Latest GPSC Goa Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Intelligence & Reasoning and Numerical Aptitude, General knowledge and Current Affairs, Indian Constitution, Governance, and Administration
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 7Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 8Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 9Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 11Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 12Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 13Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 14Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 15Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 16Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 17Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 18Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 19Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 20Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 21Single Answer
When did Goa become a state ?
A
26 January 1986
B
30 May 1987
C
11 July 1992
D
19 December 1997
Question 22Single Answer
Which state is to the north of Goa ?
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Maharashtra
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 23Single Answer
Which state is to the south of Goa ?
A
Karnataka
B
Gujarat
C
Jharkhand
D
Nagaland
Question 24Single Answer
Which sea is to the west of Goa ?
A
Caspian
B
Arabian
C
Dead
D
Black
Question 25Single Answer
Which is the capital of Goa ?
A
Panaji
B
Calangute
C
Pilar
D
Rachol
Question 26Single Answer
Which is the official language of Goa ?
A
Portuguese
B
Konkani
C
Basque
D
Galician
Question 27Single Answer
Who replaced Francisco Sardinha as Goa’s chief minister in 2000 ?
A
Churchill Alemao
B
Wilfred De Souza
C
LuizinoFaleiro
D
Manohar Parrikar
Question 28Single Answer
Which chief minister of Goa later became speaker of Legislative Assembly ?
A
Dayanand Bandodkar
B
Pratapsinh Rane
C
Shashikala Kakodkar
D
Ravi Naik
Question 29Single Answer
Which article in Indian constitution is a special provision for Goa ?
A
300A
B
194
C
278
D
371I
Question 30Single Answer
What is the area of Goa ?
A
3,006 sq. mi.
B
2,124 sq. mi.
C
1,429 sq. mi.
D
3,504 sq. mi.
Question 31Single Answer
Which is the largest city of Goa ?
A
Vasco Da Gama
B
Margao
C
Bijapur
D
None
Question 32Single Answer
Total number of districts in Goa ?
A
9
B
5
C
2
D
None
Question 33Single Answer
Who is the Governor of Goa ?
A
Manohar Parikar
B
Mridula Sinha
C
Lokesh Prajapat
D
None
Question 34Single Answer
Who is the Chief Minister of Goa ?
A
Manohar Parrikar
B
Laxmikant Pareskar
C
Kalyani Devi
D
None
Question 35Single Answer
What is the Parliament constituency of Goa ?
A
9
B
2
C
5
D
None
Question 36Single Answer
According to 2011 census, what is the total population of Goa ?
A
1,457,723
B
1,578,012
C
1,258,475
D
None
Question 37Single Answer
According to 2011 census, what is the population rank of Goa ?
A
26
B
31
C
22
D
None
Question 38Single Answer
The grain size (USDA) of silt in soil ranges between :
A
0.2 mm to 0.5 mm
B
0.5 mm to 0.1 mm
C
0.1 mm to 0.05 mm
D
0.05 mm to 0.002 mm
Question 39Single Answer
What will be BOD, for a wastewater sample when 21 ml of sample is diluted to 300 ml in BOD bottle to determine dissolved oxygen .
[Given: Initial DO, = 10 mg/l; Five days later DO5 = 5 mg/l]
A
~ 5 mg/l
B
~ 25 mg/l
C
~ 71.4 mg/l
D
~75 mg/l
Question 40Single Answer
What will be the concentration of 40 ppb SO₂ in µg/m³ unit at 25°C ?
A
~ 0.04 µg/m³
B
~ 1047 µg/m³
C
~ 104.7 µg/m³
D
~ 10.47 µg/m³
Question 41Single Answer
National Ambient air quality standards typically include following components :
A
Maximum and Minimum pollutant levels, adjustment for co - pollutants
B
Abetment strategies, non - attainment penalties
C
Ambient temperature, size distribution and relative humidity
D
Indicator (Chemical/Chemical class), Averaging time, Pollutant form and level
Question 42Single Answer
Primary air pollutants differ from secondary air pollutants as they :
A
are present in levels that can be weighed on filter paper
B
are directly emitted from identified sources
C
have undergone chemical transformation in air after release from identified sources
D
are designated as hazardous air pollutants
Question 43Single Answer
What is the state animal of Goa ?
