Latest GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation, Pharmacist, Quantitative Aptitude, Constitution of India, Current Affairs, Language Comprehension (English & Gujarati)
Question Bank GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English
Which preparation is used to help prevent dehydration or achieve rehydration?
ALytren solution
BLiposul
CBicytra
DMylicon
Question 2Single Answer
Emulsions prepared using Tweens as the principal emulsifying agents are usually of which type?
AWater-in-oil
BOil-in-water
CMultiple emulsion
DMicrocapsule dispersion
E reversible
Question 3Single Answer
Compared with the corresponding crystalline form, an amorphous form of a drug is generally?
ALess soluble
BMore soluble
CChemically identical to a solvate
DCompletely insoluble
Question 4Single Answer
A triple-roller mill is particularly useful in pharmaceutical preparation for reducing particle size and producing smooth?
AOintments
BHard gelatin capsules
CAerosols
DSuppository molds
Question 5Single Answer
Particle-size reduction is most likely to improve drug absorption when absorption is limited primarily by which process?
ADissolution of a poorly soluble drug
BRenal filtration
CHepatic metabolism
DPlasma-protein synthesis
Question 6Single Answer
A material whose apparent viscosity increases as shear rate increases is classified as?
ADilatant
BNewtonian
CPseudoplastic
DThixotropic
Question 7Single Answer
A solution contains 3 grains of a drug per US fluid ounce. Approximately what is its percentage strength w/v?
A0.66%
B0.20%
C1.50%
D6.60%
Question 8Single Answer
Cyanocobalamin is which type of substance?
ASteroid
BVitamin
CCholinesterase inhibitor
DEnzyme
Question 9Single Answer
Tweens are best classified as which type of pharmaceutical excipient?
ANonionic surfactants
BPhospholipids
CGlycosides
DInorganic electrolytes
Question 10Single Answer
Which process can promote separation of an emulsion by accelerating movement of dispersed droplets?
ACentrifugation
BBuffering
CIsotonization
DSweetening
Question 11Single Answer
Which gastrointestinal effect is characteristically associated with oral iron preparations?
ADarkening of stools
BBlue discoloration of saliva
CGreen discoloration of tears
DPurple discoloration of sweat
Question 12Single Answer
Orally administered lidocaine has limited systemic usefulness largely because it undergoes extensive?
AFirst-pass hepatic metabolism
BRenal tubular secretion before absorption
CPhotochemical degradation in the stomach
DPulmonary metabolism before absorption
Question 13Single Answer
On exposure to air and light, phenol may gradually develop which discoloration because of oxidation?
APink to reddish coloration
BBright green coloration
CDeep blue coloration
DPure white coloration
Question 14Single Answer
Approximately how much HgCl₂ is required to prepare 1 US pint (about 473 mL) of a 1:5000 w/v solution?
A9.5 mg
B47.3 mg
C94.6 mg
D473 mg
Question 15Single Answer
Which sulfonylurea has historically been associated with potentiation of the antidiuretic action of vasopressin?
AChlorpropamide
BChloramphenicol
CPhenytoin
DDicoumarol
Question 16Single Answer
Which two drug properties are commonly altered by pharmaceutical complexation?
AStability and solubility
BAtomic number and density
CMolecular formula and atomic mass
DRadioactivity and isotopic abundance
Question 17Single Answer
If drug distribution into tissues occurs more slowly than elimination from plasma, what is most likely to occur initially?
AFailure to rapidly attain distribution equilibrium
BImmediate pharmacodynamic tolerance
CComplete inhibition of metabolism
DIrreversible plasma-protein binding
Question 18Single Answer
In pharmaceutical aerosol terminology, PSIG stands for?
APounds per square inch gauge
BPressure standard in glass
CPounds per square inch gravity
DPropellant strength in grams
Question 19Single Answer
In the older terminology of radiation protection, the abbreviation rem stands for?
ARoentgen equivalent man
BRadiation emission meter
CRelative electron mass
DRoentgen exposure measurement
Question 20Single Answer
Azathioprine is primarily classified as a?
AImmunosuppressant
BCardiotonic
CAntacid
DLocal anesthetic
Question 21Single Answer
Creaming is a ________ process.
AReversible​
BIrreversible
CDownward
DBoth (a) and (c)
Question 22Single Answer
o/w emulsions normally cream in _______ direction.
ADownward
BUpward
CFirst up and then down
DFirst down then up
Question 23Single Answer
______ is an example of non-ionic polymer.
ACellulose
BPectin
CGlucose
DMethyl cellulose
Question 24Single Answer
Electrolytes are added in suspensions to _____ the zeta potential.
ANeutralize
BDecrease
CIncrease
DStabilize
Question 25Single Answer
The sedimentation volume of an ideal suspension should be _____
AOne
BGreater than one
CZero
DLess than one
Question 26Single Answer
Which combination correctly describes a flocculated pharmaceutical suspension?
