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Latest GPSSB MPHW Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness and General Knowledge, Gujarati Language and Grammar, English Language and Grammar, General Mathematics, Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Technical Knowledge
Question Bank GPSSB MPHW Exam- English
General Awareness and General Knowledge
Q 1 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 2 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 3 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 4 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 5 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 6 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 7 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 8 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 9 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 10 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 11 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 12 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 13 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 14 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 15 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 16 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 17 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 18 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A.Mahatma Gandhi
B.M.N. Roy
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 19 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 20 :
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A.Kathak
B.Kuchipudi
C.Bharatanatyam
D.Odissi
Q 21 :
Whats the capital city of Gujarat?
A.Ahmedabad
B.Surat
C.Gandhinagar
D.Vadodara
Q 22 :
Which national parkn Gujarats famous for Asiatic lions?
A.Gir National Park
B.Ranthambore National Park
C.Kanha National Park
D.Bandipur National Park
Q 23 :
Which river flows through the city of Ahmedabad?
A.Sabarmati
B.Tapi
C.Narmada
D.Mahi
Q 24 :
Whats the official language of Gujarat?
A.Gujarati
B.Hindi
C.Marathi
D.Konkani
Q 25 :
Which dance forms native to Gujarat?
A.Garba
B.Bhangra
C.Lavani
D.Kathakali
Q 26 :
Which festivals celebrated with great enthusiasmn Gujarat?
A.Diwali
B.Navratri
C.Holi
D.Pongal
Q 27 :
The White Desert, also known as the Great Rann of Kutch,s locatedn which district of Gujarat?
A.Kutch
B.Surat
C.Rajkot
D.Vadodara
Q 28 :
Whats the largest cityn Gujarat by population?
A.Surat
B.Ahmedabad
C.Vadodara
D.Rajkot
Q 29 :
Which citys known as the "Diamond City" of Gujarat?
A.Surat
B.Rajkot
C.Bhavnagar
D.Jamnagar
Q 30 :
Whats the main agricultural product of Gujarat?
A.Rice
B.Wheat
C.Cotton
D.Sugarcane
Q 31 :
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A.Nistar
B.Nipun
C.INS Vikrant
D.INS Arihant
Q 32 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
A.27 July 2026
B.29 July 2026
C.31 July 2026
D.30 July 2026
Q 33 :
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 34 :
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A.120th
B.121st
C.123rd
D.125th
Q 35 :
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?
A.UNEP
B.WWF
C.Global Tiger Forum
D.IUCN
Gujarati Language and Grammar
Q 36 :
"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?
A. વાતચીત
B. આક્રમણ
C. ખેડૂત
D. ધમાધમ
Q 37 :
"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. સંગઠન
B. વ્યવસ્થા
C. સંવિદાન
D. અનવરત
Q 38 :
"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B. વિઘટન
C. વિદ્યા
D. આકર્ષણ
Q 39 :
"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. ધૂપ
B. દૂર
C. જગ્યા
D. આવેશ
Q 40 :
"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?
A. ગોલ
B. ધબ્બુ
C. સાંજ
D. ઉદ્દેશ
Q 41 :
"ખેડૂત" શબ્દનો પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. માલી
B. દરજી
C. બનિયાં
D. પ્રશાસન
Q 42 :
"સંગઠન" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. સમૂહ
B. છૂટ
C. સામર્થ્ય
D. સમય
Q 43 :
"વ્યાયામ" શબ્દનું પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. વ્યવસાય
B. શિક્ષણ
C. સત્સંગ
D. પ્રવૃત્તિ
Q 44 :
"મંથન" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. ખોરાક
B. ગોળા
C. સંયોજન
D. છડાન
Q 45 :
"અભિગમ" શબ્દનું પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. પાડો
B. મીત્ર
C. નજીક
D. આગમ
Q 46 :
"સમય" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. સાંજ
B. સંકલ્પ
C. સામયિક
D. સમયગ્રહ
Q 47 :
"પ્રગતિ" શબ્દનું પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. સમૃદ્ધિ
B. વિકાસ
C. પ્રયાસ
D. અભિવૃદ્ધિ
Q 48 :
"પથિક" શબ્દનું પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. યાત્રી
B. ગાયક
C. કૃષિક
D. મહાન
Q 49 :
"શક્તિ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. સૂક્ષ્મતા
B. કાર્યક્ષમતા
C. સહાય
D. પ્રબળતા
Q 50 :
"ઉત્તર" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. પૂર્વ
B. દક્ષિણ
C. પશ્ચિમ
D. ઉત્તર
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Gujarati Language and Grammar
Q 51 :
"શ્રમ" શબ્દનું પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. સંવાદ
B. પ્રયાસ
C. શાસન
D. સમર્પણ
Q 52 :
"વૈશિષ્ટ્ય" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. વ્યાખ્યાન
B. નક્કી સાચવવી જાહેરાત
C. સવાલ
D. ગણતરી
Q 53 :
"પ્રવૃત્તિ" શબ્દનું પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. દરબાર
B. પ્રસ્થાન
C. કામ
D. ગણતરી
Q 54 :
"સમૂહ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. સમાજ
B. સંઘ
C. ક્લબ
D. વ્યાપાર
Q 55 :
"જ્ઞાન" શબ્દનું પર્યાય શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. સાક્ષર
B. બુદ્ધિ
C. વિદ્યા
D. પ્રવીણ
English Language and Grammar
