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Latest GPSC Civil Service Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies
Question Bank GPSC Civil Service Prelims Exam Paper 1 - English
General Studies
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 17 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 18 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 19 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 20 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 21 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 22 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 23 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 24 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 25 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 26 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 27 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 28 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 29 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 30 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 31 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 32 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 33 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 34 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 35 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 36 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 37 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 38 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 39 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 40 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 41 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 42 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 43 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 44 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 45 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Q 46 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A.4%
B.3%
C.1%
D.None of these
Q 47 :
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A á´– (A á´— B) equal to ?
A.Complement of A
B.Complement of B
C.B
D.A
Q 48 :
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.25%
Q 49 :
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A.25%
B.100%
C.75%
D.0%
Q 50 :
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A.15
B.25
C.40
D.75
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GPSC Civil Service Prelims Exam Paper 1 Question Bank Book - English
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A.BARC
B.ISRO
C.DRDO
D.HAL
Q 53 :
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A.1975
B.1965
C.1980
D.1990
Q 54 :
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A.INSAT-1A
B.Aryabhata
C.Rohini
D.Bhaskara
Q 55 :
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A.Dhruva
B.Kamini
C.Apsara
D.Kalpakkam
Q 56 :
Which Indian space mission successfully sent a probe to Mars in its first attempt?
A.Chandrayaan-1
B.Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission)
C.Chandrayaan-2
D.Gaganyaan
Q 57 :
What was India’s first nuclear test code-named?
A.Operation Shakti
B.Pokhran-I
C.Operation Smiling Buddha
D.Operation Parakram
Q 58 :
Who is considered the father of the Indian space program?
A.APJ Abdul Kalam
B.Homi Bhabha
C.Vikram Sarabhai
D.Satish Dhawan
Q 59 :
What is the name of India's first supercomputer?
A.Param 8000
B.Vikram 2000
C.Aditya
D.Aryabhata
Q 60 :
The first Indian satellite to be placed in geosynchronous orbit is:
A.GSAT-1
B.Rohini
C.INSAT-1A
D.Aryabhata
Q 61 :
Which Indian space mission discovered water on the Moon?
A.Chandrayaan-1
B.Mangalyaan
C.Astrosat
D.Chandrayaan-2
Q 62 :
Which organization in India is responsible for developing defense technologies?
A.ISRO
B.DRDO
C.BARC
D.CSIR
Q 63 :
In which year did India launch its first Moon mission, Chandrayaan-1?
A.2005
B.2008
C.2011
D.2014
Q 64 :
Which Indian space mission aimed to land a rover on the Moon’s surface?
A.Chandrayaan-1
B.Mangalyaan
C.Chandrayaan-2
D.Gaganyaan
Q 65 :
India's first indigenous aircraft carrier is named:
A.INS Viraat
B.INS Vikrant
C.INS Shakti
D.INS Sahyadri
Q 66 :
Which organization developed the Prithvi series of ballistic missiles?
A.ISRO
B.DRDO
C.HAL
D.CSIR
Q 67 :
What is the name of India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory?
A.Astrosat
B.INSAT-4
C.GSAT-4
D.RISAT
Q 68 :
Which city is home to the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC)?
A.Mumbai
B.Bengaluru
C.Hyderabad
D.Thiruvananthapuram
Q 69 :
What was the first communication satellite launched by ISRO?
A.INSAT-1A
B.GSAT-1
C.Aryabhata
D.Rohini
Q 70 :
What is the full form of DRDO?
A.Defence Research and Development Organisation
B.Digital Research and Development Organisation
C.Department of Research and Defence Operations
D.Directorate of Regional Development Office
Q 71 :
Which Indian satellite system is responsible for providing regional navigation services?
A.GAGAN
B.IRNSS
C.GSAT
D.NavIC
Q 72 :
Which missile is part of India’s Agni series?
A.Agni-IV
B.Nirbhay
C.BrahMos
D.Prithvi
Q 73 :
What is the name of India's first interplanetary mission?
A.Chandrayaan-1
B.Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission)
C.Astrosat
D.Gaganyaan
Q 74 :
Which Indian institute developed the Param series of supercomputers?