A
Tiger
B
Gaur
C
Panther
D
Lion
Question 44Single Answer
Which river is the longest in Goa ?
A
Mandovi
B
Zuari
C
Terekhol
D
Sal
Question 45Single Answer
In which year did Goa become a full-fledged state of India ?
A
1956
B
1961
C
1987
D
1974
Question 46Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 47Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 48Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 49Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
A
Pongal
B
Onam
C
Baisakhi
D
Makar Sankranti
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General knowledge and Current Affairs
Question 51Single Answer
From 1 April 2026, RBI shifted processing of overseas investment references to:
A
Only Mumbai office
B
SEBI
C
7 Regional Offices via PRAVAAH portal
D
Ministry of Finance
Question 52Single Answer
RBI's April 2026 policy projected CPI inflation for FY27 at:
A
4.0%
B
3.8%
C
5.5%
D
4.6%
Question 53Single Answer
What global event involving Iran was a dominant theme in economic and geopolitical news in April-May 2026?
A
Peace treaty with Israel
B
Ongoing war impacting oil prices and Strait of Hormuz
C
Joining NATO
D
Nuclear disarmament
Question 54Single Answer
On 1 May 2026, school assembly news headlines prominently featured:
A
Only sports news
B
Election results
C
Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact, Prerna 2.0, GSAT-32, and Sensex volatility
D
Budget announcements
Question 55Single Answer
The government announced focus on connecting Poonch-Rajouri with:
A
National Highway
B
Inland waterway
C
Airport
D
Rail network
Question 56Single Answer
On 1 May 2026, rain and thunderstorms were reported to have cooled which region of India?
A
Southern India
B
North India (while heatwave persisted elsewhere)
C
Eastern India
D
Western Ghats
Question 57Single Answer
Ethanol blending-related amendments to Central Motor Vehicles Rules in 2026 include:
A
Only E20
B
E85, E100, and B100 biodiesel
C
Electric vehicles only
D
CNG mandates
Question 58Single Answer
What is the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 related to?
A
Defence procurement
B
Urban development
C
Performance assessment of over 2.5 lakh panchayats
D
Export promotion
Question 59Single Answer
Rajya Sabha passed the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill in early April 2026 to:
A
Merge forces
B
Increase salaries
C
Reduce recruitment age
D
Create a unified legal framework for CAPF personnel
Question 60Single Answer
US President Donald Trump commented on considering exiting NATO, calling it a:
A
Paper tiger
B
Strong alliance
C
Economic burden
D
Peacekeeper
Question 61Single Answer
Which Indian state saw clashes between Aboriginal community and police in Alice Springs (international news context)?
A
Canada
B
New Zealand
C
Australia
D
South Africa
Question 62Single Answer
The Iran war and closure of the Strait of Hormuz led to:
A
Oil prices hitting four-year high
B
Record low oil prices
C
Increased Indian exports
D
Rupee appreciation
Question 63Single Answer
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A
Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B
Purchase of Rafale jets
C
Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D
Signing of a nuclear agreement
Question 64Single Answer
What new framework did the RBI announce plans for regarding NBFCs in April 2026?
A
Complete deregulation
B
Classification into upper, middle, and lower layers
C
Merger with banks
D
Ban on new NBFCs
Question 65Single Answer
Vaishnath (Railway Minister) flagged off the first direct Vande Bharat Express between:
A
Delhi and Mumbai
B
Jammu and Srinagar
C
Chennai and Bengaluru
D
Kolkata and Guwahati
Question 66Single Answer
What major global sporting event is scheduled from 11 June to 19 July 2026?
A
Winter Olympics
B
FIFA World Cup 2026
C
Asian Games
D
Commonwealth Games
Question 67Single Answer
Neeraj Chopra began his pre-season training for 2026 in which country?