Q 56 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 57 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 58 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 59 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 60 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 61 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 62 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 63 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 64 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 65 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 66 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 67 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 68 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 69 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 70 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 71 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 72 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 73 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 74 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 75 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
General Mathematics, Reasoning & Data Interpretation
Q 76 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 77 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 78 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 79 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 80 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 81 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 82 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 83 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 84 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 85 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 86 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 87 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 88 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 89 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 90 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 91 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 92 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 93 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 94 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 95 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 96 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 97 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 98 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 99 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 100 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Technical Knowledge
Q 101 :
Who is considered the founder of modern nursing ?
A.Florence Nightingale
B.Clara Barton
C.Mary Seacole
D.Dorothea Dix
Q 102 :
In which war did Florence Nightingale establish her nursing principles and practices ?
A.Crimean War
B.American Civil War
C.World War I
D.Napoleonic Wars
Q 103 :
Who is known for his discovery of the smallpox vaccine ?
A.Edward Jenner
B.Louis Pasteur
C.Robert Koch
D.Joseph Lister
Q 104 :
Who is considered the father of modern surgery and introduced the concept of antiseptic surgery ?
A.Joseph Lister
B.William Harvey
C.Hippocrates
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 105 :
Which physician is known for his work on the circulation of blood in the body ?
A.William Harvey
B.Hippocrates
C.Galen
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 106 :
Who is often referred to as the "Father of Medicine" and is known for his contributions to medical ethics and the Hippocratic Oath ?
A.Hippocrates
B.Galen
C.Avicenna (Ibn Sina)
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 107 :
Who is credited with discovering the role of bacteria in causing infectious diseases ?
A.Robert Koch
B.Louis Pasteur
C.Edward Jenner
D.William Osler
Q 108 :
Who introduced the concept of asepsis in surgical procedures and is known for the development of sterile techniques ?
A.Ignaz Semmelweis
B.Joseph Lister
C.William Osler
D.Florence Nightingale
Q 109 :
Who is known for his work on the germ theory of disease, which laid the foundation for modern microbiology ?
A.Louis Pasteur
B.Robert Koch
C.Edward Jenner
D.Florence Nightingale
Q 110 :
Which ancient physician made significant contributions to anatomy and is known for his detailed anatomical drawings ?
A.Andreas Vesalius
B.Hippocrates
C.Galen
D.Avicenna (Ibn Sina)
Q 111 :
Who is considered the father of modern bacteriology and is known for his research on the transmission of diseases ?
A.Robert Koch
B.Louis Pasteur
C.Edward Jenner
D.Joseph Lister
Q 112 :
Who introduced the practice of handwashing to reduce the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings ?
A.Ignaz Semmelweis
B.Joseph Lister
C.Florence Nightingale
D.William Osler
Q 113 :
Which ancient Greek physician made significant contributions to the field of anatomy and is known for his system of medicine based on the four humors ?
A.Galen
B.Hippocrates
C.Andreas Vesalius
D.Avicenna (Ibn Sina)
Q 114 :
Who is known for his contributions to the field of cardiology and for describing the circulation of blood through the heart ?
A.William Harvey
B.Hippocrates
C.Galen
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 115 :
Who is known for his extensive writings on medicine and is considered one of the most significant medical scholars of the Islamic Golden Age ?
A.Avicenna (Ibn Sina)
B.Hippocrates
C.Galen
D.Andreas Vesalius
Q 116 :
Who is known for his pioneering work in the field of surgical anesthesia and the use of ether as an anesthetic agent ?
A.William Morton
B.William Halsted
C.William Osler
D.Ignaz Semmelweis
Q 117 :
Who is known for his contributions to the field of aseptic technique and surgical education, and is considered one of the "Big Four" founding professors of Johns Hopkins Hospital ?
