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Latest GPSC Engineering Services Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Concerned Subject (Civil)

Question Bank GPSC Engineering Services Prelims Exam Paper 2 - English
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Concerned Subject (Civil)

Question 1Single Answer
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
  1. A
    Maximum daily demand 
  2. B
    Maximum hourly demand and fire demand 
  3. C
    Average demand 
  4. D
    Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 2Single Answer
 A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
  1. A
    Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year 
  2. B
    Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year 
  3. C
    Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year 
  4. D
    Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days 
Question 3Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
  1. A
    40.5m3
  2. B
    50m3
  3. C
    75m3
  4. D
    94.7m3
Question 4Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
  1. A
    Flow rate through the tank 
  2. B
    Diameter of the particle intended to be removed 
  3. C
    Volume of the sedimentation tank 
  4. D
    Detention time in the tank
Question 5Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant : 
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D
    3 and 4 only   
Question 6Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
  1. A
    3.6 mg/l
  2. B
    13.6 mg/l
  3. C
    33.6 mg/l
  4. D
    53.6 mg/l
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.  
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B
    3 and 4 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 8Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when 
  1. A
    the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0  
  2. B
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero 
  3. C
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil 
  4. D
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil 
Question 9Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
  1. A
    5 m2
  2. B
    25 m2
  3. C
    10 m2
  4. D
    20 m2 
Question 10Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C
    3 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2 and 4 only
Question 11Single Answer
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank 
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1 and 2
  2. B
    1 and 3
  3. C
    3 and 4
  4. D
    1 and 4
Question 12Single Answer
Sewage sickness relates to 
  1. A
    Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment 
  2. B
    Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage 
  3. C
    reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil 
  4. D
    Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
Question 13Single Answer
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
  1. A
    8.6 
  2. B
    7.9 
  3. C
    5.4 
  4. D
    4.5 
Question 14Single Answer
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  2. B
    3 and 4 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 15Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C
    3 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 16Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ? 
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 4 only
  3. C
    2 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 3 only
Question 17Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
 2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 18Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
  1. A
    Methane and Hydrogen
  2. B
    Hydrogen Sulphide
  3. C
    Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
  4. D
    Ammonia
Question 19Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
  1. A
    Excessive burning of bricks
  2. B
    High silt content in brick clay
  3. C
    High porosity of bricks
  4. D
    Soluble salts present in parent clay
Question 20Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick  
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 21Single Answer
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    Both 1 and 2
  4. D
    Neither 1 nor 2
Question 23Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
  1. A
    Tricalcium silicate
  2. B
    Dicalcium silicate
  3. C
    Tricalcium aluminate
  4. D
    Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 24Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 4 only
Question 25Single Answer
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
  1. A
    3.00
  2. B
    3.45
  3. C
    4.50
  4. D
    6.00
Question 26Single Answer
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
  1. A
    Sprinkling water
  2. B
    Membrane curing
  3. C
    High-pressure steam curing
  4. D
    Infrared radiation curing
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following is appropriate as  simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
  1. A
    Compacting factor
  2. B
    Slump test
  3. C
    Vee-Bee test
  4. D
    Kelly Ball test
Question 28Single Answer
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 29Single Answer
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    3 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Question 30Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 3 only
Question 31Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 32Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    2 and 3 only
  2. B
    2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 4 only
Question 33Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 2 only
  2. B
    2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1 and 3 only
  4. D
    3 and 4 only
Question 34Single Answer
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 3 only
Question 35Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    2 and 3 only
  3. C
    1 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 4 only
Question 36Single Answer
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    2, 3 and 4 only
Question 37Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 4 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    2 and 4 only
Question 38Single Answer
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
  1. A
    100.6 N/mm2
  2. B
    120.4 N/mm2
  3. C
    140.2 N/mm2
  4. D
    160.0 N/mm2
Question 39Single Answer
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
  1. A
    Annealing effect
  2. B
    Bauschinger effect
  3. C
    Strain rate effect
  4. D
    Fatigue effect
Question 40Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 only
  3. C
    2 only
  4. D
    3 only
Question 41Single Answer
The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm4. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm2. The safe concentrated load at the free end would be
  1. A
    100 N
  2. B
    200 N
  3. C
    300 N
  4. D
    400 N
Question 42Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 4 only
  2. B
    1 and 3 only
  3. C
    2 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 3 only
Question 43Single Answer
Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    2, 3 and 4 only
Question 44Single Answer
A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is
  1. A
    49.27 mm
  2. B
    39.27 mm
  3. C
    30.27  mm
  4. D
    20.27  mm
Question 45Single Answer
The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 only
  3. C
    2 only
  4. D
    3 only
Question 46Single Answer
A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly
  1. A
    0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
  2. B
    0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
  3. C
    4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
  4. D
    0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
Question 47Single Answer
A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly
  1. A
    136 N
  2. B
    131 N
  3. C
    131 N
  4. D
    121 N
Question 48Single Answer
The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    3 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Question 49Single Answer
A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM1 and SM2 as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively
  1. A
    SM1 > SM2
  2. B
    SM1 < SM2
  3. C
    SM1 = SM2
  4. D
    Cannot be ascertained
Question 50Single Answer
Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1,2 and 3
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 3 only
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