Question for GSSSB Horticulture Assistant 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest GSSSB Horticulture Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Comprehension, Technical Qualification (Horticulture Assistant)

Question Bank GSSSB Horticulture Assistant Exam - English

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Reasoning & Data Interpretation

Question 1Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 2Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 3Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 4Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 5Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 6Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 7Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 8Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 9Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :

How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 10Single Answer

Passage :

The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 11Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 12Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 13Single Answer

Passage :

What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 14Single Answer

Passage :

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 15Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Comprehension

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 21Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 22Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 23Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 24Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 25Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 26Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 27Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 28Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 29Single Answer

Passage :

Find the missing number in the following series ?

3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?

A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69

Question 30Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)

If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?

A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP

Question 31Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 32Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 33Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 34Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 35Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

Question 36Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 37Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 38Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 39Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 40Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 41Single Answer

"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?

A
વાતચીત
B
આક્રમણ
C
ખેડૂત
D
ધમાધમ

Question 42Single Answer

"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?

A
સંગઠન
B
વ્યવસ્થા
C
સંવિદાન
D
અનવરત

Question 43Single Answer

"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?

A
અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B
વિઘટન
C
વિદ્યા
D
આકર્ષણ

Question 44Single Answer

"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?

A
ધૂપ
B
દૂર
C
જગ્યા
D
આવેશ

Question 45Single Answer

"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?

A
ગોલ
B
ધબ્બુ
C
સાંજ
D
ઉદ્દેશ

Question 46Single Answer

Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935

Question 47Single Answer

Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 48Single Answer

'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?

A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above

Question 49Single Answer

Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?

A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947

Question 50Single Answer

As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.

A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court

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Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Comprehension

Question 51Single Answer

Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -

A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction

Question 52Single Answer

Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?

A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above

Question 53Single Answer

The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :

A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above

Question 54Single Answer

The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -

A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947

Question 55Single Answer

Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?

A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan

Question 56Single Answer

Which platform was launched by the Gujarat government in partnership with Meta to provide citizen services through WhatsApp?

A
Jan Seva Connect
B
Gujarat Digital Mitra
C
Smart Gujarat Portal
D
WhatsApp Governance Services

Question 57Single Answer

How many citizen-centric services were initially made available through the Gujarat government–Meta initiative?

A
20
B
15
C
10
D
25

Question 58Single Answer

Which city remained the administrative center of major government announcements in Gujarat during May 2026?

A
Gandhinagar
B
Rajkot
C
Vadodara
D
Surat

Question 59Single Answer

Which sector received a major boost through new state-level policy initiatives in May 2026?

A
Fisheries
B
Education Infrastructure
C
Aviation
D
Mining

Question 60Single Answer

What amount was approved by the Gujarat government for new schools and educational infrastructure?

A
₹150 crore
B
₹330 crore
C
₹220 crore
D
₹500 crore

Question 61Single Answer

What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?

A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat

Question 62Single Answer

Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan

Question 63Single Answer

Where was the 2026 SCO Leaders’ Summit held?

A
Tashkent
B
Bishkek
C
Dushanbe
D
Astana

Question 64Single Answer

India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?

A
Strategic Partnership
B
Economic Partnership
C
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D
Defence Partnership

Question 65Single Answer

Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?

A
ONGC and IOCL
B
GAIL and NTPC
C
PNGRB and EESL
D
HPCL and BPCL

Quantitative Aptitude

Question 66Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 67Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 68Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 69Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 70Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 71Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 72Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 73Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 74Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 75Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 76Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 77Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 78Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 79Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 80Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 81Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 82Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 83Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 84Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 85Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 86Single Answer

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26

Question 87Single Answer

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8

Question 88Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 89Single Answer

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?

A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime

Question 90Single Answer

Product of all factors of 10 is ?

A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000

Technical Qualification (Horticulture Assistant)

Question 91Single Answer

The branch of horticulture concerned with fruit crops is called:

A
Olericulture
B
Floriculture
C
Pomology
D
Arboriculture

Question 92Single Answer

Olericulture is the science dealing with the production of:

A
Fruits
B
Flowers
C
Vegetables
D
Spices

Question 93Single Answer

Floriculture primarily deals with:

A
Plantation crops
B
Fruit crops
C
Medicinal crops
D
Flower and ornamental crops

Question 94Single Answer

Which of the following is a perennial fruit crop?

A
Tomato
B
Cabbage
C
Radish
D
Mango

Question 95Single Answer

Which fruit is particularly rich in vitamin C?