A.William Halsted
B.William Morton
C.William Harvey
D.William Osler
Q 118 :
Who is considered the "Father of Modern Pathology" and made significant contributions to the understanding of diseases through microscopic examination of tissues ?
A.Rudolf Virchow
B.Louis Pasteur
C.Edward Jenner
D.Robert Koch
Q 119 :
Who is known for his pioneering work in the field of radiology and is credited with the discovery of X - rays ?
A.Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
B.Marie Curie
C.Henri Becquerel
D.Ernest Rutherford
Q 120 :
Who is known for her groundbreaking research on radioactivity and was the first woman to win a Nobel Prize ?
A.Marie Curie
B.Florence Nightingale
C.Clara Barton
D.Elizabeth Blackwell
Q 121 :
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
A.Regulation of blood sugar
B.Oxygen transport and carbon dioxide removal
C.Regulation of body temperature
D.Synthesis of hormones
Q 122 :
Which hormone is responsible for regulating blood glucose levels?
A.Insulin
B.Thyroxine
C.Estrogen
D.Cortisol
Q 123 :
What is the main function of the kidneys in the human body?
A.Regulation of blood pressure
B.Filtration of blood and urine formation
C.Digestion of nutrients
D.Production of red blood cells
Q 124 :
Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down proteins into amino acids in the stomach?
A.Amylase
B.Lipase
C.Pepsin
D. Trypsin
Q 125 :
What is the primary function of red blood cells (erythrocytes)?
A.Blood clotting
B.Immune response
C.Oxygen transport
D.Calcium storage
Q 126 :
In which part of the digestive system does most nutrient absorption take place?
A.Stomach
B.Small intestine
C.Large intestine
D.Esophagus
Q 127 :
What is the role of hemoglobin in the blood?
A.Regulation of blood pressure
B.Oxygen transport
C.Clot formation
D.Digestion of fats
Q 128 :
Which hormone is produced by the thyroid gland and regulates metabolism?
A.Insulin
B.Thyroxine
C.Estrogen
D.Cortisol
Q 129 :
What is the function of bile in digestion?
A.Emulsification of fats
B.Digestion of proteins
C.Absorption of glucose
D. Synthesis of vitamins
Q 130 :
What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?
A.Oxygen transport
B.Nutrient absorption
C. Immune response and fluid balance
D. Synthesis of enzymes
Q 131 :
What is the primary function of insulin in the body?
A.Stimulating hunger
B.Lowering blood glucose levels
C. Increasing heart rate
D.Promoting fat storage
Q 132 :
Which organ produces bile?
A.Pancreas
B.Liver
C.Gallbladder
D.Stomach
Q 133 :
What is the main function of the hormone cortisol?
A.Regulating blood pressure
B.Controlling the sleep-wake cycle
C.Facilitating the stress response
D.Stimulating insulin production
Q 134 :
Where does the majority of nutrient absorption occur in the small intestine?
A.Duodenum
B.Jejunum
C.Ileum
D.Colon
Q 135 :
What is the role of the enzyme amylase in digestion?
A.Breakdown of proteins
B.Breakdown of carbohydrates
C.Breakdown of fats
D.Absorption of nutrients
Q 136 :
Which of the following is a function of the endocrine system?
A.Producing urine
B.Regulating metabolism and hormone secretion
C.Digesting food
D.Facilitating muscle contractions
Q 137 :
What is the primary function of the mitochondria in cells?
A.Synthesizing proteins
B.Energy production through ATP synthesis
C.Storing genetic information
D.Facilitating cell division
Q 138 :
Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?
A.Pulmonary artery
B.Pulmonary vein
C.Aorta
D.Superior vena cava
Q 139 :
What is the function of the hypothalamus in the brain?
A.Controlling body temperature and thirst
B.Regulating breathing
C.Processing visual information
D.Controlling voluntary movements
Q 140 :
Which of the following is a product of anaerobic respiration in muscles?
A.Carbon dioxide
B.Lactic acid
C.Water
D.ATP
Q 141 :
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is classified as a:
A.Communicable disease
B. Non-communicable disease
C. Autoimmune disease
D.Blood disorder
Q 142 :
The main function of the kidneys is to:
A.Produce red blood cells
B. Filter waste products from the blood
C. Fight infection
D.Regulate body temperature
Q 143 :
The primary mechanism of bone loss in osteoporosis is:
A.Increased bone mineralization
B.Enhanced bone density
C.Imbalance between bone formation and resorption
D.Reduced calcium absorption
Q 144 :
The leading causes of chronic kidney disease globally are:
A.Bacterial infections
B.Diabetes and high blood pressure
C.Viral infections
D.Parasites
Q 145 :
Which of the following is a common risk factor for osteoporosis?
