Question for GSSSB Additional Assistant Engineer (Mechanical) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest GSSSB AAE Mechanical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Constitution of India, Current Affairs, Comprehension, Technical Subject (Mechanical)Technical Subject (Mechanical), Technical Subject (Mechanical)

Question Bank GSSSB Additional Assistant Engineer (Mechanical) Exam - English

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Reasoning & Data Interpretation

Question 1Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 2Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 3Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 4Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 5Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 6Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 7Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 8Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 9Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 10Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 11Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 12Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 13Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 14Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 15Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

Find the missing number in the following series ?

3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?

A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)

If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?

A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP

Question 21Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :

How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 22Single Answer

Passage :

The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 23Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 24Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 25Single Answer

Passage :

What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 26Single Answer

Passage :

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 27Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 28Single Answer

Passage :

What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 29Single Answer

Passage :

What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 30Single Answer

Passage :

How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Quantitative Aptitude

Question 31Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 32Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 33Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 34Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 35Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 36Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 37Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 38Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 39Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 40Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 41Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 42Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 43Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 44Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 45Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 46Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 47Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 48Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 49Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 50Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

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Quantitative Aptitude

Question 51Single Answer

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26

Question 52Single Answer

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8

Question 53Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 54Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 55Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 56Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 57Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

Question 58Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?

A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these

Question 59Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?

A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A

Question 60Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?

A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%

Constitution of India, Current Affairs, Comprehension

Question 61Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 62Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 63Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 64Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 65Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 66Single Answer

"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?

A
વાતચીત
B
આક્રમણ
C
ખેડૂત
D
ધમાધમ

Question 67Single Answer

"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?

A
સંગઠન
B
વ્યવસ્થા
C
સંવિદાન
D
અનવરત

Question 68Single Answer

"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?

A
અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B
વિઘટન
C
વિદ્યા
D
આકર્ષણ

Question 69Single Answer

"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?

A
ધૂપ
B
દૂર
C
જગ્યા
D
આવેશ

Question 70Single Answer

"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?

A
ગોલ
B
ધબ્બુ
C
સાંજ
D
ઉદ્દેશ

Question 71Single Answer

Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935

Question 72Single Answer

Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 73Single Answer

'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above

Question 74Single Answer

Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?

A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 75Single Answer

As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.

A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court

Question 76Single Answer

Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -

A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction

Question 77Single Answer

Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?

A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above

Question 78Single Answer

The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :

A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above

Question 79Single Answer

The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -

A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947

Question 80Single Answer

Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?

A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan

Question 81Single Answer

Which platform was launched by the Gujarat government in partnership with Meta to provide citizen services through WhatsApp?

A
Jan Seva Connect
B
Gujarat Digital Mitra
C
Smart Gujarat Portal
D
WhatsApp Governance Services

Question 82Single Answer

How many citizen-centric services were initially made available through the Gujarat government–Meta initiative?

A
20
B
15
C
10
D
25

Question 83Single Answer

Which city remained the administrative center of major government announcements in Gujarat during May 2026?

A
Gandhinagar
B
Rajkot
C
Vadodara
D
Surat

Question 84Single Answer

Which sector received a major boost through new state-level policy initiatives in May 2026?

A
Fisheries
B
Education Infrastructure
C
Aviation
D
Mining

Question 85Single Answer

What amount was approved by the Gujarat government for new schools and educational infrastructure?

A
₹150 crore
B
₹330 crore
C
₹220 crore
D
₹500 crore

Question 86Single Answer

The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?

A
Nistar
B
Nipun
C
INS Vikrant
D
INS Arihant

Question 87Single Answer

The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?

A
27 July 2026
B
29 July 2026
C
31 July 2026
D
30 July 2026

Question 88Single Answer

Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?

A
Yash Vir Singh
B
Neeraj Chopra
C
Kishore Jena
D
Rohit Yadav

Question 89Single Answer

India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?

A
120th
B
121st
C
123rd
D
125th

Question 90Single Answer

Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?

A
UNEP
B
WWF
C
Global Tiger Forum
D
IUCN

Technical Subject (Mechanical)

Question 91Single Answer

Industry 4.0 mainly refers to the integration of manufacturing with?

