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Latest GPSSB Laboratory Technician Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness and General Knowledge, Gujarati Language and Grammar, English Language and Grammar, General Mathematics, Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Technical Knowledge
Question Bank GPSSB Laboratory Technician Exam - English
General Awareness and General Knowledge
Q 1 :
Gujrat is bordered by ______ state to the north.
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Maharshtra
C.Rajasthan
D.Arabian Sea
Q 2 :
Gujrat is bordered by _______ state to the south.
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Maharshtra
C.Rajasthan
D.Arabian Sea
Q 3 :
Gujrat is bordered by _______ state to the east.
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Maharshtra
C.Rajasthan
D.Arabian Sea
Q 4 :
Which is largest city of Gujrat state of India?
A.Surat
B.Vadodara
C.Rajkot
D.Ahmedabad
Q 5 :
When was the Gujrat State Established ?
A.1 May 1960
B.2 May 1960
C.1 May 1961
D.1 May 1962
Q 6 :
How many districts are there in Gujrat ?
A.30
B.31
C.32
D.33
Q 7 :
Who is the present Governor of Gujrat state ?
A.S.C. Jamir
B.Kamla Beniwal
C.Nawal Kishore Sharma
D.Balram Jakhar
Q 8 :
Who is the present Chief of minister of Gujrat state ?
A.Keshubhai Patel
B.Dilipbhai Ramanbhai Parikh
C.Bhupendrabhai Patel
D.Shankersinh Vaghela
Q 9 :
The Somnath Temple is located on the ________ coast of Gujarat.
A.Western
B.Southern
C.Northen
D.East
Q 10 :
Which was The first capital of Gujarat ?
A.Gadhinagar
B.Ahmedabad
C.Vadodara
D.Surat
Q 11 :
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 12 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 13 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 14 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 15 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 16 :
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A.Water and gases
B.Rocks and minerals
C.Living organisms
D.Air and gases
Q 17 :
The lithosphere includes :
A.Only the Earth's crust
B.The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C.Only the Earth's mantle
D.The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Q 18 :
Whats the capital city of Gujarat?
A.Ahmedabad
B.Surat
C.Gandhinagar
D.Vadodara
Q 19 :
Which national parkn Gujarats famous for Asiatic lions?
A.Gir National Park
B.Ranthambore National Park
C.Kanha National Park
D.Bandipur National Park
Q 20 :
Which river flows through the city of Ahmedabad?
A.Sabarmati
B.Tapi
C.Narmada
D.Mahi
Q 21 :
Whats the official language of Gujarat?
A.Gujarati
B.Hindi
C.Marathi
D.Konkani
Q 22 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 23 :
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A.BARC
B.ISRO
C.DRDO
D.HAL
Q 24 :
Which is the longest river in India?
A.Yamuna
B.Ganges
C.Brahmaputra
D.Godavari
Q 25 :
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A.Sahyadris
B.Vindhyas
C.Satpuras
D.Aravallis
Q 26 :
What is the term for the total value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders in a given period?
A.GNP
B.GDP
C.NNP
D.DPI
Q 27 :
What is the primary function of a central bank?
A.Lending to individuals
B.Regulating the money supply
C.Selling stocks
D.Managing retail stores
Q 28 :
Who among the following was associated with Enlightenment philosophy?
A.Voltaire
B.Shakespeare
C.Erasmus
D.All of the above
Q 29 :
When did World War II end?
A.1918
B.1939
C.1946
D.1945
Q 30 :
Which is the most famous Indus Valley Civilization site in Gujarat known for its dockyard?
A.Dholavira
B.Lothal
C.Rangpur
D.Surkotada
Q 31 :
Lothal is located in which district of Gujarat?
A.Ahmedabad
B.Kheda
C.Surendranagar
D.Bharuch
Q 32 :
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A.New planet in solar system
B.Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C.Black hole merger
D.Exoplanet with life signs
Q 33 :
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A.15 March
B.20 March
C.22 March
D.25 March
Q 34 :
Which scheme was launched by Gujarat government in April 2026 for youth employment?
