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Latest GSSSB ATDO Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, English, Aptitude & Reasoning
Question Bank GSSSB Assistant Tribal Development Officer Exam - English
General Knowledge
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 12 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 13 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 14 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 15 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 16 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A.anywhere
B.emitter-collector
C.collector-base
D.base-emitter
Q 17 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A.2 and 4
B.1 only
C.3 and 4
D.4 only
Q 18 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A.S1,S2 and S4
B.S2 and S4
C.S4 only
D.S3 only
Q 19 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 20 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A.same in all the medium
B.lesser in rarer medium
C.lesser in denser medium
D.independent of the medium
Q 21 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 22 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 23 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 24 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 25 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 26 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 27 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 28 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 29 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 30 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 31 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 32 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 33 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 34 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 35 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 36 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 37 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 38 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 39 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 40 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Q 41 :
‘Bharat Drone Shakti exhibition 2023’ was inaugurated in which state/UT ?
A.Rajasthan
B.Punjab
C.Uttar Pradesh
D.Assam
Q 42 :
Which Union Ministry issued the ‘Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2023’ ?
A.Ministry of Home Affairs
B.Ministry of Finance
C.Ministry of External Affairs
D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Q 43 :
Which Union Ministry is associated with which ‘GOBA Rdhan’ scheme ?
A.Ministry of Jal Shakti
B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C.Ministry of MSME
D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Q 44 :
‘Jharia Master Plan’, which was seen in the news, is associated with which Union Ministry ?
A.Ministry of Coal
B.Ministry of MSME
C.Ministry of Steel
D.Ministry of Jal Shakti
Q 45 :
Which country’s women’s cricket team has clinched a gold medal at the Asian Games 2023 ?
A.​ Bangladesh
B.Pakistan
C.India
D.Sri Lanka
Q 46 :
In September 2023, which of the following states achieved 100 per cent Open Defecation Free (ODF) Plus coverage under the flagship Swatch Bharat Mission (Garmin) programme ?
A.Karnataka
B.Uttar Pradesh
C.Chhattisgarh
D.Kerala
Q 47 :
In September 2023, which of the following cities celebrate the Indian languages Bhatia Basho Utah, a 75 day-long event ?
A.Noida
B.Agra
C.Luck now
D.Varanasi
Q 48 :
In September 2023, which of the following institute signed eight agreements with agencies of the ministries of education and skill development and entrepreneurship to empower youth in India with future-ready skills ?
A.IBM
B.IIT
C.IMS
D.BHU
Q 49 :
In September 2023, which of the following countries launched its latest remote-sensing satellite Yaogan-33 04 to be used for scientific experiments, land resource surveys, crop yield estimates, and disaster prevention and relief work .
A.China
B.Japan
C.South Korea
D.Russia
Q 50 :
In September 2023, which of the following organizations launched an investor education and awareness initiative called ‘Seiko Paisa Ki Basho’ in partnership with the Central Board of Secondary Education ?
A.UTI Mutual Fund
B.Axis Mutual Fund
C.Tata Mutual Fund
D.Kotak Mutual Fund
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GSSSB Assistant Tribal Development Officer Exam Question Bank Book - English
In September 2023, which of the following cities Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas Hardees Singh Pure flagged off India’s first green hydrogen fuel cell bus ?
A.Chennai
B.Noida
C.New Delhi
D.Bangalore
Q 52 :
In September 2023, what per cent of India’s villages have achieved the open defecation free-plus status under Swatch Bharat Mission – Garmin ?
A.65%
B.80%
C.70%
D.75%
Q 53 :
In September 2023, which of the following states Tamil Nadu Forest Department joints hand to conduct a synchronized census, as the animal is only found in select habitats in two States, after launching Project Nigeria Tar 2022 for the conservation of the State animal ?
A.Andhra Pradesh
B.Kerala
C.Karnataka
D.Odessa
Q 54 :
Who among the following has been appointed as the new chairman of Tata Advanced Systems ?
A.Sanded Akashi
B.Sashidhar Jagdishan
C.Vijay Singh
D.Bengali Agawam
Q 55 :
Who among the following was awarded the Dadasaheb Pale Lifetime Achievement Award 2021 ?
A.Hema Malini
B.Jaya Bacchant
C.Rocha
D.Wahid Redman
Q 56 :
Indian banks will continue attracting global investment from investors. As of June 30, 2023, what is the total market value of foreign institutional investors’ holdings in Indian banks ?
A.Rs 9.36 trillion
B.Rs 8 trillion
C.Rs 8.36 trillion
D.Rs 7.71 billion
Q 57 :
Who among the following won gold in the women’s 50m Rifle 3-P individual event at the Asian Games 2023 to give India its fifth gold at Hangzhou ?
A.Sift Kaur Samra
B.Manu Bhaker
C.Rhythm Sangwan
D.Esha Singh
Q 58 :
In September 2023, which of the following bank Reserve Bank of India has cancelled its license over inadequate capital and earning prospects ?
A.Juanita Sahakari Bank
B.Kapol Co-Operative Bank
C.Bharat Co-operative Bank
D.Sara swat Bank
Q 59 :
In September 2023, which of the following IT Companies collaborated with Microsoft to enhance enterprise functions with AI-enabled solutions across multiple industries ?
A.Accenture
B.Wipro
C.Infosys
D.TCS
Q 60 :
In September 2023, what is the rank of India, as per the latest Global Innovation Index 2023 released by the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) ?
A.1st
B.37th
C.10th
D.40th
English
Q 61 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 62 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 63 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 64 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 65 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 66 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 67 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 68 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 69 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 70 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 71 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 72 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 73 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 74 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 75 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 76 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 77 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 78 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 79 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 80 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Aptitude & Reasoning
Q 81 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 82 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 83 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 84 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 85 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 86 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 87 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 88 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 89 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 90 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 91 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 92 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 93 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 94 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 95 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 96 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 97 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 98 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 99 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 100 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 101 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 102 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 103 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 104 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Q 105 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 106 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 107 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 108 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 109 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 110 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