A
Hand-operated machines only
B
Manual drafting only
C
Conventional casting only
D
Digital and intelligent technologies

Question 92Single Answer

A major feature of smart manufacturing is the use of?

A
Connected machines and real-time data
B
Isolated manual systems only
C
Paper-based control only
D
Fixed mechanical templates

Question 93Single Answer

The Industrial Internet of Things is commonly abbreviated as?

A
IOTM
B
IITM
C
IIoT
D
IIMT

Question 94Single Answer

IIoT enables industrial machines to?

A
Exchange data through connected networks
B
Operate without sensors
C
Eliminate automation
D
Work only manually

Question 95Single Answer

A digital twin is best described as a virtual representation of a?

A
Manual drawing only
B
Physical product, machine or process
C
Cutting tool only
D
Material database only

Question 96Single Answer

Digital twins are commonly used for monitoring, simulation and?

A
Manual filing
B
Predictive analysis
C
Casting pattern making only
D
Surface coating only

Question 97Single Answer

Predictive maintenance uses sensor data and analytics to estimate?

A
Operator attendance only
B
Product selling price only
C
Future equipment condition or failure
D
Material colour

Question 98Single Answer

Compared with preventive maintenance, predictive maintenance is more strongly based on?

A
Manual assumptions only
B
Fixed calendar intervals only
C
Actual equipment condition
D
Random inspection

Question 99Single Answer

Operations Research is primarily concerned with?

A
Scientific decision-making
B
Manual drafting
C
Heat treatment
D
Casting inspection

Question 100Single Answer

Operations Research generally uses mathematical models to obtain?

A
Optimal decisions
B
Random decisions
C
Only graphical drawings
D
Material properties

Question 101Single Answer

A mathematical model in Operations Research represents a real system using?

A
Only physical prototypes
B
Variables and relationships
C
Only verbal statements
D
Only accounting records

Question 102Single Answer

An objective function in an optimization model represents the quantity to be?

A
Maximized or minimized
B
Ignored
C
Measured physically only
D
Held constant always

Question 103Single Answer

Decision variables represent?

A
Historical data only
B
Fixed constants only
C
Unknown choices to be determined
D
Random errors only

Question 104Single Answer

Constraints in an optimization problem represent?

A
Graph labels
B
Objective values only
C
Random numbers
D
Restrictions on decisions

Question 105Single Answer

Linear Programming is commonly abbreviated as?

A
PL
B
LPM
C
LP
D
LOP

Question 106Single Answer

In Linear Programming, the objective function and constraints must be?

A
Exponential
B
Linear
C
Logarithmic only
D
Quadratic necessarily

Question 107Single Answer

Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) refers to the integration of manufacturing activities through?

A
Mechanical gauges only
B
Manual drafting only
C
Computer systems
D
Conventional machines only

Question 108Single Answer

The primary objective of CIM is to improve manufacturing productivity through?

A
Elimination of design data
B
Increased manual handling
C
Independent departments
D
Integrated information and automation

Question 109Single Answer

CAD stands for?

A
Controlled-Axis Design
B
Computer-Automatic Drafting
C
Computer-Aided Design
D
Computer-Aided Development

Question 110Single Answer

CAM stands for?

A
Computer-Aided Manufacturing
B
Computer-Automatic Measurement
C
Controlled-Axis Machining
D
Computer-Aided Management

Question 111Single Answer

CAD is primarily concerned with the use of computers for?

A
Material handling only
B
Heat treatment only
C
Product design and documentation
D
Casting inspection only

Question 112Single Answer

CAM primarily involves computer assistance in?

A
Financial accounting only
B
Manual sketching only
C
Product marketing only
D
Manufacturing planning and control

Question 113Single Answer

Metrology is primarily the science of?

A
Measurement
B
Heat treatment
C
Casting
D
Welding

Question 114Single Answer

Engineering metrology mainly deals with measurement of?

A
Chemical composition only
B
Dimensional and geometrical features
C
Electrical power only
D
Fluid viscosity only

Question 115Single Answer

The true value of a measured quantity is generally considered to be?

A
Independent of measurement standards
B
Always equal to instrument reading
C
Always zero
D
The ideal value approached by accurate measurement

Question 116Single Answer

Accuracy of a measuring instrument refers to closeness of a measured value to the?