A.Gujarat Rozgar Yojana
B.Mukhyamantri Yuva Swavalamban Yojana
C.Skill Gujarat Mission
D.Startup Gujarat
Q 35 :
Which department introduced digital governance reforms in April 2026?
A.Finance Department
B.Health Department
C.Education Department
D.IT Department
Gujarati Language and Grammar
Q 36 :
"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?
A. વાતચીત
B. આક્રમણ
C. ખેડૂત
D. ધમાધમ
Q 37 :
"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. સંગઠન
B. વ્યવસ્થા
C. સંવિદાન
D. અનવરત
Q 38 :
"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B. વિઘટન
C. વિદ્યા
D. આકર્ષણ
Q 39 :
"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. ધૂપ
B. દૂર
C. જગ્યા
D. આવેશ
Q 40 :
"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?
A. ગોલ
B. ધબ્બુ
C. સાંજ
D. ઉદ્દેશ
Q 41 :
"ખેડૂત" શબ્દનો પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. માલી
B. દરજી
C. બનિયાં
D. પ્રશાસન
Q 42 :
"સંગઠન" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. સમૂહ
B. છૂટ
C. સામર્થ્ય
D. સમય
Q 43 :
"વ્યાયામ" શબ્દનું પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. વ્યવસાય
B. શિક્ષણ
C. સત્સંગ
D. પ્રવૃત્તિ
Q 44 :
"મંથન" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. ખોરાક
B. ગોળા
C. સંયોજન
D. છડાન
Q 45 :
"અભિગમ" શબ્દનું પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. પાડો
B. મીત્ર
C. નજીક
D. આગમ
Q 46 :
ઓક વૃક્ષની શાખાઓ શું મળતી હતી?
A. સરળ દોરડાઓ
B. કંટાળાજનક શસ્ત્ર
C. રેશમી ઘોડાની લગામ
D. તીક્ષ્ણ તલવારો
Q 47 :
ઓક વૃક્ષ શું સાક્ષી હતું?
A. ફક્ત શિયાળાના તોફાનો
B. અસંખ્ય મુખ્યત્વે તુઓ
C. ફક્ત ઉનાળાના પવન
D. કોઈ કુદરતી ઘટનાઓ નથી
Q 48 :
બાળકોએ ઝાડની નીચે શું કર્યું?
A. તેઓ સૂઈ ગયા
B. તેઓ ભેગા થયા અને હસી પડ્યા
C. તેઓ લડ્યા
D. તેઓ રડ્યા
Q 49 :
ઓક ટ્રીની છાલનું વર્ણન કેવી રીતે કરવામાં આવ્યું?
A. સરળ અને ચળકતી
B. કરચલીઓની ટેપેસ્ટ્રી
C. શેવાળમાં આવરી લેવામાં
D. તેજસ્વી રંગીન
Q 50 :
ઓકનું ઝાડ શું શોષી લેતું હતું?
A. બાળકોની ઉદાસી
B. બાળકોનો આનંદ
C. બાળકોનો ગુસ્સો
D. બાળકોનો ડર
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GPSSB Laboratory Technician Exam Question Bank Book - English
કયો શબ્દ આ વાક્યને શ્રેષ્ઠ રીતે પૂર્ણ કરે છે: "વક્તાની ______ ટિપ્પણીઓ પ્રેક્ષકોના ઘણા સભ્યોને નારાજ કરે છે"?
A. સૌમ્ય
B. નિર્દોષ
C. કોસ્ટિક
D. સૌમ્ય
Q 52 :
સૌથી યોગ્ય શબ્દ પસંદ કરો: "ડિટેક્ટીવ તેના ______ ધ્યાન પર ધ્યાન માટે જાણીતું હતું"?