A.ISRO
B.DRDO
C.C-DAC
D.IIT
Q 75 :
India's first human space mission, scheduled for 2024, is named:
A.Mangalyaan-2
B.Chandrayaan-3
C.Gaganyaan
D.Astrosat-2
Q 76 :
Which awareness campaign often starts on January 1, encouraging plant-based eating?
A.Dry January
B.Veganuary
C.Movember
D.Pink October
Q 77 :
As of January 1, 2026, how does the Gregorian calendar describe the year 2026?
A.Leap year starting on Wednesday
B.Common year starting on Thursday
C.Leap year starting on Friday
D.Common year starting on Saturday
Q 78 :
Which campaign encouraging alcohol abstinence starts annually on January 1?
A.Veganuary
B.Dry January
C.Stoptober
D.No-Shave November
Q 79 :
In skywatching for January 2026, which planet was highlighted alongside the Wolf Moon and meteor showers?
A.Mars
B.Venus
C.Jupiter
D.Saturn
Q 80 :
Which global health organization was the U.S. scheduled to officially leave in January 2026?
A.WHO
B.UNICEF
C.WTO
D.IMF
Q 81 :
What major trade change for Indian exports to Australia began in 2026?
A.Higher tariffs
B.Zero customs duties on all lines
C.Quotas imposed
D.Bans on certain goods
Q 82 :
Which Middle Eastern city in Qatar hosted fireworks in its Lusail district for 2026?
A.Doha
B.Dubai
C.Abu Dhabi
D.Riyadh
Q 83 :
On January 1, 2026, many countries observed which restricted or public holiday?
A.Christmas
B.New Year's Day
C.Easter
D.Diwali
Q 84 :
Which city in Japan featured projection mapping on its government building for New Year 2026?
A.Osaka
B.Kyoto
C.Tokyo
D.Hiroshima
Q 85 :
What celestial event, like the Quadrantid meteor shower, peaks in early January?
A.Perseids
B.Quadrantids
C.Leonids
D.Geminids
Q 86 :
Which U.S. holiday is observed on January 1 if it falls on a weekday?
A.Martin Luther King Jr. Day
B.New Year's Day
C.Presidents' Day
D.Independence Day
Q 87 :
In 2026, which rugby championship was set to kick off on January 31?
A.Rugby World Cup
B.Super Rugby
C.Rugby Championship
D.Six Nations
Q 88 :
Which country adopted the euro as its official currency on January 1, 2026, becoming the 21st member of the eurozone?
A.Romania
B.Bulgaria
C.Croatia
D.Sweden
Q 89 :
What major New Year tradition occurred at Copacabana Beach on January 1, 2026?
A.Lantern Festival
B.Fireworks and beach parties
C.Polar Bear Plunge
D.Parade
Q 90 :
Which country scheduled a presidential election for January 18, 2026?
A.Portugal
B.Costa Rica
C.Myanmar
D.Benin
Q 91 :
In which city did Big Ben's chimes usher in 2026 for UTC time zones?
A.Edinburgh
B.London
C.Dublin
D.Manchester
Q 92 :
Which global event concluded its extended period on January 6, 2026?
A.Paris Olympics
B.2025 Jubilee
C.COP30
D.FIFA World Cup
Q 93 :
What is the common name for the full moon that peaked around early January 2026?
A.Snow Moon
B.Wolf Moon
C.Harvest Moon
D.Blue Moon
Q 94 :
Which European country began its presidency of the Council of the European Union on January 1, 2026?
A.Cyprus
B.Hungary
C.Poland
D.Denmark
Q 95 :
On January 1, 2026, which river in Bangkok saw fireworks displays for New Year celebrations?
A.Mekong River
B.Chao Phraya River
C.Irrawaddy River
D.Yangtze River
Q 96 :
Which city projected a video mapping light show onto the Arc de Triomphe for New Year's 2026?
A.Rome
B.Paris
C.Berlin
D.Madrid
Q 97 :
What major event began on January 1, 2026, in the sporting world, particularly in tennis?