A
Least count only
B
Previous reading
C
Maximum range
D
True value

Question 117Single Answer

Precision refers to the closeness of repeated measurements to?

A
Zero
B
The nominal dimension only
C
Each other
D
Maximum tolerance

Question 118Single Answer

Resolution of a measuring instrument is the smallest change in input that can be?

A
Eliminated
B
Calibrated only
C
Ignored
D
Detected

Question 119Single Answer

Sensitivity of a measuring instrument is the ratio of change in output to change in?

A
Weight
B
Temperature only
C
Time only
D
Input

Question 120Single Answer

Repeatability refers to variation in measurements made under?

A
Different dimensions only
B
Completely different instruments and laboratories only
C
Different materials only
D
The same measurement conditions

Question 121Single Answer

Reproducibility refers to measurement variation when conditions such as operator or instrument are?

A
Ignored
B
Kept identical
C
Eliminated
D
Changed

Question 122Single Answer

Calibration establishes the relationship between instrument indication and a?

A
Random estimate
B
Reference standard
C
Machine speed
D
Surface roughness only

Question 123Single Answer

Casting is a manufacturing process in which molten metal is poured into a?

A
Drawing die only
B
Rolling stand
C
Forging die only
D
Mould cavity

Question 124Single Answer

The replica used to form a mould cavity in sand casting is called a?

A
Core
B
Pattern
C
Riser
D
Sprue

Question 125Single Answer

A pattern is generally made slightly larger than the required casting to provide for?

A
Tool wear only
B
Machining speed
C
Shrinkage allowance
D
Welding allowance

Question 126Single Answer

A core in casting is mainly used to produce?

A
Internal cavities
B
External surfaces only
C
Riser heads
D
Pouring basins

Question 127Single Answer

The moulding sand property that allows gases to escape is called?

A
Permeability
B
Plasticity
C
Hardness
D
Toughness

Question 128Single Answer

Green sand moulding uses sand containing?

A
No clay
B
No binder
C
Moisture
D
Molten metal

Question 129Single Answer

Dry sand moulds are generally stronger than?

A
Green sand moulds
B
Metal moulds
C
Ceramic moulds
D
Permanent moulds

Question 130Single Answer

A split pattern is commonly used when a casting shape cannot be withdrawn easily using a?

A
Single-piece pattern
B
Match-plate pattern
C
Loose-piece pattern
D
Sweep pattern

Question 131Single Answer

Match-plate patterns are widely used for?

A
Mass production
B
One-off large castings only
C
Forging only
D
Welding only

Question 132Single Answer

A sweep pattern is particularly suitable for making large?

A
Axisymmetric castings
B
Small gears only
C
Thin sheets
D
Welded joints

Question 133Single Answer

Engineering mechanics primarily deals with the behavior of bodies under the action of?

A
Forces
B
Temperature only
C
Electric current only
D
Chemical reactions

Question 134Single Answer

Statics deals with bodies that are?

A
Undergoing impact only
B
Always accelerating
C
Moving with variable acceleration only
D
In equilibrium

Question 135Single Answer

Dynamics deals with bodies that are?

A
In motion under the action of forces
B
Always at rest
C
Free from forces
D
In thermal equilibrium only

Question 136Single Answer

Dynamics is broadly divided into kinematics and?

A
Kinetics
B
Statics
C
Hydrostatics
D
Thermodynamics

Question 137Single Answer

Kinematics is the study of motion without considering?

A
Velocity
B
Displacement
C
Forces causing the motion
D
Acceleration

Question 138Single Answer

Kinetics relates the motion of a body to the?

A
Temperature of the body
B
Forces causing the motion
C
Chemical composition
D
Surface finish only

Question 139Single Answer

A free-body diagram shows a body isolated from its surroundings along with?

A
All external forces and moments acting on it
B
Internal molecular forces only
C
Temperature distribution
D
Material microstructure

Question 140Single Answer

In drawing a free-body diagram, supports are replaced by?

