the following nuclei can exhibit NMR spectrum
A.28SI
B.160
C.14C
D.14N
Q 63 :
In Mier's theory of supersaturation, the solubility chart displays the profile of curve with a positive and very low slope in
A.Potassium Nitrate
B.Sodium chloride
C.Manganese sulphate
D.None of the above
Q 64 :
One of the following apparatus is used to determine particle size by the gravity sedimentation method
A.Pycnometer
B.Ostwald's viscometer
C.Anderson apparatus
D.Friabilator
Q 65 :
In Gambier fluorescein test, the petroleum spirit layer shows
A.Green Fluorescence
B.Blue Fluorescence
C.Yellow Fluorescence
D.Red Fluorescence
Q 66 :
For solid oral drug products, a change in the concentration of which of the following excipients is more likely to influence the bioavailability of a drug
A.Starch
B.Magnesium Stearate
C.Microcrystalline Cellulose
D.Lactose
Q 67 :
Powers of drug inspectors appointed under the Drugs and Cosmetic Act 1940 are mentioned under which of the following sections of the act
A.20
B.21
C.22
D.23
Q 68 :
Which one of the following calcium channel blockers used as antianginal agents has the highest possibility to produce a Negative Ionotropic effect, AV nodal block, bradycardia, decreased cardiac output, constipation, edema, and is contraindicated in sick sinus syndrome
A.Nifedipine
B.Amlodipine
C.Diltiazem
D.Verapamil
Q 69 :
The hydrogen deficiency index for a compound with molecular formula C13H9N2O4BrS is
A.9
B.10
C.13
D.8
Q 70 :
A condition in which there is severe loss of extracellular fluid due to haemorrhage diarrhoea severe vomiting or sweating followed by shrinkage of blood volume reduction of Venice in flow into the heart reduction of cardiac output and fall of blood pressure is known as
A.hypovolemic shock
B.anaphylactic shock
C.septic shock
D.cardiogenic shock
Q 71 :
How many molecules of Acyl-CoA are produced in beta oxidation of palmitic acid
A.6
B.7
C.8
D.9
Q 72 :
Which is not a colligative property ?
A - depression of freezing point
B - elevation of boiling point
C - elevation of vapour pressure
D-Osmotic pressure
Choose the correct one of the following
A.A B and D
B.A and B
C.A and D
D.C only
Q 73 :
Application for the issue of a permit to import small quantities of drugs for personal use are shall be made in
A.Form 12
B.Form 12A
C.Form 12AA
D.Form 13
Q 74 :
Which one of the following alkaloid contains isoquinoline nucleus
A.Quinine
B.Hyoscyamine
C.Piperine
D.papaverine
Q 75 :
Which one of the following drugs that is not absorb orally, is not a bronchodilator, does not have any direct effects on smooth muscles, yet is effective in antigen and used exercise-induced and irritant induced asthma do not all thematic respond to it positively
A.Salbutamol
B.Montelukast
C.sodium cromoglycate
D.Terbutaline
Q 76 :
Given below are two statements one is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as reason (R)
Assertion - Quillaia tincture is included in potassium citrate mixture BPC
Reason - because quillaia tincture act as an emulgent in potassium citrate mixture BPC and prevent separation of lemon oil as a surface layer when the lemon spirit is added
In light of the above statement choose the most appropriate answers from the given options
A.Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B.Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C.Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
D.Assertion is not correct but reason is correct
Q 77 :
For weakly acidic drugs with pk> 8
A.They are an ionized at all ph, hence absorption is Rapid and independent of gastrointestinal ph
B.They are affected by changes in there are ionized in the gastric ph has better absorbed from the stomach and absorption is ph dependent
C.They are ionized in the entire ph range of the gastrointestinal tract and poorly absorbed from git
D.There ionized in the gastric ph Hence better absorbed from the stomach
Q 78 :
What will be the type of proton NMR spectrum of 2,2-dimethylpropane
A.Quartet
B.Doublet
C.Triplet
D.Singlet
Q 79 :
The wavelength at which the maximum absorption of radiation takes place is known as
A.βmax
B.αmax
C.Amax
D.λmax
Q 80 :
A 3-year-old child presented to OPD with the symptoms of Influenza. Aspirin is contraindicated in the patient because of increased risk of
A.Gastric bleeding
B.Thrombocytopenia
C.Fanconi syndrome
D.Reye's syndrome
Q 81 :
The total number of amino acids in human insulin (total number of amino acids in a and b chain)
A.51
B.84
C.32
D.8
Q 82 :
Which of the following is a wrongly matched combination of antiarrhythmic drugs and their class ?
