Question for GSSSB Additional Assistant Engineer (Civil) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest GSSSB AAE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Constitution of India, Current Affairs, Comprehension, Civil

Question Bank GSSSB Additional Assistant Engineer (Civil) Exam - English

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Reasoning & Data Interpretation

Question 1Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 2Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 3Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 4Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 5Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 6Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 7Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 8Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 9Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 10Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 11Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 12Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 13Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 14Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 15Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :

How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 21Single Answer

Passage :

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 22Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 23Single Answer

Passage :

What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 24Single Answer

Passage :

What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 25Single Answer

Passage :

How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 26Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.

Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :

A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I Quantity II
C
Quantity II Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Question 27Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.

Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?

A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I Quantity II
C
Quantity II Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Question 28Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.

Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation

A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C
Quantity II > Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Question 29Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.

Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation

A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C
Quantity II > Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Question 30Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it.you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer.

Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.

A
Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Quantitative Aptitude

Question 31Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 32Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 33Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 34Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 35Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 36Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 37Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 38Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 39Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 40Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 41Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 42Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 43Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 44Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 45Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 46Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 47Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 48Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 49Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 50Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

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Quantitative Aptitude

Question 51Single Answer

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26

Question 52Single Answer

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8

Question 53Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 54Single Answer

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?

A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime

Question 55Single Answer

Product of all factors of 10 is ?

A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000

Question 56Single Answer

How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?

A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None

Question 57Single Answer

Which number is divisible by 11 ?

A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213

Question 58Single Answer

What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?

Question 59Single Answer

What is (64^{^}{2/3}) ?

A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32

Question 60Single Answer

What is (125^{^}{1/3}) ?

Constitution of India, Current Affairs, Comprehension

Question 61Single Answer

Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935

Question 62Single Answer

Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 63Single Answer

'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above

Question 64Single Answer

Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?

A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 65Single Answer

As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.

A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court

Question 66Single Answer

Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -

A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction

Question 67Single Answer

Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?

A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above

Question 68Single Answer

The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :

A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above

Question 69Single Answer

The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -

A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947

Question 70Single Answer

Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?

A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan

Question 71Single Answer

Passage :

The Indus Valley Civilization, one of the world's earliest urban societies, flourished in the Bronze Age, roughly from 3300 to 1300 BCE. Its core region lay in what is now Pakistan and northwest India. The civilization is renowned for its sophisticated urban planning, exemplified by cities like Mohenjo - daro and Harappa. These cities featured well-organized grid systems, advanced drainage and sanitation systems, and standardized brick construction. The inhabitants of the Indus Valley Civilization were skilled artisans, producing intricate pottery, seals, and metalwork. Their economy was based on agriculture, with evidence of wheat, barley, and cotton cultivation. Trade played a vital role, with evidence of connections to Mesopotamia and other regions. Despite their achievements, the Indus script remains undeciphered, leaving many aspects of their culture and language unknown. The civilization's decline, possibly due to climate change or tectonic shifts, led to its eventual abandonment.

The Indus Valley Civilization primarily existed during the:

A
Iron Age
B
Stone Age
C
Bronze Age
D
Medieval Age

Question 72Single Answer

Passage :

Sarah loved her grandmother's locket. It was a small, silver heart, and inside was a tiny picture of her grandmother as a young woman. One day, while playing in the park, Sarah noticed the locket was gone. Panic washed over her. She retraced her steps, searching under every swing and slide, but it was nowhere to be found. Just as tears began to well up, a small boy approached, holding out his hand. "Is this yours?" he asked, revealing the silver heart. Relief flooded Sarah as she took the locket, thanking him profusely.

What was inside the locket?

A
A small key
B
A picture of Sarah's mother
C
A tiny picture of her grandmother
D
A lock of hair

Question 73Single Answer

Passage :

Where did Sarah lose the locket?

A
At school
B
At home
C
In the park
D
At the store

Question 74Single Answer

Passage :

The old oak tree stood sentinel at the edge of the meadow, its branches reaching out like gnarled arms. It had witnessed countless seasons, felt the caress of summer winds, and endured the fury of winter storms. Its bark was a tapestry of wrinkles, telling tales of time and resilience. Children often gathered beneath its shade, their laughter echoing through the leaves. The tree, in its silent wisdom, seemed to absorb their joy, its roots anchoring their fleeting moments to the enduring earth.

What did the oak tree's branches resemble?

