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Objective Questions

Latest GSSSB Female Health Worker Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Reasoning and Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Indian Constitution, Current Affairs, Gujarati & English Comprehension, Technical Subject

Question Bank GSSSB Female Health Worker Exam - English

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Reasoning and Data Interpretation

Question 1Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 2Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 3Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 4Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 5Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 6Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 7Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 8Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 9Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 10Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 11Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 12Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 13Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 14Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 15Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

Find the missing number in the following series ?

3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?

A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)

If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?

A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP

Question 21Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :

How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 22Single Answer

Passage :

The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 23Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 24Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 25Single Answer

Passage :

What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 26Single Answer

Passage :

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 27Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 28Single Answer

Passage :

What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 29Single Answer

Passage :

What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 30Single Answer

Passage :

How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Quantitative Aptitude

Question 31Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 32Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 33Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 34Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 35Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 36Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 37Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 38Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 39Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 40Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 41Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 42Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 43Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 44Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 45Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 46Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 47Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 48Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 49Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 50Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

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Quantitative Aptitude

Question 51Single Answer

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26

Question 52Single Answer

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8

Question 53Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 54Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 55Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 56Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 57Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

Question 58Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?

A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these

Question 59Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?

A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A

Question 60Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?

A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%

Indian Constitution, Current Affairs, Gujarati & English Comprehension

Question 61Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 62Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 63Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 64Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 65Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 66Single Answer

"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?

A
વાતચીત
B
આક્રમણ
C
ખેડૂત
D
ધમાધમ

Question 67Single Answer

"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?

A
સંગઠન
B
વ્યવસ્થા
C
સંવિદાન
D
અનવરત

Question 68Single Answer

"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?

A
અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B
વિઘટન
C
વિદ્યા
D
આકર્ષણ

Question 69Single Answer

"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?

A
ધૂપ
B
દૂર
C
જગ્યા
D
આવેશ

Question 70Single Answer

"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?

A
ગોલ
B
ધબ્બુ
C
સાંજ
D
ઉદ્દેશ

Question 71Single Answer

Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935

Question 72Single Answer

Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 73Single Answer

'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above

Question 74Single Answer

Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?

A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 75Single Answer

As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.

A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court

Question 76Single Answer

Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -

A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction

Question 77Single Answer

Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?

A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above

Question 78Single Answer

The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :

A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above

Question 79Single Answer

The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -

A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947

Question 80Single Answer

Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?

A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan

Question 81Single Answer

Which country holds the BRICS Chairmanship in 2026?

A
Brazil
B
Russia
C
China
D
India

Question 82Single Answer

What is the theme of India’s BRICS Chairmanship 2026?

A
Inclusive Growth for All
B
Sustainable Global Economy
C
One Earth One Future
D
Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability

Question 83Single Answer

Where was the BRICS Foreign Ministers' Meeting held in May 2026?

A
Mumbai
B
Hyderabad
C
Bengaluru
D
New Delhi

Question 84Single Answer

Which summit on Artificial Intelligence was hosted by India in February 2026?

A
World AI Congress
B
AI Action Summit
C
India AI Impact Summit 2026
D
Global AI Forum

Question 85Single Answer

Where was the India AI Impact Summit 2026 organized?

A
Pragati Maidan, Delhi
B
Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
C
Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
D
Hyderabad International Convention Centre

Question 86Single Answer

Which ministry organized the India AI Impact Summit 2026?

A
Ministry of Science and Technology
B
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
C
Ministry of Commerce
D
Ministry of Education

Question 87Single Answer

Which city is expected to host the G20 Summit 2026?

A
New York
B
Washington D.C.
C
Miami
D
Los Angeles

Question 88Single Answer

Which country is scheduled to host the BRICS Summit 2026?

A
China
B
India
C
South Africa
D
Brazil

Question 89Single Answer

Which country is expected to host COP31 Climate Summit 2026?

A
France
B
UAE
C
Germany
D
Turkey

Question 90Single Answer

Which city hosted the Regional AI Impact Conference 2026?

A
Chennai
B
Jaipur
C
Pune
D
Kochi

Technical Subject

Question 91Single Answer

What is the primary assessment tool used to evaluate a child's developmental milestones ?

A
Apgar score
B
Denver Developmental Screening Test
C
Glasgow Coma Scale
D
Barthel Index

Question 92Single Answer

At what age should a child typically start walking independently ?

A
6 months
B
9 months
C
12 months
D
18 months

Question 93Single Answer

Which vaccine is recommended for infants at 2, 4, and 6 months of age ?

A
Hepatitis B
B
Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
C
Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis (DTP)
D
Varicella

Question 94Single Answer

What is the most common cause of respiratory distress in a newborn ?