A.Iidocaine - IB
B.Disopyramide - II
C.Diltiazem - IV
D.Amiodarone - III
Q 83 :
The purpose of the seal coating step of sugar coating is
A.Gives a smooth surface to the tablet
B.Enhances weight of the tablet for coating
C.Gives sweet taste to the tablet
D.Prevents moisture penetration into the tablet
Q 84 :
The dehydration of aldol product of two acetaldehyde molecules through E1cb mechanism affords the formation of
A.1-Butenal
B.2 - Butenal
C.3-Butenal
D.4-Butenal
Q 85 :
In healing of excised wound, there is
A.Less tissue loss
B.Less inflammatory exudates
C.Less necrotic tissue to be removed
D.More granulation tissue is required
Q 86 :
Hypertensive patient Mr. Zee already receiving a drug X to control his blood pressure was prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant. This resulted in the abolition of the antihypertensive action of X.
Which of the following drug could be X
A.Enalapril
B.Clonidine
C.Atenolol
D.Diltiazem
Q 87 :
differential manometer has advantage over a simple manometer
A.Handling is simple
B.It can measure small pressure differences
C.Viscosity can be determined along with pressure difference
D.It is used when pressure difference is high
Q 88 :
A compound gives two fragments in a mass spectrometer C19H7N+ and C19H50+. Two separate peaks are due to these fragments, the instrument should have a resolution of
A.They cannot be separated
B.2.417 x 10 − 2
C.3.402 x 10 − 2
D.1.042 x 10 − 2
Q 89 :
Substitution constant for metabenzoic acid is denoted by
A.σm
B.รฐยโบโm
C.pKa(H)
D.pHm
Q 90 :
Which of the following is non epithelial malignancy tumor
A.Naevus
B.Adenoma
C.Lipoma
D.Fibrosarcoma
Q 91 :
Silver nitrate reagent is used for limit test in Indian Pharmacopoeia for
A.Lead
B.Iron
C.Chloride
D.Mercury
Q 92 :
This compound 2,5, 8, 11, 14, 17, 20, 23, 26-Nona-oxaoctacosan-28-yl p –
(butylamino) Benzoate is usually known for its ........... activity
A.Antifungal
B.Antitussive
C.vitamin
D.glucocorticoid
Q 93 :
The total number of possible stereoisomers for 3 bromo 2- butanol are
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Q 94 :
Light directed synthesis on silica Wafers is a part of
A.bulk synthesis
B.combinatorial synthesis
C.asymmetric synthesis
D.inorganic synthesis
Q 95 :
Which among the following drugs on standing in aqua solution can dimerize to 2, 5 bis (Aminoxy methyl) 3,6 Diketopiperazine
A.pyrazinamide
B.Ethionamide
C.diethylcarbamazine
D.cycloserine
Q 96 :
Wheal and flare reaction is characteristic reaction associated with identification of
A.Type 1 hypersensitive reaction
B.Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
C.type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
D.type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
Q 97 :
Which among the following statement is correct with respect to their mechanism of action
Prostaglandin analogues have therapeutic utility in the following except
A.impotence
B.peripheral vascular disease
C.palliative treatment of patent ductus arteriousus
D.pulmonary hypertension
Q 99 :
The immunosuppressant action of cyclosporine is due to
A.interference with antigen recognition
B.inhibition of gene transcription of interleukins
C.blockade of tissue response to inflammation
D.inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Q 100 :
Match the following
(A) Lactose (1) 2 – 4 percent of moisture
(B) mannitol (2) maillard reaction
(C) calcium phosphate (3) negative heat of solution
(D) specially dried starch (4) contraindicated for tetracycline
A.A3 B4 C1 D2
B.A2 B4 C1 D3
C.A3 B1 C4 D2
D.A2 B3 C4 D1
Q 101 :
Mixed micelles of lipids with bile acids lipids soluble vitamins are absorbed by
A.pancreatic lipase
B.apolipoproteins
C.enterocytes
D.chylomicrons
Q 102 :
A diuretic compound cyclothiazide has a substituent at C-3 of 1, 2, 4-benzothiazine nucleus
A.5-Bornen-2-yl
B.5-NorBornen-2-yl
C.2-Bornen-5-yl
D.2-NorBornen-5yl
Q 103 :
Conversion of T4 to T3 inhibition is associated with
A.Propylthiouracil
B.Radioactive iodine
C.Lugol's iodine
D.Carbimazole
Q 104 :
Which among the following is not a calibration parameters for UV visible spectrophotometer
A. Control of wavelength