A.High calcium intake
B.Regular weight-bearing exercise
C.Smoking
D.Adequate vitamin D levels
Q 146 :
Early stages of CKD often have:
A.Very noticeable symptoms
B. No symptoms
C.Severe pain
D.All of the above
Q 147 :
Potential complications of advanced CKD include:
A. Heart disease
B.Weak bones
C.Anemia
D.All of the above
Q 148 :
How does estrogen deficiency contribute to osteoporosis in women?
A.It improves bone density
B.It reduces bone resorption
C.It promotes bone formation
D.It accelerates bone loss
Q 149 :
Risk factors for developing CKD include:
A.Family history of CKD
B.Unhealthy diet
C.Smoking
D. All of the above
Q 150 :
The most common fracture associated with osteoporosis occurs in which bone?
A.Skull
B.Femur (thigh bone)
C.Humerus (upper arm bone)
D.Radius (forearm bone)
Q 151 :
Management of CKD focuses on:
A.Slowing the progression of the disease
B. Controlling blood pressure
C.Managing blood sugar levels (if diabetic)
D. All of the above
Q 152 :
How does age impact the risk of osteoporosis?
A.Younger individuals are at higher risk
B.Age-related bone loss increases the risk
C.Aging reduces the risk of osteoporosis
D.Age does not affect bone health
Q 153 :
Dialysis is a treatment option for advanced CKD that involves:
A.Filtering waste products from the blood artificially
B.Medication to improve kidney function
C. Transplanting a healthy kidney
D.All of the above
Q 154 :
Which diagnostic test is commonly used to assess bone density in osteoporosis?
A.Blood glucose test
B.Electrocardiogram (ECG)
C.Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
D.Blood pressure measurement
Q 155 :
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is characterized by:
A. Sudden onset and rapid progression
B.Irreversible damage to the kidneys over time
C.Acute infections in the kidneys
D.Temporary impairment of kidney function
Q 156 :
Which of the following is a common risk factor for CKD?
A.Regular exercise
B. High blood pressure
C.Vitamin deficiency
D.Low carbohydrate diet
Q 157 :
How does physical activity benefit individuals with osteoporosis?
A.By increasing bone density
B.By reducing calcium absorption
C.By promoting joint stiffness
D.By enhancing bone resorption
Q 158 :
CKD can progress to end-stage kidney disease, requiring:
A.Routine dental check-ups
B.Dialysis or kidney transplantation
C.Yoga classes
D. Financial planning seminars
Q 159 :
Which dietary component is crucial for bone health and preventing osteoporosis?
A.High sodium intake
B.Low protein intake
C.Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake
D.High cholesterol intake
Q 160 :
Diabetes mellitus is a major cause of CKD due to:
A.Low blood sugar levels
B.High blood sugar damaging kidney structures
C.Excessive insulin production
D.Lack of physical activity
Q 161 :
What is the process of formation of mature sperm cells called?
A.Spermatogenesis
B.Oogenesis
C.Zygogenesis
D.Fertilization
Q 162 :
The fusion of male and female gametes during fertilization results in the formation of?
A.Zygote
B.Embryo
C.Blastocyst
D.Fetus
Q 163 :
Where does fertilization most commonly occur in the female reproductive system?
A.Uterus
B.Ovary
C.Fallopian tube
D.Cervix
Q 164 :
What is the term for the process where the fertilized egg attaches to the uterine wall?
A.Implantation
B.Fertilization
C.Ovulation
D.Menstruation
Q 165 :
The zona pellucida is a glycoprotein layer surrounding which part of the female reproductive system?
A.Ovary
B.Egg (oocyte)
C.Uterus
D.Fallopian tube
Q 166 :
What does a balanced diet include?
A.Only fruits and vegetables
B.Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, water, and fiber
C.Only carbohydrates and proteins
D.Only vitamins and minerals
Q 167 :
Which of the following is a primary function of carbohydrates in the body?
A.Building muscles
B.Providing energy
C.Healing wounds
D.Producing hormones
Q 168 :
Which nutrient is important for muscle growth and repair?
A.Carbohydrates
B.Protein
C.Fiber
D.Fats
Q 169 :
Which vitamin is essential for bone health?
A.Vitamin C
B.Vitamin D
C.Vitamin A
D.Vitamin B12
Q 170 :
What is the recommended daily intake of fiber for an adult?
A.5-10 grams
B.15-20 grams
C.25-30 grams
D.40-50 grams
Q 171 :
Which nutrient is necessary for the formation of red blood cells?
A.Calcium
B.Iron
C.Magnesium
D.Sodium
Q 172 :
Which of the following is a source of healthy fats?