A
Pneumonia
B
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
C
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
D
Asthma

Question 95Single Answer

Which condition is characterized by a high fever, sore throat, and a "strawberry tongue" in children ?

A
Scarlet fever
B
Strep throat
C
Hand, foot, and mouth disease
D
Mononucleosis

Question 96Single Answer

What is the primary goal of national mental health programs ?

A
To improve access to mental health services and protect the rights of the mentally ill
B
To limit access to mental health care
C
To focus solely on psychiatric hospitals
D
To ignore human rights issues

Question 97Single Answer

Which international document outlines the human rights of individuals with mental illness ?

A
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B
The Geneva Convention
C
The Paris Agreement
D
The Convention on the Rights of the Child

Question 98Single Answer

Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

A
Blood circulation
B
Heat generation
C
Support and protection
D
Digestion

Question 99Single Answer

Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system?

A
Ovary
B
Fallopian tube
C
Prostate gland
D
Uterus

Question 100Single Answer

Where does fertilization of the ovum typically occur?

A
Ovary
B
Uterus
C
Cervix
D
Fallopian tube

Question 101Single Answer

The primary function of the testis is to:

A
Produce urine
B
Produce sperm and testosterone
C
Regulate blood sugar
D
Control temperature

Question 102Single Answer

Which hormone is mainly responsible for the development of female secondary sex characteristics?

A
Testosterone
B
Estrogen
C
Oxytocin
D
Prolactin

Question 103Single Answer

What is the function of the uterus?

A
Urine formation
B
Sperm production
C
Implantation and growth of the embryo
D
Hormone secretion

Question 104Single Answer

Which of the following is a male accessory reproductive gland?

A
Bartholin gland
B
Seminal vesicle
C
Cervical gland
D
Urethral gland

Question 105Single Answer

Which organ connects the uterus to the external genitalia in females?

A
Ovary
B
Fallopian tube
C
Vagina
D
Cervix

Question 106Single Answer

The scrotum helps in:

A
Sperm production
B
Hormone secretion
C
Temperature regulation for sperm
D
Fertilization

Question 107Single Answer

Which structure produces ova?

A
Uterus
B
Ovary
C
Fallopian tube
D
Vagina

Question 108Single Answer

Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system?

A
Penis
B
Testes
C
Prostate gland
D
Cervix

Question 109Single Answer

Community health nursing focuses on:

A
Hospital patients only
B
Individuals with chronic illness
C
People in community settings
D
Only children

Question 110Single Answer

The main goal of community health nursing is:

A
Promote hospital admission
B
Promote and preserve health of community
C
Give injections only
D
Isolate patients

Question 111Single Answer

What is the full form of PHC?

A
Private Health Clinic
B
Primary Health Centre
C
Public Health Council
D
Personal Health Care

Question 112Single Answer

Which of the following is an element of primary health care?

A
Advanced surgery
B
Health education
C
CT scan services
D
Organ transplant

Question 113Single Answer

The Alma-Ata declaration of 1978 is related to:

A
Community health nursing
B
School health
C
Primary health care
D
Hospital care

Question 114Single Answer

The principle of primary health care includes:

A
Specialization
B
Community participation
C
Expensive treatment
D
Tertiary care only

Question 115Single Answer

Which level of prevention focuses on early diagnosis and prompt treatment?

A
Primary
B
Secondary
C
Tertiary
D
None

Question 116Single Answer

Community health is defined as:

A
Care to individuals in clinics
B
Care to only pregnant women
C
Health care provided to population groups
D
Emergency care in hospital

Question 117Single Answer

Primary health care is mainly delivered at:

A
Tertiary hospitals
B
PHC and Sub-Centres
C
Medical colleges
D
Clinics in malls

Question 118Single Answer

Community participation is a principle of:

A
Curative health care
B
Primary health care
C
Intensive care
D
Palliative care

Question 119Single Answer

By what age does a child usually triple its birth weight?

A
6 months
B
9 months
C
1 year
D
2 years

Question 120Single Answer

What is the normal head circumference of a newborn?

A
30–33 cm
B
33–35 cm
C
36–38 cm
D
25–28 cm

Question 121Single Answer

Fontanelle closure usually completes by the age of:

A
6 months
B
12 months
C
18 months
D
24 months

Question 122Single Answer

At what age does a child usually start to walk without support?