A.French Open
B.Wimbledon
C.Australian Open
D.US Open
Q 98 :
Which iconic building in Dubai hosted a major fireworks display for New Year's 2026 celebrations?
A.Emirates Towers
B.Burj Khalifa
C.Burj Al Arab
D.Etihad Towers
Q 99 :
In which city did fireworks explode over the Sydney Harbour Bridge to mark the arrival of 2026, despite heightened security?
A.Melbourne
B.Brisbane
C.Sydney
D.Perth
Q 100 :
Which Pacific island nation was among the first to welcome the New Year 2026 due to its time zone?
A.Fiji
B.Tonga
C.Kiribati
D.Samoa
Q 101 :
Which Indus Valley site is famous for its dockyard?
A.Harappa
B.Mohenjo-daro
C.Lothal
D.Kalibangan
Q 102 :
The Great Bath, a remarkable structure of the Indus Valley Civilisation, was discovered at:
A.Harappa
B.Mohenjo-daro
C.Lothal
D.Dholavira
Q 103 :
The script of the Indus Valley Civilisation is:
A.Brahmi
B.Kharosthi
C.Pictographic and Undeciphered
D.Sanskrit
Q 104 :
Which metal was NOT known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
A.Copper
B.Bronze
C.Gold
D.Iron
Q 105 :
The figure of a deity, often identified as 'Pashupati Mahadeva', is depicted on seals found at Indus Valley sites. Which animals are typically shown surrounding the deity?
A.Lion, Horse, Bull, Elephant
B.Elephant, Tiger, Rhinoceros, Buffalo
C.Cow, Deer, Goat, Tiger
D.Horse, Bear, Wolf, Rhinoceros
Q 106 :
Which Indus Valley site in Gujarat is known for its unique water management system and a large inscription often referred to as a signboard?
A.Lothal
B.Surkotada
C.Rangpur
D.Dholavira
Q 107 :
Evidence of ploughed fields has been found at which Indus Valley site?
A.Mohenjo-daro
B.Chanhudaro
C.Kalibangan
D.Banawali
Q 108 :
The Indus Valley people primarily worshipped:
A.Forces of Nature
B.Trimurti (Brahma, Vishnu, Shiva)
C.Mother Goddess and Pashupati
D.Agni and Indra
Q 109 :
What was the most common building material used in Harappan cities?
A.Stone
B.Wood
C.Baked Bricks
D.Mud Bricks
Q 110 :
The famous bronze statue of the 'Dancing Girl' was excavated from:
A.Harappa
B.Lothal
C.Mohenjo-daro
D.Kalibangan
Q 111 :
The earliest Veda, containing hymns primarily dedicated to nature gods, is:
A.Samaveda
B.Yajurveda
C.Atharvaveda
D.Rigveda
Q 112 :
The term 'Sabha' and 'Samiti' in the Rigvedic period refer to:
A.Types of sacrifices
B.Two important rivers
C.Popular assemblies
D.Classes of priests
Q 113 :
Which statement best describes the economy of the Early Vedic (Rigvedic) period?
A.Primarily agricultural with extensive trade networks
B.Primarily pastoral and nomadic, with subsidiary agriculture
C.Urban-based trade and crafts dominated
D.Based solely on hunting and gathering
Q 114 :
The Upanishads are primarily texts dealing with:
A.Ritualistic procedures
B.Laws of social conduct
C.Philosophical and metaphysical speculation
D.Hymns and chants
Q 115 :
The Later Vedic period saw the shift of the geographical focus of Aryan culture from the Sapta Sindhu region to the:
A.Ganga-Yamuna Doab
B.Deccan Plateau
C.Malwa Plateau
D.Southern Peninsula
Q 116 :
Which God lost his prominence from the Rigvedic to the Later Vedic period?
A.Prajapati
B.Vishnu
C.Rudra (Shiva)
D.Indra
Q 117 :
The term 'Gotra', which emerged prominently in the Later Vedic period, signifies:
A.A unit of currency
B.A territorial division
C.Lineage or clan descending from a common ancestor
D.A type of sacrifice
Q 118 :
The 'Gayatri Mantra' is contained in which Veda?