A
Fig
B
Sapota
C
Banana
D
Aonla

Question 96Single Answer

Papaya is especially well known as a source of:

A
Bromelain
B
Papain
C
Caffeine
D
Piperine

Question 97Single Answer

Bromelain is commercially obtained from:

A
Pineapple
B
Mango
C
Banana
D
Guava

Question 98Single Answer

Lycopene is an important pigment found abundantly in:

A
Cabbage
B
Potato
C
Tomato
D
Cauliflower

Question 99Single Answer

Carotene is a precursor of:

A
Vitamin B₁₂
B
Vitamin A
C
Vitamin C
D
Vitamin K

Question 100Single Answer

: A kitchen garden is primarily established to:

A
Supply fresh vegetables and fruits to a family
B
Produce export crops
C
Grow only ornamental plants
D
Produce plantation crops

Question 101Single Answer

: A garden established mainly for supplying vegetables to nearby urban markets is known as a:

A
Kitchen garden
B
Market garden
C
Botanical garden
D
Roof garden

Question 102Single Answer

: In the square system of planting, trees are planted at:

A
Random locations
B
Corners of triangles only
C
Corners of squares
D
Circular intervals

Question 103Single Answer

: In the rectangular system, the distance between rows is:

A
Different from distance between plants
B
Always equal to distance between plants
C
Zero
D
Unimportant

Question 104Single Answer

: Which planting system accommodates approximately 15% more plants than the square system at the same spacing?

A
Rectangular system
B
Contour system
C
Square system
D
Hexagonal system

Question 105Single Answer

: The quincunx system is also known as the:

A
Terrace system
B
Contour system
C
Hedge system
D
Filler system

Question 106Single Answer

: Filler trees in a quincunx system are generally:

A
Permanent trees
B
Windbreak trees only
C
Forest trees
D
Temporary trees

Question 107Single Answer

: Contour planting is most suitable for:

A
Flat plains
B
Desert dunes only
C
Marshlands
D
Sloping lands

Question 108Single Answer

: High-density planting primarily aims to:

A
Reduce the number of plants per hectare
B
Increase plant population per unit area
C
Eliminate pruning
D
Avoid irrigation

Question 109Single Answer

: Orchard layout should preferably be done before:

A
Planting
B
Fruit harvesting
C
Pruning
D
Grading

Question 110Single Answer

: Windbreaks in orchards are mainly planted to:

A
Reduce wind velocity
B
Increase wind speed
C
Increase soil salinity
D
Prevent flowering

Question 111Single Answer

The branch of horticulture dealing with vegetable production is known as:

A
Pomology
B
Olericulture
C
Floriculture
D
Silviculture

Question 112Single Answer

A vegetable is generally defined as an edible portion of a herbaceous plant consumed as:

A
Only dessert
B
Only medicine
C
Only beverage
D
Food in fresh or cooked form

Question 113Single Answer

Which vegetable is particularly rich in provitamin A?

A
Carrot
B
Potato
C
Onion
D
Garlic

Question 114Single Answer

Green leafy vegetables are generally rich sources of:

A
Only starch
B
Only fats
C
Vitamins and minerals
D
Only proteins

Question 115Single Answer

Tomato is nutritionally important mainly because it contains:

A
Curcumin
B
Lycopene
C
Piperine
D
Caffeine

Question 116Single Answer

Lycopene is responsible for the red colour of:

A
Tomato
B
Spinach
C
Cabbage
D
Cauliflower

Question 117Single Answer

The edible portion of cauliflower is the:

A
Root
B
Fruit
C
Curd
D
Tuber

Question 118Single Answer

The edible portion of cabbage is mainly the:

A
Compact leafy head
B
Root
C
Flower bud
D
Tuber

Question 119Single Answer

The edible portion of carrot is a modified:

A
Flower
B
Stem
C
Leaf
D
Root

Question 120Single Answer

: Potato is botanically a modified:

A
Bulb
B
Root tuber
C
Stem tuber
D
Rhizome

Question 121Single Answer

: Sweet potato is a modified:

A
Tuberous root
B
Stem tuber
C
Bulb
D
Corm

Question 122Single Answer

: Onion is primarily classified as a:

A
Root vegetable
B
Bulb vegetable
C
Fruit vegetable
D
Tuber vegetable

Question 123Single Answer

: Garlic is commercially propagated mainly by:

A
Rhizomes
B
True seed
C
Tubers
D
Cloves

Question 124Single Answer

: Tomato, brinjal and chilli belong to the family:

A
Brassicaceae
B
Cucurbitaceae
C
Fabaceae
D
Solanaceae

Question 125Single Answer

: Okra belongs to the family:

A
Apiaceae
B
Solanaceae
C
Fabaceae
D
Malvaceae

Question 126Single Answer

: Cucumber belongs to the family:

A
Brassicaceae
B
Solanaceae
C
Cucurbitaceae
D
Amaranthaceae

Question 127Single Answer

: Pea belongs to the family:

A
Liliaceae
B
Solanaceae
C
Malvaceae
D
Fabaceae

Question 128Single Answer

: Cabbage belongs to the family:

A
Fabaceae
B
Solanaceae
C
Brassicaceae
D
Apiaceae

Question 129Single Answer

: Carrot belongs to the family:

A
Apiaceae
B
Brassicaceae
C
Solanaceae
D
Malvaceae

Question 130Single Answer

: Classification of vegetables according to edible plant parts is useful mainly for:

A
Determining chromosome number only
B
Determining rainfall only
C
Understanding cultural requirements and utilization
D
Determining market price only

Question 131Single Answer

The branch of horticulture dealing with flowers and ornamental plants is called:

A
Pomology
B
Olericulture
C
Floriculture
D
Arboriculture

Question 132Single Answer

Floriculture primarily includes the cultivation of:

A
Flowers and ornamental plants
B
Field crops only
C
Forest trees only
D
Cereals only

Question 133Single Answer

Commercial floriculture is mainly concerned with:

A
Oilseed production
B
Production of cereals
C
Forest management
D
Production of flowers and ornamental plants for market

Question 134Single Answer

Which is an important economic product of floriculture?

A
Cut flowers
B
Wheat grain
C
Paddy straw
D
Cotton lint only

Question 135Single Answer

Which of the following is commonly sold as a loose flower?

A
Gladiolus
B
Marigold
C
Anthurium
D
Gerbera

Question 136Single Answer

Ornamental plants are grown mainly for their:

A
Fibre only
B
Grain yield
C
Aesthetic value
D
Timber only

Question 137Single Answer

Sexual propagation of ornamental plants is mainly through:

A
Seeds
B
Cuttings
C
Grafting
D
Layering

Question 138Single Answer

Vegetative propagation produces plants that are usually:

A
Always seedless
B
Highly variable
C
True to type
D
Always dwarf

Question 139Single Answer

Which is a vegetative propagation method?

A
Fertilization
B
Seed sowing
C
Pollination
D
Cutting

Question 140Single Answer

: Stem cuttings are commonly used to propagate:

A
Pulses only
B
Cereals
C
Many ornamental shrubs
D
Oilseeds only

Question 141Single Answer

: Rooting of cuttings can be enhanced by:

A
ABA only
B
Ethylene only
C
IBA
D
CCC only

Question 142Single Answer

: Air layering is commonly used in ornamental:

A
Grasses only
B
Shrubs and woody plants
C
Annuals only
D
Bulbs only

Question 143Single Answer

: Grafting involves joining:

A
Stock and scion
B
Root and seed
C
Flower and fruit
D
Leaf and pollen

Question 144Single Answer

: Budding uses as scion material primarily:

A
Entire root system
B
A single bud
C
Seed
D
Fruit

Question 145Single Answer

: Division is commonly used for propagating:

A
Palms only
B
Tall trees only
C
Clump-forming perennials
D
Annuals only

Question 146Single Answer

: Bulbs are used to propagate:

A
Rose
B
Lily
C
Bougainvillea
D
Hibiscus

Question 147Single Answer

: Corms are commonly associated with:

A
Rose
B
Jasmine
C
Gladiolus
D
Marigold

Question 148Single Answer

: Rhizomes are underground:

A
Leaves
B
Modified roots
C
Modified stems
D
Flowers

Question 149Single Answer

: An ideal potting medium should have:

A
Permanent waterlogging
B
Good drainage and aeration
C
High compaction
D
Very high salinity

Question 150Single Answer

: Cocopeat is widely used as a:

A
Herbicide
B
Potting medium component
C
Fungicide
D
Insecticide

Question 151Single Answer

Post-harvest technology primarily deals with horticultural produce:

A
Before sowing only
B
After harvest until consumption or processing
C
Only during flowering
D
Only during irrigation

Question 152Single Answer

The main objective of post-harvest technology is to:

A
Maintain quality and reduce losses
B
Increase post-harvest losses
C
Increase respiration
D
Accelerate deterioration

Question 153Single Answer

Post-harvest losses in fruits and vegetables may be:

A
Quantitative and qualitative
B
Qualitative only
C
Quantitative only
D
Genetic only