A
6 months
B
9 months
C
12–15 months
D
18 months

Question 123Single Answer

The first tooth eruption typically occurs at:

A
4–6 months
B
6–8 months
C
10–12 months
D
1 year

Question 124Single Answer

The head circumference and chest circumference become equal at:

A
Birth
B
6 months
C
1 year
D
2 years

Question 125Single Answer

The average height of a 1-year-old child is approximately:

A
50 cm
B
60 cm
C
75 cm
D
90 cm

Question 126Single Answer

The first social smile appears by the age of:

A
1 week
B
1 month
C
2 months
D
6 months

Question 127Single Answer

A 6-month-old baby should be able to:

A
Sit with support
B
Crawl
C
Walk
D
Speak 2–3 words

Question 128Single Answer

A child is expected to double its birth weight by:

A
1 month
B
3 months
C
5 months
D
8 months

Question 129Single Answer

Which of the following is an infectious disease?

A
Diabetes
B
Tuberculosis
C
Hypertension
D
Scurvy

Question 130Single Answer

The term ‘pathogen refers to:

A
A healthy cell
B
A disease-causing microorganism
C
A nutrient
D
A vaccine

Question 131Single Answer

The agent responsible for malaria is:

A
Virus
B
Fungus
C
Protozoa
D
Bacteria

Question 132Single Answer

Which of the following is a vector-borne disease?

A
Cholera
B
Typhoid
C
Dengue
D
Tuberculosis

Question 133Single Answer

The most common mode of transmission of the common cold is:

A
Vector
B
Airborne droplets
C
Contaminated food
D
Sexual contact

Question 134Single Answer

Which organism causes tuberculosis?

A
Streptococcus
B
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C
Salmonella typhi
D
Plasmodium

Question 135Single Answer

Infection can be defined as:

A
Use of contaminated water
B
Invasion of the body by pathogens
C
Increase in body weight
D
Use of antibiotics

Question 136Single Answer

A disease that spreads rapidly across a large region is called:

A
Epidemic
B
Endemic
C
Sporadic
D
Pandemic

Question 137Single Answer

Which of the following is a viral disease?

A
Malaria
B
Tuberculosis
C
Measles
D
Typhoid

Question 138Single Answer

Carrier is a person who:

A
Has recovered completely
B
Shows no symptoms but spreads disease
C
Is immune to all diseases
D
Has no contact with patients

Question 139Single Answer

The most common portal of entry for respiratory infections is:

A
Skin
B
Nose and mouth
C
Eye
D
Ear

Question 140Single Answer

Which of the following is a waterborne disease?

A
Influenza
B
Malaria
C
Cholera
D
Measles

Question 141Single Answer

Typhoid is caused by:

A
Virus
B
Protozoa
C
Bacteria
D
Fungi

Question 142Single Answer

Chickenpox is caused by:

A
Herpes zoster virus
B
Varicella-zoster virus
C
Measles virus
D
Influenza virus

Question 143Single Answer

Hepatitis B is primarily transmitted through:

A
Contaminated water
B
Air droplets
C
Contact with infected blood
D
Mosquito bites

Question 144Single Answer

Which of the following is not a communicable disease?

A
Hepatitis
B
Tuberculosis
C
Cancer
D
Cholera

Question 145Single Answer

The period between infection and appearance of symptoms is known as:

A
Incubation period
B
Infective period
C
Latent period
D
Remission period

Question 146Single Answer

Who is primarily responsible for organizing sub-centres at the village level?

A
ASHA
B
ANM
C
Medical Officer
D
Pharmacist

Question 147Single Answer

The sub-centre is considered the ______ level of the health care delivery system.

A
Highest
B
First contact
C
Secondary
D
Urban

Question 148Single Answer

According to IPHS, a sub-centre serves a population of:

A
5,000 in plain areas and 3,000 in hilly/tribal areas
B
2,000 in all areas
C
10,000 in plain areas
D
8,000 in all areas

Question 149Single Answer

Scheduled activities at sub-centres include:

A
Immunization
B
Family planning services
C
Maternal and child health care
D
All of the above

Question 150Single Answer

The ANM reports directly to:

A
ASHA
B
Community leader
C
Health Assistant (Female) or LHV
D
Block Development Officer

Question 151Single Answer

Sub-centres are funded under which program?

A
National Health Mission (NHM)
B
PMAY
C
RKVY
D
SSA

Question 152Single Answer

Sub-centres must submit monthly reports to:

A
Village Panchayat
B
PHC
C
District Magistrate
D
Collector

Question 153Single Answer

The main purpose of organizing a clinic at sub-centre is:

A
Promote curative services only
B
Provide comprehensive preventive, promotive, and basic curative services
C
Sell medicines
D
Provide ambulance services

Question 154Single Answer

What is essential before organizing a health camp at a sub-centre?