A.Samaveda
B.Yajurveda
C.Atharvaveda
D.Rigveda
Q 119 :
The concept of 'Ashramas' (stages of life - Brahmacharya, Grihastha, Vanaprastha, Sanyasa) fully developed during the:
A.Early Rigvedic Period
B.Later Vedic Period
C.Mauryan Period
D.Gupta Period
Q 120 :
According to Jain tradition, who was the first Tirthankara?
A.Parshvanatha
B.Mahavira
C.Rishabhanatha (Adinatha)
D.Neminatha
Q 121 :
Vardhamana Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara, was born at:
A.Pataliputra
B.Vaishali (Kundagrama)
C.Rajagriha
D.Sarnath
Q 122 :
The Varna system, with its four divisions (Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya, Shudra), is first mentioned explicitly in the:
A.Rigveda's early hymns
B.Upanishads
C.Purusha Sukta of the Rigveda (later addition)
D.Aranyakas
Q 123 :
The core principle of Jainism emphasizing non-violence is known as:
A.Satya (Truthfulness)
B.Asteya (Non-stealing)
C.Aparigraha (Non-possession)
D.Ahimsa (Non-violence)
Q 124 :
The Jain philosophy of 'Anekantavada' refers to the principle of:
A.Extreme austerity
B.Non-belief in God
C.Manifold nature of reality / Pluralism
D.Attainment of liberation
Q 125 :
The two major sects of Jainism, Digambara and Svetambara, formally emerged after the:
A.First Jain Council at Pataliputra
B.Second Jain Council at Vallabhi
C.Death of Mahavira
D.Reign of Chandragupta Maurya
Q 126 :
The concept of 'Rule of Law' is a feature of which constitution?
A.American Constitution
B.British Constitution
C.French Constitution
D.Canadian Constitution
Q 127 :
The idea of 'Fundamental Duties' was incorporated in the Indian Constitution from which country?
A.USA
B.UK
C.USSR (now Russia)
D.Ireland
Q 128 :
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the 'Fundamental Rights'?
A.Part II
B.Part III
C.Part IV
D.Part IVA
Q 129 :
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' are mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?
A.Part II
B.Part III
C.Part IV
D.Part IVA
Q 130 :
The 'Basic Structure' doctrine of the Indian Constitution was propounded in which case?
A.Golak Nath Case
B.Minerva Mills Case
C.Kesavananda Bharati Case
D.A.K. Gopalan Case
Q 131 :
Which amendment to the Indian Constitution added the 'Fundamental Duties'?
A.42nd Amendment
B.44th Amendment
C.73rd Amendment
D.86th Amendment
Q 132 :
The 'Concurrent List' in the Indian Constitution is derived from which country?
A.Canada
B.Australia
C.Ireland
D.USA
Q 133 :
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the 'President's Rule'?
A.Article 352
B.Article 356
C.Article 360
D.Article 368
Q 134 :
The 'Emergency Provisions' in the Indian Constitution are taken from which country?
A.Germany (Weimar Constitution)
B.Canada
C.Australia
D.Ireland
Q 135 :
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Amendment of the Constitution'?
A.Article 352
B.Article 356
C.Article 360
D.Article 368
Q 136 :
The 'Preamble' of the Indian Constitution is based on which resolution?
A.Government of India Act, 1935
B.Cripps Mission
C.Objectives Resolution
D.Cabinet Mission Plan
Q 137 :
Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Languages'?
A.7th Schedule
B.8th Schedule
C.9th Schedule
D.10th Schedule
Q 138 :
The 'Right to Education' was added to the Fundamental Rights through which amendment?
A.42nd Amendment
B.44th Amendment
C.73rd Amendment
D.86th Amendment
Q 139 :
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Equality before Law'?
A.Article 14
B.Article 19
C.Article 21
D.Article 32
Q 140 :
The 'Federal Structure' of India is based on which model?
A.American Model
B.British Model
C.Canadian Model
D.Swiss Model
Q 141 :
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Protection of life and personal liberty'?
A.Article 14
B.Article 19
C.Article 21
D.Article 32
Q 142 :
The 'Rajya Sabha' is a?