A. કર્સરી
B. સાવચેતીભર્યું
C. ઉદાસીન
D. બેદરકારી
Q 53 :
સાચો શબ્દ પસંદ કરો: "તેના ______ પ્રકૃતિએ તેને તેના સાથીદારોમાં લોકપ્રિય બનાવ્યો"?
A. રેટિકન્ટ
B. ગ્રેગિયસ
C. એકાંત
D. ટેસીટર્ન
Q 54 :
કયો શબ્દ શ્રેષ્ઠ રીતે બંધ બેસે છે: "જૂની બિલ્ડિંગમાં ______ રહસ્યની હવા હતી"?
A. વાઇબ્રેન્ટ
B. ભૌતિક
C. સ્પષ્ટ
D. પારદર્શક
Q 55 :
ખાલી ભરો: "કંપનીની ______ વૃદ્ધિએ તેના રોકાણકારોને પણ આશ્ચર્યચકિત કર્યા"?
A. ક્રમિક
B. સ્થિર
C. ઘાતાંકીય
D. ન્યૂનતમ
English Language and Grammar
Q 56 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 57 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 58 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 59 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 60 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 61 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 62 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 63 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 64 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 65 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 66 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 67 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 68 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 69 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 70 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 71 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 72 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 73 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 74 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 75 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
General Mathematics, Reasoning & Data Interpretation
Q 76 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 77 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 78 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 79 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 80 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 81 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 82 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 83 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 84 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 85 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 86 :
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A.{–2, 2}
B.{–1, 0, 1}
C.{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D.{0, 1, 2}
Q 87 :
D.None of these
Q 88 :
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A.{2}
B.{1, 2}
C.{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D.{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Q 89 :
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C.{2, 4, 6}
D.{1, 3, 5}
Q 90 :
If A B and A B, then
A.A is called a proper subset of B
B.A is called a super set of B
C.A is not a subset of B
D.B is a subset of A
Q 91 :
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A.15
B.14
C.16
D.17
Q 92 :
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A.2m – 1
B.m
C.m2
D.2m
Q 93 :
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A.3
B.8
C.7
D.None of these
Q 94 :
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A.16
B.15
C.4
D.None of these
Q 95 :
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A.A is always a subset of the complement of B
B.B is always a subset of A
C.A and B are always disjoint
D.A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Q 96 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 97 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 98 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 99 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 100 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Technical Knowledge
Q 101 :
What is the primary purpose of Sabouraud Dextrose Agar in mycology?
A.To inhibit fungal growth
B.To culture bacteria
C.To stain fungal elements
D.To promote fungal growth
Q 102 :
Which stain is commonly used to visualize fungal elements in a wet mount?
A.Gram stain
B.KOH (Potassium Hydroxide)
C.Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D.Hematoxylin-Eosin
Q 103 :
What type of specimen is most commonly used for diagnosing dermatophyte infections?
A.Blood
B.Skin scrapings
C.Urine
D.Stool
Q 104 :
Which fungus is typically associated with thrush in immunocompromised patients?
A.Candida albicans
B.Aspergillus fumigatus
C.Cryptococcus neoformans
D.Rhizopus oryzae
Q 105 :
What is the role of Calcofluor White in mycology?
A.It inhibits fungal growth
B.It measures antifungal susceptibility
C.It differentiates bacterial species
D.It enhances fungal fluorescence under UV light
Q 106 :
Which medium is preferred for culturing dimorphic fungi?
A.Blood agar
B.Brain Heart Infusion agar
C.Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
D.MacConkey agar
Q 107 :
What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a mycology lab?
A.To prevent contamination and protect the technician
B.To store fungal cultures
C.To incubate fungal cultures
D.To perform DNA extraction
Q 108 :
Which test is used to identify Cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid?
A.Urease test
B.India ink preparation
C.Carbohydrate assimilation test
D.KOH mount
Q 109 :
What is the typical incubation temperature for fungal cultures?
A.4°C
B.45°C
C.37°C
D.25–30°C
Q 110 :
Which fungal structure is primarily observed during microscopic examination?