A
Germany
B
South Africa (Potchefstroom)
C
USA
D
Australia
Question 68Single Answer
Which initiative or mission was linked to Tatya Tope’s letter discovery?
A
Swachh Bharat
B
Namami Gange
C
Digital India
D
Gyan Bharatam Mission
Question 69Single Answer
RBI's April 2026 Monetary Policy kept the repo rate unchanged at:
A
6.5%
B
6.0%
C
4.75%
D
5.25%
Question 70Single Answer
Indian airlines (Air India, IndiGo, SpiceJet) informed the government about potential operational issues due to:
A
Pilot shortage
B
High fuel prices and Strait of Hormuz closure amid Iran war
C
New DGCA regulations
D
Airport congestion
Question 71Single Answer
A wall collapse at a hospital in which city killed seven people around early May 2026?
A
Bengaluru, Karnataka
B
Mumbai
C
Hyderabad
D
Chennai
Question 72Single Answer
A tragic road accident in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh on or around 1 May 2026 resulted in how many deaths?
A
At least 16 (including 6 children and 7 women)
B
8
C
25
D
12
Question 73Single Answer
UAE announced its exit from OPEC, with the decision taking effect from:
A
1 May 2026
B
1 January 2026
C
1 July 2026
D
31 December 2026
Question 74Single Answer
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
A
A new defence missile system
B
Green hydrogen mission
C
AI Tutoring initiative
D
Digital payment platform
Question 75Single Answer
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
A
GSAT-31
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
INSAT-4CR
D
GSAT-32
General Intelligence & Reasoning and Numerical Aptitude
Question 76Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 77Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 78Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 79Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 80Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 81Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 82Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 83Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 84Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 85Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 86Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 87Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 88Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 89Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 90Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 91Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 92Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 93Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 94Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 95Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 96Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 97Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 98Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 99Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 100Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 101Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 103Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 104Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 105Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 106Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 107Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 108Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 109Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 110Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 111Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 112Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 113Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 114Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 115Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 116Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 117Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 118Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 119Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 120Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 121Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 122Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 123Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 124Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 125Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Indian Constitution, Governance, and Administration
Question 126Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 127Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 128Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above
Question 129Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 130Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court
Question 131Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 132Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above
Question 133Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above
Question 134Single Answer
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947
Question 135Single Answer
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan
Question 136Single Answer
In which year Mayor's Courts were introduced in three Presidency Towns in India ?
A
1726
B
1772
C
1774
D
1781
Question 137Single Answer
On whose recommendation amongst the following the Constituent Assembly was constituted ?
A
Cripps Mission
B
Webel Mission
C
Lord Mountbatten
D
Cabinet Mission Plan
Question 138Single Answer
Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constitutent Assembly ?
A
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B
Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C
Sr. B.N. Rau
D
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Question 139Single Answer
The first Constituent Assembly Meeting held on 9.12.46 was presided over by -
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Shri S.N. Sinha
C
Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
D
None of the above
Question 140Single Answer
Who among the following was the President of Constituent Assembly ?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Sardar Patel
C
Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
D
Pt. J. Nehru
Question 141Single Answer
Who was the first Prsident of Constituent Assembly of India ?
A
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B
Dr. K. N. Katju
C
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D
C. Rajagopalachari
Question 142Single Answer
The number of the members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution were
A
7
B
8
C
1
D
5
Question 143Single Answer
Who among the following was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee ?
`
A
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B
Motilal Nehru
C
M.K. Gandhi
D
Sardar Patel
Question 144Single Answer
The members of the Constituent Assembly were -
A
Elected directly by the people
B
Nominated by the Indian National Congress
C
Delegate of Indian princes
D
Mainly elected by the provincial Asemblies
Question 145Single Answer
When was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held ?