A.Temporary House
B.Permanent House
C.People's House
D.None of the above
Q 143 :
The 'Lok Sabha' is a?
A.Permanent House
B.Temporary House
C.House of Elders
D.None of the above
Q 144 :
Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Panchayats'?
A.9th Schedule
B.10th Schedule
C.11th Schedule
D.12th Schedule
Q 145 :
Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Municipalities'?
A.9th Schedule
B.10th Schedule
C.11th Schedule
D.12th Schedule
Q 146 :
The 'Right to Property' was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by which amendment?
A.42nd Amendment
B.44th Amendment
C.73rd Amendment
D.86th Amendment
Q 147 :
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the 'Election Commission'?
A.Article 324
B.Article 330
C.Article 338
D.Article 343
Q 148 :
The 'Single Citizenship' provision in the Indian Constitution is taken from which country?
A.USA
B.UK
C.Canada
D.Australia
Q 149 :
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Official Language'?
A.Article 324
B.Article 330
C.Article 338
D.Article 343
Q 150 :
The 'Judicial Review' provision in the Indian Constitution is taken from which country?
A.UK
B.Canada
C.USA
D.Australia
Q 151 :
What is the term for the total value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders in a given period?
A.GNP
B.GDP
C.NNP
D.DPI
Q 152 :
What is the primary function of a central bank?
A.Lending to individuals
B.Regulating the money supply
C.Selling stocks
D.Managing retail stores
Q 153 :
What is fiscal policy?
A.Policy related to interest rates
B.Policy related to government spending and taxation
C.Policy related to foreign exchange
D.Policy related to stock markets
Q 154 :
What is the term for a market structure with a single seller?
A.Oligopoly
B.Monopoly
C.Perfect competition
D.Monopolistic competition
Q 155 :
What is the term for the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed?
A.Inflation rate
B.Unemployment rate
C.Interest rate
D.Exchange rate
Q 156 :
What does CPI measure?
A.Corporate profit index
B.Consumer price index
C.Capital productivity index
D.Commercial performance index
Q 157 :
What is the term for the total revenue minus total cost?
A.Income
B.Profit
C.Expenditure
D.Investment
Q 158 :
What is the term for the study of how individuals and societies make decisions about scarce resources?
A.Sociology
B.Economics
C.Political science
D.Psychology
Q 159 :
What is the term for goods used in the production of other goods?
A.Consumer goods
B.Capital goods
C.Luxury goods
D.Public goods
Q 160 :
What is the term for the increase in the value of goods and services produced by an economy over time?
A.Inflation
B.Economic growth
C.Deflation
D.Recession
Q 161 :
What is the term for the market where money is lent and borrowed?
A.Stock market
B.Bond market
C.Money market
D.Commodity market
Q 162 :
What is the term for the total amount of money in circulation in an economy?
A.GDP
B.Money supply
C.Inflation
D.Interest rates
Q 163 :
What is the term for a period of significant decline in economic activity?
A.Inflation
B.Recession
C.Expansion
D.Recovery
Q 164 :
What is the term for the value of all final goods and services produced by a nation's citizens, regardless of where they are located?
A.GDP
B.GNP
C.NNP
D.DPI
Q 165 :
What is the term for the direct exchange of goods or services without using money?
A.Trade
B.Barter
C.Commerce
D.Finance
Q 166 :
What is the term for the ability of a good or service to satisfy a want?
A.Demand
B.Supply
C.Utility
D.Elasticity
Q 167 :
What is the term for the quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to purchase at a given price?
A.Supply
B.Demand
C.Equilibrium
D.Elasticity
Q 168 :
What is the term for the quantity of a good or service that producers are willing and able to offer for sale at a given price?
A.Demand
B.Supply
C.Equilibrium
D.Elasticity
Q 169 :
What is the term for the point where supply and demand are equal?
A.Elasticity
B.Demand
C.Supply
D.Equilibrium
Q 170 :
What is the term for the responsiveness of quantity demanded or supplied to a change in price?
A.Utility
B.Elasticity
C.Demand
D.Supply
Q 171 :
What is the term for the cost of producing one more unit of a good or service?