A.Nucleus
B.Hyphae
C.Mitochondria
D.Cell membrane
Q 111 :
What is the primary goal of antifungal susceptibility testing?
A.To identify fungal species
B.To determine effective antifungal drugs
C.To culture bacteria
D.To stain fungal elements
Q 112 :
Which fungus is commonly associated with pulmonary infections in immunocompromised patients?
A.Trichophyton rubrum
B.Microsporum canis
C.Candida tropicalis
D.Aspergillus fumigatus
Q 113 :
What is the purpose of the urease test in mycology?
A.To detect bacterial contamination
B.To measure fungal growth rate
C.To differentiate fungal species
D.To stain fungal spores
Q 114 :
Which sample is least likely to be used for mycological analysis?
A.Nail clippings
B.Saliva
C.Blood
D.Sputum
Q 115 :
What is the function of potato dextrose agar in mycology?
A.To promote sporulation in fungi
B.To inhibit fungal growth
C.To culture viruses
D.To perform biochemical tests
Q 116 :
Which biosafety level is typically required for handling pathogenic fungi like Histoplasma?
A.BSL-1
B.BSL-2
C.BSL-3
D.BSL-4
Q 117 :
What is the primary source of contamination in fungal cultures?
A.Environmental molds
B.Bacterial spores
C.Viral particles
D.Chemical residues
Q 118 :
Which fungal species is commonly identified using a germ tube test?
A.Aspergillus niger
B.Fusarium solani
C.Rhizopus oryzae
D.Candida albicans
Q 119 :
What is the purpose of a wet mount in mycology?
A.To culture fungi
B.To perform DNA sequencing
C.To observe fungal structures microscopically
D.To measure antifungal resistance
Q 120 :
Which antifungal drug is commonly tested in susceptibility assays?
A.Penicillin
B.Streptomycin
C.Tetracycline
D.Fluconazole
Q 121 :
What is the role of a laboratory information system (LIS) in mycology?
A.To document procedures and results
B.To culture fungi
C.To stain fungal specimens
D.To calibrate microscopes
Q 122 :
Which fungal infection is commonly diagnosed using skin scrapings?
A.Cryptococcosis
B.Aspergillosis
C.Tinea corporis
D.Histoplasmosis
Q 123 :
What is the primary use of chloramphenicol in fungal culture media?
A.To promote fungal growth
B.To enhance staining
C.To inhibit bacterial growth
D.To increase sporulation
Q 124 :
Which technique is used for definitive fungal identification?
A.Gram staining
B.Blood culture
C.PCR and sequencing
D.Wet mount
Q 125 :
What is the typical appearance of Aspergillus colonies on culture media?
A.Velvety with powdery spores
B.Smooth and creamy
C.Waxy and translucent
D.Shiny and moist
Q 126 :
Which specimen is used to diagnose fungal meningitis?
A.Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B.Blood
C.Urine
D.Stool
Q 127 :
What is the purpose of cycloheximide in fungal culture media?
A.To inhibit saprophytic fungi
B.To promote yeast growth
C.To enhance bacterial growth
D.To stain fungal elements
Q 128 :
Which fungal structure is observed in a KOH preparation of dermatophytes?
A.Budding yeast
B.Septate hyphae
C.Capsule
D.Endospores
Q 129 :
What is the primary function of an incubator in a mycology lab?
A.To maintain optimal temperature for fungal growth
B.To sterilize media
C.To perform DNA extraction
D.To store specimens
Q 130 :
Which fungus is associated with a "spaghetti and meatball" appearance in KOH preparations?
A.Trichophyton mentagrophytes
B.Aspergillus flavus
C.Candida glabrata
D.Malassezia furfur
Q 131 :
What is the purpose of quality control in a mycology lab?
A.To ensure accurate and reliable test results
B.To culture bacteria
C.To stain fungal specimens
D.To calibrate microscopes
Q 132 :
Which test differentiates Candida species from other yeasts?
A.Urease test
B.Germ tube test
C.India ink preparation
D.KOH mount
Q 133 :
What is the typical growth time for most fungal cultures?