A
Appropriate reaction forces and moments
B
Internal stresses only
C
Heat fluxes
D
Displacements only

Question 141Single Answer

A roller support on a smooth horizontal surface provides a reaction?

A
As a pure moment only
B
Parallel to the surface
C
In every direction
D
Normal to the surface

Question 142Single Answer

A pin or hinge support in a plane can generally exert?

A
Two force components
B
One moment only
C
One force component only
D
Two force components and one moment

Question 143Single Answer

Engineering materials are selected primarily on the basis of their?

A
Colour only
B
Required properties and service conditions
C
Density only
D
Availability only

Question 144Single Answer

The smallest repeating arrangement of atoms in a crystalline material is called a?

A
Grain boundary
B
Unit cell
C
Phase boundary
D
Dislocation loop

Question 145Single Answer

A crystalline material is characterized by?

A
Completely random atomic arrangement
B
Long-range atomic order
C
Absence of atoms
D
Zero bonding

Question 146Single Answer

An amorphous material generally has?

A
Perfect crystalline order
B
No long-range atomic order
C
Only BCC structure
D
Only FCC structure

Question 147Single Answer

Which crystal structure is possessed by alpha iron at room temperature?

A
Simple cubic
B
Face-centred cubic
C
Hexagonal close-packed
D
Body-centred cubic

Question 148Single Answer

Gamma iron has which crystal structure?

A
Face-centred cubic
B
Body-centred cubic
C
Hexagonal close-packed
D
Simple tetragonal

Question 149Single Answer

Aluminium has which crystal structure at room temperature?

A
Simple cubic
B
BCC
C
HCP
D
FCC

Question 150Single Answer

Copper normally possesses which crystal structure?

A
FCC
B
BCC
C
HCP
D
Orthorhombic

Question 151Single Answer

Refrigeration is the process of?

A
Adding heat to a low-temperature region only
B
Removing heat from a low-temperature region and rejecting it to a high-temperature region
C
Converting heat completely into work
D
Increasing pressure without heat transfer

Question 152Single Answer

The primary objective of a refrigerator is to?

A
Increase atmospheric pressure
B
Maintain a space above surrounding temperature
C
Maintain a space below surrounding temperature
D
Produce mechanical power

Question 153Single Answer

The performance of a refrigerator is expressed by?

A
Volumetric efficiency
B
Thermal efficiency only
C
Mechanical efficiency
D
Coefficient of performance

Question 154Single Answer

COP of a refrigerator is the ratio of refrigeration effect to?

A
Condenser pressure
B
Heat rejected
C
Work input
D
Refrigerant mass

Question 155Single Answer

COP of a refrigerator can theoretically be?

A
Always equal to unity
B
Always less than unity
C
Greater than unity
D
Always zero

Question 156Single Answer

A heat pump is primarily used to?

A
Cool a refrigerated space only
B
Supply heat to a high-temperature region
C
Generate electricity
D
Compress a liquid only

Question 157Single Answer

COP of a heat pump is defined as heat delivered to the warm region divided by?

A
Work input
B
Refrigeration effect
C
Condenser pressure
D
Evaporator temperature

Question 158Single Answer

For the same cycle, COP of a heat pump and refrigerator are related by?

A
COPHP = COPR − 1
B
COPHP = COPR + 1
C
COPHP = 1/COPR
D
COPHP = COPR

Question 159Single Answer

An internal combustion engine is an engine in which fuel combustion occurs?

A
Only in the exhaust pipe
B
Only in an external boiler
C
Inside the engine cylinder or combustion chamber
D
Outside the engine completely

Question 160Single Answer

In a spark-ignition engine, ignition of the charge is initiated by?

A
Fuel injector only
B
Spark plug
C
Compression alone
D
Exhaust valve

Question 161Single Answer

In a compression-ignition engine, fuel ignites mainly due to?

A
Spark plug discharge
B
High temperature of compressed air
C
External flame
D
Battery heating only

Question 162Single Answer

The fuel commonly used in SI engines is?

A
Heavy furnace oil only
B
Diesel only
C
Petrol or gasoline
D
Coal slurry

Question 163Single Answer

The fuel commonly used in conventional CI engines is?