A.Total cost
B.Marginal cost
C.Average cost
D.Fixed cost
Q 172 :
What is the term for the additional satisfaction gained from consuming one more unit of a good or service?
A.Total utility
B.Marginal utility
C.Average utility
D.Fixed utility
Q 173 :
What is the term for a market structure with a small number of large firms?
A.Monopoly
B.Oligopoly
C.Perfect competition
D.Monopolistic competition
Q 174 :
What is the term for a market structure with many sellers offering slightly differentiated products?
A.Monopoly
B.Oligopoly
C.Perfect competition
D.Monopolistic competition
Q 175 :
What is the term for a market structure with many sellers offering identical products?
A.Monopoly
B.Oligopoly
C.Perfect competition
D.Monopolistic competition
Q 176 :
What is the largest object in our solar system?
A.Earth
B.Moon
C.Sun
D.Jupiter
Q 177 :
Which motion of the Earth causes day and night?
A.Revolution
B.Rotation
C.Precession
D.Nutation
Q 178 :
What is the Earth's path around the Sun called?
A.Axis
B.Orbit
C.Equator
D.Meridian
Q 179 :
What is the standard time based on?
A.Local time
B.Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)
C.Solar time
D.Sidereal time
Q 180 :
What causes the seasons on Earth?
A.Earth's rotation
B.Earth's revolution and axial tilt
C.Solar flares
D.Lunar phases
Q 181 :
What is the Earth's innermost layer called?
A.Crust
B.Mantle
C.Core
D.Lithosphere
Q 182 :
Which of the following is a major landform?
A.Valley
B.Mountain
C.Plateau
D.All of the above
Q 183 :
What is the term for the average weather conditions in a region over a long period?
A.Weather
B.Climate
C.Meteorology
D.Hydrology
Q 184 :
What are large bodies of air with uniform temperature and humidity called?
A.Fronts
B.Air masses
C.Cyclones
D.Anticyclones
Q 185 :
What is the boundary between two air masses called?
A.Cyclone
B.Front
C.Anticyclone
D.Isotherm
Q 186 :
Which atmospheric disturbance is characterized by low pressure and strong winds?
A.Anticyclone
B.Cyclone
C.Front
D.Isotherm
Q 187 :
What is the long-term change in global or regional climate patterns called?
A.Weather variation
B.Climate change
C.Atmospheric disturbance
D.Hydrological cycle
Q 188 :
What is the term for the study of the physical, chemical, and biological aspects of the oceans?
A.Geology
B.Oceanography
C.Meteorology
D.Hydrology
Q 189 :
What is the term for the continuous movement of water on, above, and below the surface of the Earth?
A.Water cycle
B.Hydrological cycle
C.Ocean currents
D.Evaporation
Q 190 :
Which of the following is a hydrological disaster?
A.Earthquake
B.Flood
C.Volcano
D.Landslide
Q 191 :
What are resources found on the ocean floor called?
A.Continental resources
B.Marine resources
C.Terrestrial resources
D.Atmospheric resources
Q 192 :
What is the term for the Earth's solid outer layer?
A.Atmosphere
B.Lithosphere
C.Hydrosphere
D.Biosphere
Q 193 :
What is the term for the Earth's water bodies?
A.Atmosphere
B.Lithosphere
C.Hydrosphere
D.Biosphere
Q 194 :
What is the term for the Earth's gaseous layer?
A.Atmosphere
B.Lithosphere
C.Hydrosphere
D.Biosphere
Q 195 :
Which gas is essential for combustion?
A.Nitrogen
B.Oxygen
C.Carbon dioxide
D.Argon
Q 196 :
What is the term for the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves?
A.Conduction
B.Convection
C.Radiation
D.Advection
Q 197 :
What is the term for the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids?
A.Conduction
B.Convection
C.Radiation
D.Advection
Q 198 :
What is the term for the transfer of heat through direct contact?
A.Conduction
B.Convection
C.Radiation
D.Advection
Q 199 :
What is the term for the horizontal movement of air?
A.Conduction
B.Convection
C.Radiation
D.Advection
Q 200 :
Which of the following is a major factor influencing climate?