A.24 hours
B.1–4 weeks
C.48–72 hours
D.6–8 weeks
Q 134 :
Which fungus is commonly associated with bird droppings?
A.Cryptococcus neoformans
B.Candida albicans
C.Aspergillus niger
D.Rhizopus oryzae
Q 135 :
What is the primary purpose of a tease mount in mycology?
A.To culture fungi
B.To measure antifungal susceptibility
C.To perform biochemical tests
D.To observe fungal morphology
Q 136 :
Which antifungal is commonly used to treat Candida infections?
A.Amphotericin B
B.Penicillin
C.Ciprofloxacin
D.Azithromycin
Q 137 :
What is the role of a laminar flow hood in a mycology lab?
A.To store fungal cultures
B.To perform DNA sequencing
C.To incubate fungal cultures
D.To provide a sterile working environment
Q 138 :
Which fungal infection is commonly diagnosed using sputum samples?
A.Tinea pedis
B.Aspergillosis
C.Candidiasis
D.Sporotrichosis
Q 139 :
What is the primary advantage of using molecular methods in fungal identification?
A.Faster culture growth
B.Lower cost than microscopy
C.High specificity and accuracy
D.Simpler sample preparation
Q 140 :
Which fungal species is associated with rose gardener’s disease?
A.Aspergillus fumigatus
B.Candida albicans
C.Sporothrix schenckii
D.Cryptococcus gattii
Q 141 :
What is the purpose of carbohydrate assimilation tests in mycology?
A.To identify yeast species
B.To stain fungal elements
C.To culture molds
D.To measure antifungal resistance
Q 142 :
Which fungus is commonly identified by its "spider web" colony morphology?
A.Fusarium solani
B.Aspergillus niger
C.Rhizopus oryzae
D.Penicillium marneffei
Q 143 :
What is the primary biosafety concern when handling fungal cultures?
A.Aerosolized spores
B.Chemical spills
C.Electrical hazards
D.Radiation exposure
Q 144 :
Which stain is used to detect Pneumocystis jirovecii in respiratory specimens?
A.KOH
B.Giemsa stain
C.Gram stain
D.Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q 145 :
What is the purpose of a negative control in antifungal susceptibility testing?
A.To ensure test reliability
B.To promote fungal growth
C.To stain fungal elements
D.To culture bacteria
Q 146 :
Which fungal infection is associated with "black mold"?
A.Aspergillosis
B.Candidiasis
C.Mucormycosis
D.Histoplasmosis
Q 147 :
What is the primary use of lactophenol cotton blue in mycology?
A.To culture fungi
B.To stain fungal structures for microscopy
C.To inhibit bacterial growth
D.To perform DNA extraction
Q 148 :
Which fungus is commonly associated with systemic infections in AIDS patients?
A.Trichophyton rubrum
B.Microsporum canis
C.Aspergillus flavus
D.Histoplasma capsulatum
Q 149 :
What is the purpose of a positive control in mycology quality control?
A.To inhibit fungal growth
B.To verify test accuracy
C.To stain fungal specimens
D.To culture bacteria
Q 150 :
Which fungal structure is characteristic of dermatophytes?
A.Arthroconidia
B.Budding yeast
C.Capsule
D.Endospores
Q 151 :
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s autoclave?
A.To culture fungi
B.To stain fungal elements
C.To perform DNA sequencing
D.To sterilize contaminated materials
Q 152 :
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “cotton candy” colony appearance?
A.Rhizopus oryzae
B.Aspergillus fumigatus
C.Candida albicans
D.Fusarium solani
Q 153 :
What is the role of a microscope in a mycology lab?
A.To culture fungi
B.To observe fungal structures
C.To perform biochemical tests
D.To measure antifungal susceptibility
Q 154 :
Which fungal infection is diagnosed using bronchoalveolar lavage?