A.Butter
B.Fish, nuts, and olive oil
C.Fried foods
D.Processed meats
Q 173 :
Which of the following is not a macronutrient?
A.Carbohydrates
B.Proteins
C.Fats
D.Minerals
Q 174 :
Which of the following is true about a balanced diet?
A.It can be achieved by focusing on only one type of food.
B.It must include sufficient amounts of protein, fats, and carbohydrates.
C.It requires the exclusion of fats.
D.It does not need vitamins or minerals.
Q 175 :
What disease is caused by a deficiency of protein?
A.Scurvy
B.Marasmus
C.Rickets
D.Goiter
Q 176 :
Kwashiorkor is a condition caused by a deficiency of which nutrient?
A.Carbohydrates
B.Protein
C.Fats
D.Vitamins
Q 177 :
What is a major symptom of malnutrition due to calorie deficiency?
A.Skin rashes
B.Weight gain
C.Fatigue and weakness
D.Increased appetite
Q 178 :
A deficiency in calories can lead to which of the following?
A.Obesity
B.Malnutrition and underweight
C.Excessive growth
D.High blood pressure
Q 179 :
Which deficiency can lead to poor absorption of fat-soluble vitamins?
A.Carbohydrates
B.Fats
C.Proteins
D.Vitamins
Q 180 :
What is the primary function of fats in the body?
A.Provide energy and store vitamins
B.Promote digestion
C.Regulate body temperature
D.Promote muscle growth
Q 181 :
Which of the following is a consequence of protein deficiency?
A.High blood pressure
B.Muscle wasting and weakness
C.Excessive energy levels
D.Increased bone density
Q 182 :
Which condition is caused by a lack of essential fatty acids?
A.Rickets
B.Essential fatty acid deficiency
C.Scorbutic disease
D.Beriberi
Q 183 :
The best source of protein for individuals who are vegetarians includes which of the following?
A.Legumes and nuts
B.Meat and poultry
C.Dairy products
D.Fish and seafood
Q 184 :
Which condition is caused by the deficiency of iodine?
A.Anemia
B.Goiter
C.Scurvy
D.Rickets
Q 185 :
Which of the following is a primary source of carbohydrates?
A.Nuts and seeds
B.Meat and fish
C.Rice and bread
D.Eggs and milk
Q 186 :
Which of the following is NOT a dimension of health?
A.Physical
B.Financial
C.Social
D.Spiritual
Q 187 :
WHO defines health as:
A.Absence of disease
B.State of complete physical, mental, and social well-being
C.Maintenance of good hygiene
D.Ability to perform daily tasks efficiently
Q 188 :
Which of the following is a social determinant of health?
A.Genetics
B.Education
C.Age
D.Gender
Q 189 :
Which factor is considered a major environmental determinant of health?
A.Income level
B.Family structure
C.Pollution
D.Genetics
Q 190 :
The term 'spiritual health' primarily relates to:
A.Social connections
B.Emotional stability
C.Finding meaning and purpose in life
D.Physical fitness
Q 191 :
The primary goal of community health is:
A.Treating diseases
B.Ensuring individual health
C.Improving overall community well-being
D.Conducting medical research
Q 192 :
Which is a preventive healthcare measure?
A.Surgery
B.Vaccination
C.Physiotherapy
D.Rehabilitation
Q 193 :
Promotive healthcare practices focus on:
A.Early diagnosis
B.Disease prevention
C.Enhancing positive health behavior
D.Rehabilitation programs
Q 194 :
Which of the following is an example of curative healthcare?
A.Vaccination
B.Health education
C.Surgery
D.Nutritional counseling
Q 195 :
Rehabilitative healthcare aims to:
A.Prevent disease
B.Promote awareness
C.Restore normal function
D.Provide immunization
Q 196 :
What is the first priority in any first aid situation?
A.Treating minor injuries
B.Ensuring your own safety
C.Calling emergency services
D.Comforting the victim
Q 197 :
The acronym "ABC" in first aid stands for:
A.Airway, Blood, Circulation
B.Airway, Breathing, Circulation
C.Action, Breathing, Compression
D.Alert, Bleeding, Cure
Q 198 :
When dealing with severe bleeding, what is the first action you should take?
A.Apply antiseptic
B.Apply direct pressure
C.Clean the wound
D.Elevate the wound
Q 199 :
What is the primary treatment for a first-degree burn?
A.Apply ice
B.Apply butter
C.Cool running water
D.Apply an ointment
Q 200 :
What is the recovery position used for?
A.Treating fractures
B.Maintaining an open airway in an unconscious person