A
Smooth ropes
B
Gnarled arms
C
Silky ribbons
D
Sharp swords

Question 75Single Answer

Passage :

What had the oak tree witnessed?

A
Only winter storms
B
Countless seasons
C
Only summer winds
D
No natural events

Question 76Single Answer

Passage :

પેસેજ: સિંધુ વેલી સિવિલાઇઝેશન, વિશ્વની પ્રારંભિક શહેરી સમાજોમાંની એક, કાંસ્ય યુગમાં વિકસિત થઈ, આશરેત્રણ હજાર ત્રણ સો થી એક હજાર ત્રણ સો બીસીઇ સુધી. તેનો મુખ્ય ક્ષેત્ર હવે પાકિસ્તાન અને ઉત્તરપશ્ચિમ ભારત છે. સંસ્કૃતિ તેના સુસંસ્કૃત શહેરી આયોજન માટે પ્રખ્યાત છે, જે મોહેંજો - દારો અને હડપ્પા જેવા શહેરો દ્વારા ઉદાહરણ છે. આ શહેરોમાં સુવ્યવસ્થિત ગ્રીડ સિસ્ટમ્સ, અદ્યતન ડ્રેનેજ અને સ્વચ્છતા પ્રણાલીઓ અને માનક ઇંટ બાંધકામ દર્શાવવામાં આવ્યા છે. સિંધુ ખીણની સંસ્કૃતિના રહેવાસીઓ કુશળ કારીગરો હતા, જે જટિલ માટીકામ, સીલ અને મેટલવર્ક ઉત્પન્ન કરતા હતા. તેમની અર્થવ્યવસ્થા ઘઉં, જવ અને કપાસની ખેતીના પુરાવા સાથે કૃષિ પર આધારિત હતી. મેસોપોટેમીયા અને અન્ય પ્રદેશો સાથેના જોડાણોના પુરાવા સાથે વેપારમાં મહત્વપૂર્ણ ભૂમિકા ભજવી હતી. તેમની સિદ્ધિઓ હોવા છતાં, સિંધુ સ્ક્રિપ્ટ અસ્પષ્ટ રહે છે, તેમની સંસ્કૃતિ અને ભાષાના ઘણા પાસાઓને અજ્ રાખે છે. સંસ્કૃતિનો ઘટાડો, સંભવત હવામાન પરિવર્તન અથવા ટેક્ટોનિક પાળીને કારણે, તેના અંતિમ ત્યાગ તરફ દોરી ગયો.

સિંધુ ખીણની સંસ્કૃતિ મુખ્યત્વે આ દરમિયાન અસ્તિત્વમાં છે:

A
આયર્ન યુગ
B
પથ્થર યુગ
C
કાંસાની ઉંમર
D
મધ્યયુગીન વય

Question 77Single Answer

Passage :

પેસેજ: ઓલ્ડ ઓક ટ્રી ઘાસના મેદાનની ધાર પર સેન્ટિનેલ સ્ટેન્ડ ભો રહ્યો, તેની શાખાઓ ગુંડિત હથિયારોની જેમ પહોંચી. તેમાં અસંખ્ય મુખ્યત્વે તુઓ જોવા મળી હતી, ઉનાળાના પવનોનો અવાજ અનુભવ્યો હતો, અને શિયાળાના તોફાનોનો ગુસ્સો સહન કર્યો હતો. તેની છાલ કરચલીઓની ટેપસ્ટ્રી હતી, સમય અને સ્થિતિસ્થાપકતાની વાર્તાઓ કહેતી હતી. બાળકો ઘણીવાર તેની છાયાની નીચે ભેગા થાય છે, તેમનું હાસ્ય પાંદડામાંથી પડઘો પાડે છે. ઝાડ, તેની મૌન શાણપણમાં, તેમના આનંદને શોષી લે છે, તેના મૂળ તેમના ક્ષણિક ક્ષણોને ટકી રહેલી પૃથ્વી પર લંગરતા હોય છે.

ઓક વૃક્ષની શાખાઓ શું મળતી હતી?

A
સરળ દોરડાઓ
B
કંટાળાજનક શસ્ત્ર
C
રેશમી ઘોડાની લગામ
D
તીક્ષ્ણ તલવારો

Question 78Single Answer

Passage :

ઓક વૃક્ષ શું સાક્ષી હતું?