A.Tinea versicolor
B.Sporotrichosis
C.Tinea capitis
D.Pneumocystis pneumonia
Q 155 :
What is the purpose of a fungal culture slant?
A.To stain fungal elements
B.To store fungal isolates
C.To perform DNA extraction
D.To measure antifungal resistance
Q 156 :
Which antifungal drug is commonly used for systemic mycoses?
A.Amphotericin B
B.Penicillin
C.Ciprofloxacin
D.Metronidazole
Q 157 :
What is the primary purpose of a fungal identification key?
A.To culture fungi
B.To classify fungi based on characteristics
C.To perform biochemical tests
D.To stain fungal specimens
Q 158 :
Which fungus is associated with “white piedra”?
A.Trichosporon spp.
B.Candida albicans
C.Aspergillus niger
D.Rhizopus oryzae
Q 159 :
What is the role of a centrifuge in a mycology lab?
A.To culture fungi
B.To concentrate specimens for analysis
C.To stain fungal elements
D.To perform DNA sequencing
Q 160 :
Which fungal infection is commonly associated with diabetes mellitus?
A.Aspergillosis
B.Tinea pedis
C.Mucormycosis
D.Cryptococcosis
Q 161 :
What is the purpose of a fungal spore count?
A.To identify fungal species
B.To culture bacteria
C.To assess environmental contamination
D.To stain fungal elements
Q 162 :
Which fungus is identified by its “green powdery” colony?
A.Rhizopus oryzae
B.Candida albicans
C.Aspergillus fumigatus
D.Trichophyton rubrum
Q 163 :
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s biosafety protocols?
A.To protect technicians from infection
B.To promote fungal growth
C.To culture bacteria
D.To stain fungal specimens
Q 164 :
Which fungal structure is characteristic of Candida albicans?
A.Arthroconidia
B.Pseudohyphae
C.Capsule
D.Endospores
Q 165 :
What is the role of a spectrophotometer in a mycology lab?
A.To culture fungi
B.To measure optical density in susceptibility testing
C.To stain fungal elements
D.To perform microscopic examination
Q 166 :
Which fungal infection is associated with “ringworm”?
A.Candidiasis
B.Aspergillosis
C.Tinea corporis
D.Histoplasmosis
Q 167 :
What is the purpose of a fungal culture plate?
A.To store fungal isolates
B.To perform DNA extraction
C.To grow and isolate fungi
D.To stain fungal elements
Q 168 :
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “black spores”?
A.Candida albicans
B.Aspergillus niger
C.Rhizopus oryzae
D.Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Q 169 :
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s quality assurance program?
A.To ensure accurate test results
B.To culture fungi
C.To stain fungal specimens
D.To perform DNA sequencing
Q 170 :
Which fungal infection is diagnosed using blood cultures?
A.Tinea pedis
B.Tinea capitis
C.Candidemia
D.Sporotrichosis
Q 171 :
What is the role of a fungal identification database?
A.To culture fungi
B.To perform biochemical tests
C.To stain fungal elements
D.To compare fungal characteristics for identification
Q 172 :
Which fungus is associated with “valley fever”?
A.Aspergillus fumigatus
B.Candida albicans
C.Coccidioides immitis
D.Rhizopus oryzae
Q 173 :
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s waste disposal system?
A.To safely dispose of biohazardous materials
B.To culture fungi
C.To stain fungal elements
D.To perform DNA extraction
Q 174 :
Which fungal structure is characteristic of Rhizopus species?
A.Septate hyphae
B.Budding yeast
C.Non-septate hyphae
D.Capsule
Q 175 :
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s calibration standards?
A.To culture fungi
B.To stain fungal specimens
C.To ensure equipment accuracy
D.To perform biochemical tests
Q 176 :
Which fungal infection is commonly associated with soil exposure?
A.Sporotrichosis
B.Tinea versicolor
C.Candidiasis
D.Aspergillosis
Q 177 :
What is the role of a fungal culture tube?