A
Media promotion
B
Community mobilization and planning
C
Buying expensive equipment
D
Television advertisement

Question 155Single Answer

Which of the following tools help ANMs plan their scheduled activities?

A
Wall clock
B
Family folders and due list registers
C
Radio
D
Newsletters

Question 156Single Answer

How often are immunization sessions typically conducted at a sub-centre?

A
Once in 3 months
B
Weekly or as per microplan
C
Annually
D
Every day

Question 157Single Answer

The activities of a sub-centre are supervised by:

A
LHV/Health Supervisor
B
Collector
C
Panchayat Secretary
D
Anganwadi Worker

Question 158Single Answer

Which register is used to track antenatal care?

A
OPD register
B
ANC register
C
Drug register
D
Referral register

Question 159Single Answer

For what purpose is a microplan prepared at a sub-centre?

A
Health education
B
Organizing scheduled outreach activities effectively
C
Conducting meetings
D
Budget preparation

Question 160Single Answer

Clinics at sub-centres are generally held on:

A
Random days
B
Market days
C
Fixed days as per schedule
D
Festivals

Question 161Single Answer

Which nutrient is the primary source of energy in the body?

A
Protein
B
Carbohydrates
C
Fat
D
Vitamins

Question 162Single Answer

Protein is primarily required in the body for:

A
Energy
B
Repair and growth of tissues
C
Bone development
D
Vision improvement

Question 163Single Answer

Which mineral is essential for the formation of hemoglobin?

A
Iodine
B
Calcium
C
Iron
D
Zinc

Question 164Single Answer

Fat-soluble vitamins include:

A
B-complex and C
B
A, D, E, K
C
B1, B2, B6
D
C and D

Question 165Single Answer

A deficiency of Vitamin A may lead to:

A
Scurvy
B
Night blindness
C
Rickets
D
Anemia

Question 166Single Answer

What is the function of dietary fiber?

A
Provides energy
B
Builds muscle
C
Aids in digestion
D
Increases blood pressure

Question 167Single Answer

Kwashiorkor is caused due to the deficiency of:

A
Fats
B
Proteins
C
Carbohydrates
D
Iron

Question 168Single Answer

Which food is a good source of Vitamin C?

A
Milk
B
Citrus fruits
C
Wheat
D
Rice

Question 169Single Answer

Pellagra is caused due to deficiency of which vitamin?

A
Vitamin B1
B
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
C
Vitamin D
D
Vitamin K

Question 170Single Answer

The energy value of 1 gram of protein is:

A
4 kcal
B
7 kcal
C
9 kcal
D
2 kcal

Question 171Single Answer

A balanced diet includes:

A
Only carbohydrates and fats
B
Only proteins and vitamins
C
All nutrients in right proportion
D
Only energy-giving foods

Question 172Single Answer

What is the major function of iron in the body?

A
Strengthen bones
B
Aid in digestion
C
Oxygen transport in blood
D
Improve eyesight

Question 173Single Answer

Marasmus is a result of:

A
Excess fat intake
B
Deficiency of all macronutrients
C
Excess protein intake
D
Vitamin B12 overdose

Question 174Single Answer

Which nutrient helps in calcium absorption?

A
Vitamin A
B
Vitamin B
C
Vitamin D
D
Vitamin C

Question 175Single Answer

Which group is more vulnerable to malnutrition?

A
Adults
B
Infants and children
C
Middle-aged men
D
Senior citizens

Question 176Single Answer

What is the first priority in any first aid situation?

A
Treating minor injuries
B
Ensuring your own safety
C
Calling emergency services
D
Comforting the victim

Question 177Single Answer

The acronym "ABC" in first aid stands for:

A
Airway, Blood, Circulation
B
Airway, Breathing, Circulation
C
Action, Breathing, Compression
D
Alert, Bleeding, Cure

Question 178Single Answer

When dealing with severe bleeding, what is the first action you should take?

A
Apply antiseptic
B
Apply direct pressure
C
Clean the wound
D
Elevate the wound

Question 179Single Answer

What is the primary focus of pediatric nursing?

A
Managing chronic illnesses in adults
B
Providing surgical care for elderly patients
C
Promoting optimal health and development in children
D
Conducting community health surveys

Question 180Single Answer

Which age group is primarily addressed by pediatric nursing?

A
65 years and above
B
18 to 65 years
C
Birth to 18 years
D
Birth to 12 years

Question 181Single Answer

What is a key characteristic of pediatric nursing care?

A
Family-centered approach
B
Disease-centered approach
C
Institution-centered approach
D
Procedure-centered approach

Question 182Single Answer

Which organization sets standards for pediatric nursing practice in the United States?