AParticles form loose aggregates and the supernatant becomes clear
BParticles form a compact hard cake and the supernatant remains turbid
CSedimentation is negligible and particles remain completely dispersed
DRedispersion becomes progressively impossible
Question 27Single Answer
Which law is commonly used to describe the sedimentation velocity of spherical particles in a dilute pharmaceutical suspension?
AStokes' law
BHenry's law
CRaoult's law
DBeer-Lambert law
Question 28Single Answer
According to the phase-volume concept, approximately what maximum volume fraction of monodisperse spherical droplets corresponds to close packing before severe instability becomes likely?
A0.26
B0.50
C0.74
D0.90
Question 29Single Answer
Which among the following is the chief ingredient of anti-diarrhoeal mixture?
ACharcoal
BKaolin
CCalamine
DAluminum Hydroxide
Question 30Single Answer
Which rheological test applies a constant stress and measures time-dependent deformation of a semisolid material?
ACreep test
BPycnometry
CNephelometry
DRefractometry
Question 31Single Answer
Compared with its continuous aqueous phase, the apparent viscosity of an oil-in-water emulsion is generally?
AHigher
BAlways lower
CExactly identical
DAlways zero
Question 32Single Answer
According to Stoke's equation, the creaming of emulsion will take place in _____ direction, if the density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium.
ADownward
BUpward
CCentre
DBoth (a) and (b)
Question 33Single Answer
____ of an emulsion occurs when the distributions is of globules is not uniform.
ACaking
BBreaking
CCreaming
DCoalescence
Question 34Single Answer
The commercial method for the preparation of emulsions is ______
AHomogenization
BLyophilization
CCentrifugation
DBoth (a) and (c)
Question 35Single Answer
According to Stokes' law, which change most directly reduces the rate of creaming in an emulsion?
ADecreasing globule size
BIncreasing globule size
CDecreasing continuous-phase viscosity
DIncreasing the density difference between phases
Question 36Single Answer
The ratio of oil : water : gum, used for the preparation of a primary emulsion containing a fixed oil is ____
A4 : 4 : 2
B4 : 2 : 1
C1 : 2 : 4
D2 : 4 : 4
Question 37Single Answer
The percentage of sucrose in simple syrup I.P is ___
A66.7% w/w
B85% w/w
C56% w/w
D33% w/w
Question 38Single Answer
Commonly used solvent in throat paint is ____
ACastor Oil
BSucrose Syrup
CGlycerin
DAlcohol
Question 39Single Answer
Lugol's solution is an aqueous solution containing iodine together with which substance to enhance iodine solubility?
APotassium iodide
BSodium bicarbonate
CCalcium chloride
DMagnesium sulfate
Question 40Single Answer
Which of the following processes is used for the extraction of volatile oils from plants?
ASimple Distillation
BSteam Distillation
CExtraction
DSoxhlation
Question 41Single Answer
In atherosclerosis, the serum level of____decreases.
ATriglycerides
BVLDL
CHDL
DLDL
Question 42Single Answer
Which drug can significantly increase plasma digoxin concentrations and thereby increase the risk of digitalis toxicity?
AQuinidine
BPotassium chloride
CLidocaine
DMagnesium sulfate
Question 43Single Answer
When quinidine is initiated in a patient receiving digoxin, which measure is particularly important?
AMonitor digoxin concentration and adjust its dose when necessary
BRoutinely double the digoxin dose
CDiscontinue all potassium intake
DAdminister digoxin only intramuscularly
Question 44Single Answer
Name a substitute of enalapril.
ALosartan
BRosiglitazone
COmeprazole
DFamotidine
Question 45Single Answer
Antihypertensive drugs Mode of action
1. Methyldopa (A) Ganglion blocker
2. Hydralazine (B) Depletion of catecholamines
3. Reserpine (C) Direct action on arterioles
4. Mecamylamine (D) False neurotransmitter
A1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
B1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
C1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
D1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
Question 46Single Answer
Match the cardiovascular drug with its principal pharmacological action:
1. Papaverine – Vasodilator
2. Verapamil – Calcium-channel blocker
3. Hydralazine – Direct arteriolar vasodilator
4. Dobutamine – β₁-adrenergic agonist
Which matching sequence is correct?
A1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
BOnly 1 and 2 are correctly matched
COnly 2 and 3 are correctly matched
DOnly 3 and 4 are correctly matched
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following are the potential targets for designing antihypertensive drugs?
(A) H2-receptors
(B) Proton pump
(C) - adrenergic receptors
(D) Calcium channel proteins
AA and B
BC and D
CB and D
DA and D
Question 48Single Answer
Hypotensive agents Mode of action
1. Clonidine (A) Direct action on blood vessels
2. Captopril (B) - adrenoceptor antagonist
3. Prazosin (C) Decreases sympathetic activity through brain
4. Minoxidil (D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
A1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
B1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
C1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
D1-C 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Question 49Single Answer
Which statement about digoxin is correct?