A
ફક્ત શિયાળાના તોફાનો
B
અસંખ્ય મુખ્યત્વે તુઓ
C
ફક્ત ઉનાળાના પવન
D
કોઈ કુદરતી ઘટનાઓ નથી

Question 79Single Answer

Passage :

પેસેજ: સારાહ તેની દાદીનું લોકેટ પસંદ હતું. તે એક નાનું, ચાંદીનું હૃદય હતું, અને અંદર એક યુવતી તરીકે તેની દાદીનું એક નાનું ચિત્ર હતું. એક દિવસ, પાર્કમાં રમતી વખતે, સારાએ જોયું કે લોકેટ ગઈ હતી. ગભરાટ તેના ઉપર ધોવાઇ. તેણીએ દરેક સ્વિંગ અને સ્લાઇડ હેઠળ શોધ કરી, તેના પગથિયાં પાછળ ખેંચ્યા, પરંતુ તે ક્યાંય મળ્યું નહીં. જેમ આંસુ સારી રીતે શરૂ થયા, તેમ એક નાનો છોકરો પોતાનો હાથ પકડીને નજીક આવ્યો. "આ તમારું છે?" તેણે પૂછ્યું, ચાંદીના હૃદયને છતી કરી. તેણીએ લોકેટ લીધી ત્યારે રાહતથી છલકાઇ થઈ ગઈ, તેનો ખૂબ આભાર માન્યો.

લોકેટની અંદર શું હતું?

A
એક નાની કી
B
સારાહની માતાની તસવીર
C
તેની દાદીનું એક નાનું ચિત્ર
D
વાળનો એક લોક

Question 80Single Answer

Passage :

સારાહ લોકેટ ક્યાંથી ગુમાવ્યો?

A
શાળામાં
B
ઘરે
C
ઉદ્યાનમાં
D
સ્ટોર પર

Question 81Single Answer

Which platform was launched by the Gujarat government in partnership with Meta to provide citizen services through WhatsApp?

A
Jan Seva Connect
B
Gujarat Digital Mitra
C
Smart Gujarat Portal
D
WhatsApp Governance Services

Question 82Single Answer

How many citizen-centric services were initially made available through the Gujarat government–Meta initiative?

A
20
B
15
C
10
D
25

Question 83Single Answer

Which city remained the administrative center of major government announcements in Gujarat during May 2026?

A
Gandhinagar
B
Rajkot
C
Vadodara
D
Surat

Question 84Single Answer

Which sector received a major boost through new state-level policy initiatives in May 2026?

A
Fisheries
B
Education Infrastructure
C
Aviation
D
Mining

Question 85Single Answer

What amount was approved by the Gujarat government for new schools and educational infrastructure?

A
₹150 crore
B
₹330 crore
C
₹220 crore
D
₹500 crore

Question 86Single Answer

On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?

A
July 1, 2026
B
June 30, 2026
C
July 2, 2026
D
June 29, 2026

Question 87Single Answer

Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?

A
Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
Gaganyaan crewed mission
D
Mars Orbiter Mission-2

Question 88Single Answer

Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?

A
Gukesh D
B
Praggnanandhaa R
C
Harshavardhan G.B.
D
Arjun Erigaisi

Question 89Single Answer

What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?

A
Merger with SBI
B
Merger into a single power financing entity
C
Merger with NTPC
D
Merger with IREDA

Question 90Single Answer

Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?

A
Lakhpati Didi App
B
Digital India Rural Scheme
C
PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D
SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book

Civil

Question 91Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 92Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 93Single Answer

Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly

A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia

Question 94Single Answer

Efflorescence of bricks is due to

A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay

Question 95Single Answer

Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 96Single Answer

Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 97Single Answer

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 98Single Answer

The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is

A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

Question 99Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 100Single Answer

In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be

A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00

Question 101Single Answer

Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?

A
Sprinkling water
B
Membrane curing
C
High-pressure steam curing
D
Infrared radiation curing

Question 102Single Answer

Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?