A
Kerosene exclusively
B
Petrol only
C
Diesel
D
LPG only

Question 164Single Answer

In a four-stroke SI engine, one power stroke occurs in?

A
Four crankshaft revolutions
B
One crankshaft revolution
C
Two crankshaft revolutions
D
Half crankshaft revolution

Question 165Single Answer

In a two-stroke engine, one power stroke generally occurs in?

A
Every four revolutions
B
Every two crankshaft revolutions
C
Every crankshaft revolution
D
Every six revolutions

Question 166Single Answer

The compression ratio of a CI engine is generally?

A
Always equal to that of an SI engine
B
Lower than that of an SI engine
C
Higher than that of an SI engine
D
Independent of ignition method

Question 167Single Answer

The main reason for using a high compression ratio in CI engines is to?

A
Eliminate fuel injection
B
Reduce air temperature
C
Raise air temperature sufficiently for self-ignition
D
Reduce cylinder pressure

Question 168Single Answer

The ideal air-standard cycle for an SI engine is the?

A
Diesel cycle
B
Otto cycle
C
Rankine cycle
D
Brayton cycle

Question 169Single Answer

A compressor is a machine used to?

A
Increase the volume of a gas at constant pressure
B
Reduce the temperature of a liquid only
C
Convert heat directly into electricity
D
Increase the pressure of a gas

Question 170Single Answer

A reciprocating compressor is classified as a?

A
Rotodynamic compressor
B
Positive displacement compressor
C
Reaction turbine
D
Impulse machine

Question 171Single Answer

A centrifugal compressor is a type of?

A
Dynamic compressor
B
Positive displacement compressor
C
Reciprocating compressor
D
Rotary piston compressor

Question 172Single Answer

The main function of a compressor is to convert mechanical work into?

A
Gravitational potential energy only
B
Pressure energy of gas
C
Surface energy
D
Nuclear energy

Question 173Single Answer

In a reciprocating compressor, compression takes place inside the?

A
Diffuser only
B
Cylinder
C
Nozzle
D
Turbine casing

Question 174Single Answer

The clearance volume in a reciprocating compressor is the volume between the piston and cylinder head when the piston is at?

A
Top dead centre
B
Bottom dead centre
C
Mid-stroke
D
Suction position only

Question 175Single Answer

A fluid is a substance that?

A
Continuously deforms under any applied shear stress
B
Resists all shear deformation
C
Has a fixed shape under all conditions
D
Cannot exert pressure

Question 176Single Answer

Which of the following is considered a fluid?

A
Liquid only
B
Both liquids and gases
C
Gas only
D
Solid only

Question 177Single Answer

An ideal fluid is generally assumed to be?

A
Compressible with surface tension only
B
Compressible and highly viscous
C
Incompressible and highly viscous
D
Incompressible and non-viscous

Question 178Single Answer

A real fluid possesses?

A
Zero density
B
Viscosity
C
Zero pressure
D
Infinite compressibility

Question 179Single Answer

According to Newton's law of viscosity, shear stress is proportional to?

A
Fluid density only
B
Pressure gradient only
C
Velocity gradient
D
Fluid depth

Question 180Single Answer

A fluid obeying Newton's law of viscosity is called a?

A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal solid
C
Perfect gas only
D
Plastic solid

Question 181Single Answer

The constant of proportionality in Newton's law of viscosity is called?

A
Bulk modulus
B
Surface tension
C
Dynamic viscosity
D
Specific weight

Question 182Single Answer

The SI unit of dynamic viscosity is?

A
Pa·s
B
N/m
C
kg/m³
D
m²/s²

Question 183Single Answer

The dimensions of dynamic viscosity are?

A
L²T⁻¹
B
MLT⁻²
C
ML⁻³
D
ML⁻¹T⁻¹

Question 184Single Answer

Kinematic viscosity is defined as the ratio of dynamic viscosity to?

A
Specific weight
B
Mass density
C
Pressure
D
Surface tension

Question 185Single Answer

A thermodynamic system is defined as?

A
A device producing mechanical work
B
Only a solid body
C
Only an insulated container
D
A fixed quantity of matter or a region selected for study

Question 186Single Answer

The region outside a thermodynamic system is known as?