Question 154Single Answer

Mechanical injury to harvested produce commonly occurs during:

A
Flower initiation
B
Pollination only
C
Seed germination
D
Harvesting and handling

Question 155Single Answer

Fruits and vegetables generally contain a high percentage of:

A
Water
B
Protein
C
Fat
D
Minerals only

Question 156Single Answer

The major carbohydrate in unripe banana is:

A
Starch
B
Cellulose only
C
Sucrose only
D
Lactose

Question 157Single Answer

During banana ripening, starch is largely converted into:

A
Sugars
B
Proteins
C
Fats
D
Minerals

Question 158Single Answer

Organic acids contribute mainly to the:

A
Protein content
B
Acidity of fruits
C
Mineral content
D
Fibre colour

Question 159Single Answer

Pectin is an important component of the:

A
Chloroplast only
B
Seed embryo only
C
Plant cell wall and middle lamella
D
Nucleus only

Question 160Single Answer

: Fruit softening during ripening is associated mainly with changes in:

A
Mineral ash
B
DNA only
C
Pectic substances
D
Chlorophyll alone

Question 161Single Answer

: Chlorophyll is responsible for:

A
Orange colour
B
Red colour
C
Green colour
D
Blue colour

Question 162Single Answer

: Carotenoids commonly produce:

A
Black colours only
B
Blue colours only
C
Yellow and orange colours
D
White colours only

Question 163Single Answer

: Anthocyanins commonly produce:

A
Brown colour only
B
Green colour only
C
White colour only
D
Red, purple and blue colours

Question 164Single Answer

: Lycopene is a major pigment of ripe:

A
Cucumber
B
Tomato
C
Cabbage
D
Potato

Question 165Single Answer

: Beta-carotene is abundant in:

A
Garlic
B
Onion
C
Carrot
D
Cauliflower

Question 166Single Answer

: Total soluble solids in fruit juice are commonly measured with a:

A
Refractometer
B
Hygrometer
C
Anemometer
D
Barometer

Question 167Single Answer

: TSS is usually expressed in:

A
Pascal
B
°Brix
C
Newton
D
Joule

Question 168Single Answer

: Titratable acidity is an indicator of:

A
Protein content
B
Acid content
C
Fat content
D
Fibre content

Question 169Single Answer

: The TSS:acid ratio is widely used as an index of:

A
Root growth
B
Soil fertility
C
Seed purity
D
Fruit maturity and flavour

Question 170Single Answer

: A climacteric fruit shows a characteristic increase in:

A
Leaf area
B
Root formation after harvest
C
Seed number
D
Respiration during ripening

Question 171Single Answer

Agronomy is the science and practice of:

A
Field crop production and soil management
B
Fruit processing only
C
Forest management only
D
Animal breeding only

Question 172Single Answer

The word agronomy is derived from Greek words meaning:

A
Water and crop
B
Fruit and science
C
Soil and weather
D
Field and management

Question 173Single Answer

The major objective of agronomy is to:

A
Obtain higher and sustainable crop production
B
Increase soil erosion
C
Increase weed population
D
Reduce resource-use efficiency

Question 174Single Answer

Which of the following is a cereal crop?

A
Mustard
B
Gram
C
Groundnut
D
Wheat

Question 175Single Answer

Which of the following is a pulse crop?

A
Maize
B
Rice
C
Chickpea
D
Pearl millet

Question 176Single Answer

Groundnut is primarily classified as a:

A
Fodder grass only
B
Fibre crop
C
Cereal crop
D
Oilseed crop

Question 177Single Answer

Cotton is mainly a:

A
Root crop
B
Pulse crop
C
Fibre crop
D
Beverage crop

Question 178Single Answer

Sugarcane is primarily classified as a:

A
Fibre crop
B
Pulse crop
C
Oilseed crop
D
Sugar crop

Question 179Single Answer

A nutrient is considered essential when its absence:

A
Has no effect on plant growth
B
Prevents completion of the plant life cycle
C
Only changes fruit colour
D
Only changes soil texture

Question 180Single Answer

: Nitrogen is mainly responsible for:

A
Root death
B
Fruit ripening only
C
Seed dormancy
D
Vegetative growth

Question 181Single Answer

Insects belong to the phylum:

A
Arthropoda
B
Mollusca
C
Annelida
D
Chordata

Question 182Single Answer

The class containing true insects is:

A
Arachnida
B
Crustacea
C
Insecta
D
Chilopoda

Question 183Single Answer

The body of a typical adult insect is divided into:

A
Head and trunk
B
Cephalothorax and abdomen
C
Head, thorax and abdomen
D
Thorax and tail

Question 184Single Answer

Adult insects generally possess:

A
Three pairs of legs
B
Two pairs of legs
C
Four pairs of legs
D
Five pairs of legs

Question 185Single Answer

Insects are characterized by having:

A
Two pairs of antennae
B
One pair of antennae
C
No antennae
D
Three pairs of antennae

Question 186Single Answer

The insect exoskeleton is composed mainly of:

A
Cellulose
B
Keratin only
C
Lignin
D
Chitin

Question 187Single Answer

The study of insects is known as:

A
Mycology
B
Entomology
C
Nematology
D
Ecology

Question 188Single Answer

Agricultural entomology deals mainly with:

A
Irrigation
B
Soil fungi only
C
Plant nutrition
D
Insects associated with agriculture

Question 189Single Answer

One major reason for insect dominance is their:

A
Small size and high reproductive capacity
B
Lack of adaptability
C
Inability to fly
D
Low diversity

Question 190Single Answer

Flight in insects contributes greatly to their:

A
Root feeding only
B
Digestion only
C
Excretion only
D
Dispersal

Question 191Single Answer

Insects belong to the phylum:

A
Mollusca
B
Arthropoda
C
Annelida
D
Chordata

Question 192Single Answer

The class containing true insects is:

A
Arachnida
B
Insecta
C
Crustacea
D
Chilopoda

Question 193Single Answer

The body of a typical adult insect is divided into:

A
Head and trunk
B
Cephalothorax and abdomen
C
Head, thorax and abdomen
D
Thorax and tail

Question 194Single Answer

Adult insects generally possess:

A
Two pairs of legs
B
Three pairs of legs
C
Four pairs of legs
D
Five pairs of legs

Question 195Single Answer

Insects are characterized by having:

A
Three pairs of antennae
B
Two pairs of antennae
C
No antennae
D
One pair of antennae

Question 196Single Answer

The insect exoskeleton is composed mainly of:

A
Cellulose
B
Chitin
C
Lignin
D
Keratin only

Question 197Single Answer

The study of insects is known as:

A
Mycology
B
Nematology
C
Entomology
D
Ecology

Question 198Single Answer

Agricultural entomology deals mainly with:

A
Plant nutrition
B
Soil fungi only
C
Insects associated with agriculture
D
Irrigation

Question 199Single Answer

One major reason for insect dominance is their:

A
Small size and high reproductive capacity
B
Lack of adaptability
C
Inability to fly
D
Low diversity

Question 200Single Answer

: Flight in insects contributes greatly to their:

A
Root feeding only
B
Digestion only
C
Excretion only
D
Dispersal

Question 201Single Answer

Extension education is primarily concerned with:

A
Helping rural people improve knowledge, skills and practices
B
Teaching only school students
C
Conducting laboratory research only
D
Producing fertilizers

Question 202Single Answer

Agricultural extension primarily aims to transfer:

A
Only machinery
B
Only fertilizers
C
Agricultural knowledge and useful technologies to farmers
D
Only government forms

Question 203Single Answer

Extension education is generally considered:

A
Formal school education only
B
Primary education only
C
Non-formal education
D
University education only

Question 204Single Answer

An important principle of extension education is:

A
Learning by doing
B
Learning by punishment
C
Teaching without participation
D
Avoiding demonstrations

Question 205Single Answer

Extension work should generally begin with:

A
Interests of extension worker only
B
Needs and interests of people
C
Availability of pesticides only
D
Availability of buildings only

Question 206Single Answer

The principle of participation means:

A
No feedback is required
B
Only officials should decide everything
C
Farmers should remain observers
D
People should actively take part in extension programmes

Question 207Single Answer

Extension education is most effective when the learner:

A
Remains passive
B
Participates actively
C
Receives no feedback
D
Avoids practice

Question 208Single Answer

The principle of satisfaction in extension means that:

A
Successful learning should provide useful results to learners
B
Learners should never evaluate results
C
Only teachers should benefit
D
Programmes should ignore farmers' needs

Question 209Single Answer

Extension programmes should be based on:

A
Urban conditions only
B
Foreign conditions only
C
Laboratory conditions only
D
Local conditions

Question 210Single Answer

Extension education aims mainly at bringing desirable changes in:

A
Soil texture only
B
Knowledge, attitude, skills and practices
C
Rainfall only
D
Crop genetics only

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Latest GSSSB Horticulture Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

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