A
American Nurses Association
B
American Medical Association
C
World Health Organization
D
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

Question 183Single Answer

What is the role of a pediatric nurse in preventive care?

A
Administering only emergency treatments
B
Managing hospital finances
C
Performing complex surgical procedures
D
Educating families on immunizations and safety

Question 184Single Answer

What is a balanced diet?

A
A diet containing only carbohydrates and fats
B
A diet that supplies all essential nutrients in appropriate proportions to meet the body's needs
C
A diet rich only in proteins
D
A diet with unlimited calories

Question 185Single Answer

Most important function of community health nursing is?

A
Surgery
B
Radiology
C
ICU care
D
Home and community care

Question 186Single Answer

Community diagnosis means?

A
Hospital diagnosis
B
Surgery diagnosis
C
Identification of community health problems
D
Lab diagnosis only

Question 187Single Answer

Health survey is used for?

A
Data collection of community health
B
Surgery planning
C
ICU care
D
Dialysis

Question 188Single Answer

Most important source of community health data is?

A
Weather report
B
Census
C
Surgery records
D
X-ray

Question 189Single Answer

Census in India is conducted every?

A
2 years
B
10 years
C
5 years
D
15 years

Question 190Single Answer

Primary prevention is aimed at?

A
Early diagnosis
B
Rehabilitation
C
Disability limitation
D
Prevention of disease occurrence

Question 191Single Answer

Secondary prevention focuses on?

A
Health promotion
B
Rehabilitation
C
Early diagnosis and treatment
D
Risk elimination

Question 192Single Answer

Tertiary prevention includes?

A
Immunization
B
Health education
C
Rehabilitation
D
Screening

Question 193Single Answer

Quaternary prevention refers to?

A
Disease cure
B
Prevention of overmedicalization
C
Vaccination
D
Surgery

Question 194Single Answer

The main aim of primary health care is?

A
Health for all
B
Hospital-based care
C
Specialist care
D
Emergency care only

Question 195Single Answer

What is the primary function of a Sub-centre in rural healthcare?

A
Conducting surgeries
B
Managing medical colleges
C
Providing primary healthcare services
D
Manufacturing medicines

Question 196Single Answer

Which health worker is commonly posted at a Sub-centre?

A
Cardiologist
B
Radiologist
C
Surgeon
D
ANM

Question 197Single Answer

What does ANM stand for?

A
Allied Nursing Medical
B
Assistant Nursing Member
C
Advanced Nurse Manager
D
Auxiliary Nurse Midwife

Question 198Single Answer

Which register is maintained at the Sub-centre for pregnant women?

A
Birth Register
B
OPD Register
C
Death Register
D
Antenatal Register

Question 199Single Answer

What is the main purpose of stock maintenance in a health centre?

A
Avoiding shortage of supplies
B
Decoration
C
Increasing staff
D
Conducting meetings

Question 200Single Answer

In Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM), the most appropriate diet is?

A
Zero protein diet
B
Low protein, low calorie diet
C
High fat, low carbohydrate diet
D
High protein, high calorie diet

Question 201Single Answer

Introduction to midwifery mainly focuses on?

A
Surgical procedures
B
Care of newborn only
C
Adult medical diseases
D
Pregnancy, childbirth and postpartum care

Question 202Single Answer

The word “midwife” literally means?

A
With child
B
With woman
C
With doctor
D
With nurse

Question 203Single Answer

The primary role of a midwife is?

A
Prescribing medicines only
B
Assisting surgeries
C
Providing maternal and newborn care
D
Performing radiology

Question 204Single Answer

Midwifery is best described as?

A
A medical specialty
B
A surgical field
C
A nursing branch focused on women’s health
D
A diagnostic science

Question 205Single Answer

The focus of midwifery care is mainly on?

A
Disease treatment only
B
Psychiatric care
C
Orthopedic care
D
Holistic care of women during reproduction

Question 206Single Answer

Which stage is NOT part of midwifery care?

A
Dermatology care
B
Intrapartum care
C
Postnatal care
D
Antenatal care

Question 207Single Answer

Antenatal care refers to care given during?

A
Before pregnancy
B
After delivery
C
During pregnancy
D
After menopause

Question 208Single Answer

Intrapartum care is provided during?

A
Pregnancy
B
Labour and delivery
C
Postnatal period
D
Neonatal period

Question 209Single Answer

Postnatal care refers to care after?

A
Delivery
B
Conception
C
Menopause
D
Puberty

Question 210Single Answer

The midwife primarily works in?

A
Operation theatre only
B
Pharmacy
C
Laboratory only
D
Community and hospital settings

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