B. control of Absorbances
C. Resolution
D. control of transmitted radiation
E. Spectral slit width
A.A, B and D only
B.A, B, C and E
C.A, B and C only
D.A and B only
Q 105 :
Which of the following ointment bases is an ingredient of an absorption base
A.Petrolatum
B.Lanolin
C.Hydrogenated castor oil
D.Cetyl alcohol
Q 106 :
4 membered fully saturated heterocycle containing one oxygen is called
A.Oxiren
B.Oxirane
C.Oxet
D.Oxetane
Q 107 :
Which among the following cations has the lowest molar ionic conductivity in water at infinite dilution and at 25 degree centigrade
A.Hydrogen ion
B.Lithium ion
C.Sodium ion
D.Silver ion
Q 108 :
The absorption Maxima of ephedrine hydrochloride and chlorophyll resolve are 257 animator and 279 nm respectively and A(1% 1 cm) values in 0.1 molar HCL solution are 9.0 and 0 for ephedrine hydrochloride at 257 nm and 279 mm respectively for it is 20.0 and 10 5.0 at 257 nm and 279 nm respectively calculate the concentration of ephedrine hydrochloride in a batch of ephedrine hydrochloride injection diluted 1 to 25 with water giving the observance in 1 cm cell of 0.424 at 279 nm and 0.972 at 257 nm
A.1.010 mg/ml
B.6.25 mg/ml
C.12.5 mg/ml
D.24.75 mg/ml
Q 109 :
Formation of pyanose structure from glucose leads to formation of diastereoisomers called
A.Anomers
B.epimers
C.tautomers
D.metamers
Q 110 :
Which of the following is orally active testosterone derivative having progestational activity
A.Oxymesterone
B.dihydro
C.Ethisterone
D.Nomegesterol
Q 111 :
Match the following
(A) Schedule M (1) regulations regarding life period and storage of various drugs
(B) Schedule FF (2) regulations for manufacturing premises waste disposal requirements of plant and equipment (GMP)
(C) Schedule G (3) various drugs to be used under medical supervision
(D) Schedule P (4) standard for ophthalmic preparation
A.A1 B2 C3 D4
B.A2 B4 C3 D1
C.A4 B2 C3 D1
D.A3 B1 C2 D4
Q 112 :
For 1, 3 butadiene there are ________ molecular orbitals for Pi electrons
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Q 113 :
Which of the following drugs can be imported without a licence
A.drugs specified in Schedule H
B.drugs specified in schedule X
C.drugs in schedule C1 required for manufacturing and not for medicinal use
D.drugs in schedule C required for manufacturing and for medicinal use
Q 114 :
Which of the following product lifecycle phase is it is indicated by market saturation in the sense that all the potential customers have bought the product except those who have decided not to have it.
A.growth phase
B.intorductory phase
C.decline phase
D.maturity phase
Q 115 :
Name the popular system for ocular delivery of pilocarpine based on membrane control Reservoir systems
A.Ocusert
B.alzet pump
C.progestasert
D.nitroDur
Q 116 :
Pyridine on hydrogenation in presence of platinum at 25 degree Celsius and 3 ATM pressure gives
A.Piperdine
B.2, 3 dihydropyridine
C.pyrazine
D.3, 4 dihydropyridine
Q 117 :
Glucose upon treatment with nitric acid yields
A.gluconic acid
B.aglucaric acid
C.glucitol
D.heptanoic acid
Q 118 :
Preservatives are usually not added to
A.small volume parenterals
B.large volume parenterals
C.all parenterals
D.bacteriostatic water for injection
Q 119 :
Formaldehyde undergoes Grignard reaction to give
A.primary alcohol
B.secondary alcohol
C.tertiary alcohol
D.quaternary alcohol
Q 120 :
When one of the reactants is present in such great excess that its concentration may be considered constant or nearly so the reaction is said to be of
A.second order
B.pseudo order
C.zero-order
D.third order
Q 121 :
One of the following functional group makes benzoic acid weaker
A.nitro group
B.hydroxy group
C.chloro group
D.acetyl group
Q 122 :
The relationship between the vapour pressure and the Absolute Temperature of a liquid is expressed by
A.Biles equation
B.Lien and Kennon Equation
C.Joule-Thomson Equation
D.Clausius-Clapeyron Equation
Q 123 :
The effect of activation or deactivation of an incoming function group to an aromatic compound is strongest at
A.Only Ortho position
B.only Meta position
C.only para position
D.only Ortho and para positions
Q 124 :
Chitosan possesses which of the following property