A
Compacting factor
B
Slump test
C
Vee-Bee test
D
Kelly Ball test

Question 103Single Answer

Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 104Single Answer

The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 105Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 106Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 107Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only

Question 108Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 109Single Answer

Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 110Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 111Single Answer

Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 112Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 113Single Answer

A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm² and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is

A
100.6 N/mm²
B
120.4 N/mm²
C
140.2 N/mm²
D
160.0 N/mm²

Question 114Single Answer

In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called

A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect

Question 115Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

Question 116Single Answer

The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm⁴. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm². The safe concentrated load at the free end would be

A
100 N
B
200 N
C
300 N
D
400 N

Question 117Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 118Single Answer

Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 119Single Answer

A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is

A
49.27 mm
B
39.27 mm
C
30.27 mm
D
20.27 mm

Question 120Single Answer

The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

Question 121Single Answer

A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly

A
0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
B
0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
C
4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
D
0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec

Question 122Single Answer

A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly

A
136 N
B
131 N
C
131 N
D
121 N

Question 123Single Answer

The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 124Single Answer

A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM₁ and SM₂ as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively

A
SM₁ > SM₂
B
SM₁ < SM₂
C
SM₁ = SM₂
D
Cannot be ascertained

Question 125Single Answer

Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 126Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 127Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 128Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5

Question 129Single Answer

The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is

A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30

Question 130Single Answer

If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as

A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8

Question 131Single Answer

Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 132Single Answer

Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 133Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 134Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question 135Single Answer

What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m³?

A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l

Question 136Single Answer

Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?

A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963

Question 137Single Answer

Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 138Single Answer

The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are

A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration

Question 139Single Answer

Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?

A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter

Question 140Single Answer

The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than

A
440 kg/cm²
B
175 kg/cm²
C
100kg/cm²
D
75kg/cm²

Question 141Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 142Single Answer

Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 143Single Answer

Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?

A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate

Question 144Single Answer

Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?

A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement

Question 145Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5

Question 146Single Answer

A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for

A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher

Question 147Single Answer

A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where

A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days

Question 148Single Answer

100 m³ of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be

A
40.5m³
B
50m³
C
75m³
D
94.7m³

Question 149Single Answer

The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering

A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank

Question 150Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 151Single Answer

A drain carrying 5m³/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m³/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?

A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l

Question 152Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 153Single Answer

Quick sand condition occurs when

A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil

Question 154Single Answer

The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.

A
5 m²
B
25 m²
C
10 m²
D
20 m²

Question 155Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 156Single Answer

Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4

Question 157Single Answer

Sewage sickness relates to

A
Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment
B
Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage
C
reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil
D
Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land

Question 158Single Answer

The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10^–5.6 mmol of OH^– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is

A
8.6
B
7.9
C
5.4
D
4.5

Question 159Single Answer

Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NO_x in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO₂ in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct?

A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 160Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 161Single Answer

What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?

A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm

Question 162Single Answer

Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (Q_A to Q_B) .

Question 163Single Answer

Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .

A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit

Question 164Single Answer

A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is

A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L

Question 165Single Answer

What is the principle of plane surveying ?

A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part

Question 166Single Answer

According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :

A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m

Question 167Single Answer

A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :

A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10

Question 168Single Answer

What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?

A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration

Question 169Single Answer

As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :

A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25

Question 170Single Answer

Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :

A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity

Question 171Single Answer

As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?

A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60

Question 172Single Answer

No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :

A
0.5 m²
B
1.0 m²
C
3 m²
D
0.75 m²

Question 173Single Answer

What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?

A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm

Question 174Single Answer

Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements

A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true

Question 175Single Answer

If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :

A
121^o25'
B
148^o25'
C
58^o25'
D
211^o25'

Question 176Single Answer

The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :

A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe

Question 177Single Answer

According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?

A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm

Question 178Single Answer

Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?

A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May

Question 179Single Answer

The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :

A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value

Question 180Single Answer

The amount of cement required for 100 m²area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :

A
2.5 m²
B
0.55 m²
C
1.10 m²
D
0.25 m²

Question 181Single Answer

Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .

A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility

Question 182Single Answer

Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?

A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law

Question 183Single Answer

The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as

A
Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D
Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive

Question 184Single Answer

Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?

A
C₄AF
B
C₃S
C
C₃A
D
C₂A

Question 185Single Answer

According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :

A
0.0002 m
B
0.005 m
C
0.0001 m
D
0.01 m

Question 186Single Answer

Which UNESCO World Heritage Site in Gujarat is renowned for its sophisticated Harappan water conservation system?

A
Dholavira
B
Lothal
C
Champaner
D
Rani ki Vav

Question 187Single Answer

Which historical monument in Patan is famous for its inverted temple architecture and stepwell engineering?