A
Boundary
B
Control surface
C
Surroundings
D
Phase

Question 187Single Answer

The surface separating a system from its surroundings is called?

A
Interface only
B
Boundary
C
Phase
D
Control volume

Question 188Single Answer

An open thermodynamic system permits the transfer of?

A
Energy only
B
Mass only
C
Neither mass nor energy
D
Both mass and energy

Question 189Single Answer

A closed thermodynamic system allows transfer of?

A
Mass but not energy
B
Both mass and energy necessarily
C
Neither mass nor energy
D
Energy but not mass

Question 190Single Answer

An isolated system exchanges with its surroundings?

A
Heat only
B
Work only
C
Mass only
D
Neither mass nor energy

Question 191Single Answer

A control volume is primarily used for the analysis of?

A
Isolated systems only
B
Open systems
C
Closed systems only
D
Adiabatic walls only

Question 192Single Answer

The boundary of a control volume is called the?

A
Datum surface
B
Isothermal surface
C
Phase surface
D
Control surface

Technical Subject (Mechanical)Technical Subject (Mechanical)

Question 193Single Answer

A machine is a combination of resistant bodies arranged to?

A
Measure stress only
B
Store heat only
C
Prevent all relative motion
D
Transmit and modify forces and motion

Question 194Single Answer

A mechanism is primarily used to?

A
Produce material strength
B
Transmit or transform motion
C
Prevent relative motion
D
Measure temperature

Question 195Single Answer

A resistant body or group of resistant bodies having relative motion is called a?

A
Foundation
B
Structure
C
Link
D
Bearing only

Question 196Single Answer

A kinematic pair is formed when two links are joined so that their relative motion is?

A
Completely arbitrary
B
Constrained
C
Always impossible
D
Purely elastic

Question 197Single Answer

When two links have surface contact, the pair is classified as a?

A
Lower pair
B
Higher pair
C
Open pair
D
Unconstrained pair

Question 198Single Answer

A piston and cylinder form a?

A
Screw pair
B
Turning pair
C
Rolling pair
D
Sliding pair

Question 199Single Answer

A shaft rotating in a bearing forms a?

A
Turning pair
B
Sliding pair
C
Screw pair
D
Spherical pair only

Question 200Single Answer

A nut and screw form a?

A
Turning pair
B
Screw pair
C
Sliding pair only
D
Rolling pair

Question 201Single Answer

Engineering mechanics primarily deals with the behavior of bodies under the action of?

A
Chemical reactions
B
Temperature only
C
Electric current only
D
Forces

Question 202Single Answer

Statics deals with bodies that are?

A
Undergoing impact only
B
Always accelerating
C
Moving with variable acceleration only
D
In equilibrium

Question 203Single Answer

Dynamics deals with bodies that are?

A
Always at rest
B
In motion under the action of forces
C
Free from forces
D
In thermal equilibrium only

Question 204Single Answer

Dynamics is broadly divided into kinematics and?

A
Kinetics
B
Statics
C
Hydrostatics
D
Thermodynamics

Question 205Single Answer

Kinematics is the study of motion without considering?

A
Displacement
B
Forces causing the motion
C
Velocity
D
Acceleration

Question 206Single Answer

Kinetics relates the motion of a body to the?

A
Temperature of the body
B
Forces causing the motion
C
Chemical composition
D
Surface finish only

Question 207Single Answer

A free-body diagram shows a body isolated from its surroundings along with?

A
Internal molecular forces only
B
All external forces and moments acting on it
C
Temperature distribution
D
Material microstructure

Question 208Single Answer

In drawing a free-body diagram, supports are replaced by?

A
Internal stresses only
B
Appropriate reaction forces and moments
C
Heat fluxes
D
Displacements only

Question 209Single Answer

A roller support on a smooth horizontal surface provides a reaction?

A
Parallel to the surface
B
Normal to the surface
C
In every direction
D
As a pure moment only

Question 210Single Answer

A pin or hinge support in a plane can generally exert?

A
One moment only
B
Two force components
C
One force component only
D
Two force components and one moment

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