A
8th December
B
9th December
C
10th December
D
12th December
Question 146Single Answer
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on -
A
9th December, 1946
B
15th August, 1947
C
26th December, 1949
D
10th December, 1948
Question 147Single Answer
The task of making the Constitution was over on -
A
26th November, 1949
B
26th January, 1950
C
15th August, 1947
D
25th November, 1949
Question 148Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on -
A
November 25, 1949
B
November 29, 1949
C
November 26, 1949
D
November 27, 1949
Question 149Single Answer
The Constitution of India, as framed by the Constituent Assembly, was finally adopted and enacted on -
A
15th August, 1947
B
26th November, 1949
C
30th January, 1949
D
26th January, 1950
Question 150Single Answer
On which one of the following dates, the Constitution of India was adopted and finalized by the Constituent Assembly -
A
26th January, 1950
B
26th November, 1949
C
26th November, 1950
D
26th January, 1948
Question 151Single Answer
Who adopted the constitution of India ?
A
Governor General
B
British Crown
C
Constituent Assembly
D
Indian Parliament
Question 152Single Answer
On which date 'Law Day' is celebrated in India ?
A
26th November
B
28th October
C
2nd October
D
15th August
Question 153Single Answer
The original Constitution of India contains :
A
Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Raja Ravi Verma
B
Several paintings created by a group of painters led by S.H. Raza
C
Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Jamini Roy
D
Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Nandalal Bose
Question 154Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the first Commission on review of the Indian Constitution ?
A
Justice Venkatachaliah
B
Justice Hidayatullah
C
Justice A.M. Ahmadi
D
Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
Question 155Single Answer
On which date the National Anthem was adopted by the constituent Assembly ?
A
1st January 1950
B
24th January 1950
C
26th January 1950
D
26th November 1949
Question 156Single Answer
Who designed the Indian flag ?
A
Alluri Sitarama Raju
B
Pinglai Venkayya
C
Sarojini Naidu
D
Potti Sreeramulu
Question 157Single Answer
How many spokes are therein the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?
A
22
B
24
C
14
D
18
Question 158Single Answer
The Words "SATYAMEVA JAYATE" in the State Emblem of india have been adopted from which of the following :
`
A
Brahma Upnishad
B
Mudgala Upnishad
C
Maitriyi Upnishad
D
Mundakopanishad
Question 159Single Answer
How many article are there in the Indian Constitution -
A
365
B
379
C
394
D
395
Question 160Single Answer
The number of Articles and Schedules in original Indian Constitution was -
A
395 Articles and 8 Schedules
B
394 Articles and 9 Schedules
C
396 Articles and 10 Schedules
D
395 Articles and 7 Schedules
Question 161Single Answer
How many Schedules are there in the Constitution of India ?
A
9
B
10
C
11
D
12
Question 162Single Answer
The First Law Commission of Independent India was established in year -
A
1861
B
1950
C
1951
D
1955
Question 163Single Answer
The first State in Independent India which was created on linguistic basis was -
A
Gujarat
B
Kerala
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Haryana
Question 164Single Answer
Consider the following statements -
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Mainly based on the Government of India Act 1935
Code
A
Statement 2 and 1 are correct
B
Statement 2 and 3 are correct
C
Only Statement 2 is correct
D
Statement 1 and 3 are correct
Question 165Single Answer
Which one of these is not federal feature of the Constitution of India :
A
Written and rigid constitution
B
Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
C
Distribution of powers between Centre and States
D
Independent judiciary
Question 166Single Answer
Which one of the following features does not support the federal character of Indian Constitution ?
A
Distribution of power between Centre and States
B
Authority of Courts
C
Supremacy of the Constitution
D
Single citizenship
Question 167Single Answer
Which of the following determines the federal character of the Indian Constitution ?
A
Written Constitution
B
Independent Judiciary
C
Distribution of Power between the Centre and the State
D
Judicial Review
Question 168Single Answer
Who said that Indian Constitution is quasi-federal ?
A
Prof. K.C. Whaere
B
Prof. E.C.S. Wade
C
Sir Ivor Jennings
D
H.M. Seervai
Question 169Single Answer
Prof. K.C. Wheare said the our Constitution is at most -
A
Federal Structure
B
Quasi-Federal
C
Weak Federation
D
Strong Federation
Question 170Single Answer
The Constitution of India is -
A
Partly rigid and Partly flexible
B
Rigid
C
Flexible
D
None of the above
Question 171Single Answer
Who among the following expressed the view that the Indian Constitution is federal as much as it establishes what may be called a dual polity ?