A
Adalaj Stepwell
B
Rani ki Vav
C
Modhera Sun Temple
D
Jama Masjid

Question 188Single Answer

Which ancient port city of Gujarat is considered one of the earliest known dockyard constructions in the world?

A
Somnath
B
Dholavira
C
Dwarka
D
Lothal

Question 189Single Answer

Which modern engineering landmark in Gujarat is the tallest statue in the world?

A
Mahatma Mandir
B
Sabarmati Riverfront
C
Statue of Unity
D
Gift One Tower

Question 190Single Answer

Which river is impounded by the Sardar Sarovar Dam?

A
Tapi
B
Sabarmati
C
Narmada
D
Mahi

Question 191Single Answer

Which compound in Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) is primarily responsible for early strength development?

A
Dicalcium silicate (C₂S)
B
Tricalcium silicate (C₃S)
C
Tricalcium aluminate (C₃

Question 192Single Answer

Which compound in cement contributes mainly to long-term strength?

A
C₂S
B
C₄AF
C
C₃A
D
Gypsum

Question 193Single Answer

Gypsum is added to cement primarily to?

A
Increase strength
B
Reduce heat of hydration
C
Control the setting time
D
Improve color

Question 194Single Answer

The standard consistency of cement paste is determined using?

A
Le Chatelier apparatus
B
Flow table
C
Vicat apparatus
D
Slump cone

Question 195Single Answer

The initial setting time of Ordinary Portland Cement should not be less than?

A
20 minutes
B
30 minutes
C
45 minutes
D
60 minutes

Question 196Single Answer

Which document is the formal invitation issued by a department inviting contractors to submit bids for a work?

A
Tender Notice
B
Agreement
C
Measurement Book
D
Work Order

Question 197Single Answer

Which type of tendering allows only selected contractors to participate?

A
Open Tender
B
Global Tender
C
Limited Tender
D
Two-stage Tender

Question 198Single Answer

Open tendering is primarily adopted to ensure?

A
Secrecy
B
Direct nomination
C
Lowest departmental work only
D
Maximum competition and transparency

Question 199Single Answer

A Notice Inviting Tender (NIT) generally does NOT include?

A
Name of work
B
Contractor's profit statement
C
Estimated cost
D
Earnest Money Deposit (EM

Question 200Single Answer

Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) is mainly collected to?

A
Discourage non-serious bidders
B
Increase government revenue
C
Pay contractor's salary
D
Purchase construction materials

Question 201Single Answer

What is the primary objective of preparing an estimate for a civil engineering project?

A
To assess the probable cost before execution
B
To determine the colour scheme of the structure
C
To appoint contractors directly
D
To prepare audit reports only

Question 202Single Answer

Which type of estimate is prepared to obtain administrative approval for a project?

A
Approximate Estimate
B
Revised Estimate
C
Supplementary Estimate
D
Final Estimate

Question 203Single Answer

A detailed estimate is prepared mainly for?

A
Preliminary discussion only
B
Technical sanction and execution of work
C
Newspaper publication
D
Property valuation only

Question 204Single Answer

Which estimate is prepared when the sanctioned cost is likely to exceed the original estimate considerably?

A
Annual Estimate
B
Supplementary Estimate
C
Revised Estimate
D
Rough Estimate

Question 205Single Answer

A supplementary estimate is prepared when?

A
Additional works become necessary after the original estimate
B
No change occurs in the project
C
The project is abandoned
D
Labour rates decrease

Question 206Single Answer

The primary objective of building planning is to?

A
Increase construction cost
B
Increase floor height unnecessarily
C
Maximize wall thickness only
D
Achieve functional, economical, and aesthetic design

Question 207Single Answer

Which principle of building planning ensures that each room serves its intended purpose efficiently?

A
Elegance
B
Aspect
C
Ornamentation
D
Functionality

Question 208Single Answer

Which principle refers to placing rooms according to sunlight and climatic conditions?

A
Grouping
B
Aspect
C
Circulation
D
Privacy

Question 209Single Answer

Which principle of planning is mainly concerned with free movement inside a building?

A
Circulation
B
Prospect
C
Aspect
D
Economy

Question 210Single Answer

The principle of planning that provides protection from outside view is known as?

A
Aspect
B
Grouping
C
Privacy
D
Prospect

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