A.To measure antifungal resistance
B.To stain fungal elements
C.To perform DNA sequencing
D.To store fungal isolates
Q 178 :
Which fungus is identified by its “red pigment” in culture?
A.Aspergillus niger
B.Candida albicans
C.Trichophyton rubrum
D.Rhizopus oryzae
Q 179 :
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s standard operating procedures (SOPs)?
A.To culture fungi
B.To perform DNA extraction
C.To stain fungal specimens
D.To standardize laboratory practices
Q 180 :
Which fungal infection is associated with “pityriasis versicolor”?
A.Candida albicans
B.Aspergillus fumigatus
C.Malassezia furfur
D.Cryptococcus neoformans
Q 181 :
What is the role of a mycology lab’s quality control strains?
A.To culture bacteria
B.To verify test performance
C.To stain fungal elements
D.To perform DNA sequencing
Q 182 :
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “budding yeast” morphology?
A.Candida albicans
B.Aspergillus fumigatus
C.Rhizopus oryzae
D.Trichophyton rubrum
Q 183 :
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s documentation system?
A.To culture fungi
B.To record procedures and results
C.To stain fungal specimens
D.To perform biochemical tests
Q 184 :
Which fungal infection is diagnosed using nail clippings?
A.Aspergillosis
B.Histoplasmosis
C.Candidiasis
D.Onychomycosis
Q 185 :
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s biosafety training?
A.To culture fungi
B.To stain fungal elements
C.To ensure technician safety
D.To perform DNA sequencing
Q 186 :
Which fungus is associated with “blastomycosis”?
A.Candida albicans
B.Blastomyces dermatitidis
C.Aspergillus fumigatus
D.Rhizopus oryzae
Q 187 :
What is the role of a mycology lab’s incubator temperature controls?
A.To stain fungal elements
B.To maintain optimal growth conditions
C.To perform DNA extraction
D.To culture bacteria
Q 188 :
Which fungal structure is characteristic of Aspergillus species?
A.Non-septate hyphae
B.Budding yeast
C.Septate hyphae
D.Capsule
Q 189 :
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s contamination controls?
A.To culture fungi
B.To perform DNA sequencing
C.To stain fungal specimens
D.To prevent false test results
Q 190 :
Which fungal infection is associated with “oral thrush”?
A.Aspergillosis
B.Tinea capitis
C.Candidiasis
D.Sporotrichosis
Q 191 :
What is the role of a mycology lab’s staining reagents?
A.To culture fungi
B.To measure antifungal resistance
C.To perform biochemical tests
D.To enhance visualization of fungal structures
Q 192 :
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “capsule” in India ink preparations?
A.Aspergillus fumigatus
B.Candida albicans
C.Cryptococcus neoformans
D.Trichophyton rubrum
Q 193 :
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s sample accessioning system?
A.To culture fungi
B.To perform DNA sequencing
C.To stain fungal elements
D.To track and label specimens
Q 194 :
Which fungal infection is associated with “athlete’s foot”?
A.Candidiasis
B.Aspergillosis
C.Tinea pedis
D.Histoplasmosis
Q 195 :
What is the role of a mycology lab’s automated identification systems?
A.To culture fungi
B.To identify fungal species rapidly
C.To stain fungal specimens
D.To perform biochemical tests
Q 196 :
Which fungus is associated with “paracoccidioidomycosis”?
A.Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
B.Candida albicans
C.Aspergillus fumigatus
D.Rhizopus oryzae
Q 197 :
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s sample preparation protocols?
A.To culture bacteria
B.To ensure accurate analysis
C.To stain fungal elements
D.To perform DNA extraction
Q 198 :
Which fungal infection is diagnosed using hair samples?
A.Tinea capitis
B.Aspergillosis
C.Candidiasis
D.Sporotrichosis
Q 199 :
What is the role of a mycology lab’s maintenance schedule?
A.To culture fungi
B.To ensure equipment functionality
C.To stain fungal specimens
D.To perform biochemical tests
Q 200 :
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “powdery white” colony?
B and A
B, then