A
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B
Sir William Ivor Jennings
C
Sir B.N. Rau
D
Prof. K.C. Wheare
Question 172Single Answer
Absolutism means :
A
The state or quality of being absolute
B
A short of government in which public power is visted in some person or persons, unchecked and uncontrolled by any law or institution
C
Unconditional power or sovereignty vested in a monarch, an autocrat or an oligarchy
D
All of the above
Question 173Single Answer
Out of the following, which is not related to the Indian Constitution ?
A
Democratic
B
Federal
C
Secular, Socialist
D
Presidential system
Question 174Single Answer
Indian Constitution is -
A
Unitary
B
Neither Unitary nor Federal
C
Federal
D
Neither Unitary nor Federal but combination of both
Question 175Single Answer
The essential characteristics of Federation in USA are -
1. Supremacy of the Constitution
2. Distribution of powers amongst the various organs of the federation and of regional units of the federation by the provision of constitution
3. Judicial review or enforcement of that supreme constitution as law
4. The Rule of Law
Choose the correct option
A
Only 1, 2 and 3
B
Only 1, 2 and 4
C
Only 2, 3 and 4
D
All 1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 176Single Answer
"The new Constitution establishes, indeed a system of Government which is at the most quasi-federal, almost devolutionary in character, a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than the federal state with unitary features" said by :
A
Dr. K.C. Wheare
B
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Question 177Single Answer
"It is likely that free India may federal India, though in any event there would be a great deal of Unitary Control." This statement was made by -
`
A
Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyyer
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabh Patel
Question 178Single Answer
A Secular State -
A
Promotes Religions
B
Demotes Religions
C
Integrates Religions
D
Remains neutral to Religions
Question 179Single Answer
"The Constitution establishes a System of Government which is almost quasi-federal". This was a statement of :
A
Sir Ivor Jennings
B
Dr. B.R. Amedkar
C
Prof. K.C. Wheare
D
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Question 180Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Indian Constitution has not recognized the doctrine of separation of power in its absolute rigidity.
Reason (R) : Doctrine of separation of power accommodates a system of checks and balances.
Code
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(R) is true, but (A) is false
Question 181Single Answer
The concept of 'Judicial Review' is adopted by framers of Indian Constitution from the Constitution of which country ?
A
Australia
B
United States of America
C
Canada
D
Ireland
Question 182Single Answer
The concept of Judicial Review in India has been taken from the Constitution of -
A
Britain
B
Framce
C
U.S.A
D
Switzerland
Question 183Single Answer
Which of the following not been taken from British Constitution ?
A
Parliamentary form of Government
B
Single citizenship
C
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D
Fundamental Rights
Question 184Single Answer
The 'Fundamental Rights' and the concept of 'Judicial Review' included in our Constitution from which country's Constitution ?
A
Australia
B
Britain
C
United States of America
D
Japan
Question 185Single Answer
Out of the following, which country's constitution influenced India to adopt concept of westminister system or rule making and rule of law ?
A
U.S.A
B
Britain
C
Canada
D
Ireland
Question 186Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 187Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 188Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 189Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 190Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 191Single Answer
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 192Single Answer
The Indian Constitution was enforced on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 193Single Answer
The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Germany
D
Canada
Question 194Single Answer
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:
A
42nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
52nd Amendment
D
62nd Amendment
Question 195Single Answer
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
A
The Constitution of Canada
B
The Constitution of Ireland
C
The Constitution of Australia
D
The Constitution of USA
Question 196Single Answer
The Constitution of India was drafted by:
A
200 members
B
298 members
C
250 members
D
310 members
Question 197Single Answer
The objective resolution, which later became the Preamble, was moved by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Sardar Patel
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
B.R. Ambedkar
Question 198Single Answer
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?
A
Part II
B
Part III
C
Part IV
D
Part V
Question 199Single Answer
The concept of Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
5.015 =?