AIts elimination half-life in adults with normal renal function is approximately 36–48 hours
BIt is metabolized almost completely by the liver
CIt primarily accelerates AV nodal conduction
DIts principal elimination pathway is pulmonary excretion
Question 50Single Answer
Digitalis glycosides are used in congestive heart failure as they increase the____.
AForce of myocardial contraction
BCardiac filling pressure
CHeart rate
DVenous pressure
Important Questions Package
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in GSSSB Junior Pharmacist question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
3.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English
Description : 3000 Question with Answer
₹181[₹500]
4.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English
Description : 4000 Question with Answer
₹201[₹500]
5.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English
Description : 5000 Question with Answer
₹221[₹500]
6.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
7.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹390[₹600]
8.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English (Old)
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
9.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English (Old)
Description : 4000 Question with Answer
₹201[₹500]
10.
GSSSB Junior Pharmacist Exam - English (Old)
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
Pharmacist
Question 51Single Answer
Which is an important advantage of liposomes as drug-delivery carriers?
AAbility to encapsulate both hydrophilic and lipophilic drugs
BGuaranteed elimination of drug toxicity
CMandatory rapid renal clearance
DComplete prevention of drug degradation in every formulation
Question 52Single Answer
Liposomes are primarily composed of:
APolysaccharides
BProteins
CPhospholipids
DNucleic acids
Question 53Single Answer
The aqueous cavity of a liposome is best suited for encapsulating:
AHydrophobic drugs
BLipophilic drugs
CHydrophilic drugs
DGaseous drugs
Question 54Single Answer
Which method is commonly used for the preparation of multilamellar vesicles (MLVs)?
ASonication
BExtrusion
CThin-film hydration
DReverse-phase evaporation
Question 55Single Answer
Sterically stabilized liposomes, often referred to as "stealth liposomes," are modified with which polymer to prolong circulation time?
APolyvinylpyrrolidone (PVP)
BPolyethylene glycol (PEG)
CHydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC)
DEthylcellulose
Question 56Single Answer
Under the commonly used general definition, nanoparticles have dimensions approximately within which range?
A1–100 nm
B1–1000 µm
C1–10 mm
D10–100 cm
Question 57Single Answer
Which of the following materials is commonly used for the fabrication of polymeric nanoparticles?
AGold
BSilicon dioxide
CPolylactic acid (PLA)
DCarbon nanotubes
Question 58Single Answer
Nanoparticles can enhance drug delivery by:
AIncreasing first-pass metabolism
BPromoting drug degradation
CImproving drug penetration across biological barriers
DEnhancing non-specific drug distribution
Question 59Single Answer
Which of the following is a method for preparing nanoparticles by precipitation?
AEmulsification-solvent evaporation
BNanoprecipitation
CHigh-pressure homogenization
DSpray drying
Question 60Single Answer
The enhanced permeability and retention effect has traditionally been associated with passive accumulation of nanocarriers particularly in?
ASome solid tumors with abnormal vasculature
BAll healthy tissues equally
CNormal intact brain tissue universally
DEvery organ regardless of vascular properties
Question 61Single Answer
Transdermal drug delivery systems (TDDS) primarily deliver drugs through which route?
AOral
BIntravenous
CAcross the skin
DInhalation
Question 62Single Answer
The outermost layer of the skin that acts as the primary barrier to drug permeation is the:
ADermis
BHypodermis
CStratum corneum
DEpidermis
Question 63Single Answer
Permeation enhancers are often included in transdermal formulations to:
AIncrease drug stability
BReduce skin irritation
CEnhance drug penetration across the skin
DControl the release rate from the patch
Question 64Single Answer
In which transdermal patch design is the drug incorporated directly into the pressure-sensitive adhesive layer?
ADrug-in-adhesive system
BReservoir system
CMembrane-controlled reservoir only
DOsmotic implant
Question 65Single Answer
Iontophoresis, as an enhancement technique for transdermal delivery, utilizes:
AUltrasound waves
BMagnetic fields
CElectrical current
DMicroneedles
Question 66Single Answer
Which physicochemical property can substantially limit passive transdermal drug delivery?
AExcessively large molecular size
BAvoidance of gastrointestinal first-pass metabolism
CAbility to provide sustained delivery
DPossibility of terminating therapy by patch removal
Question 67Single Answer
Niosomes are vesicular systems similar to liposomes but are composed of:
APhospholipids
BNon-ionic surfactants
CProteins
DCholesterol esters
Question 68Single Answer
Which property can make niosomes advantageous compared with conventional phospholipid liposomes?
AGreater chemical stability of nonionic surfactants under suitable conditions
BGuaranteed higher encapsulation of every drug
CGuaranteed superior targeting of every tissue
DComplete absence of formulation instability
Question 69Single Answer
Solid lipid nanoparticles (SLNs) are composed of:
ABiodegradable polymers
BSolid lipids
CLiposomes encapsulated in a solid matrix
DNanoparticles coated with a lipid layer
Question 70Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic of solid lipid nanoparticles (SLNs)?
ALiquid core
BHigh drug loading capacity for hydrophilic drugs
CPotential for controlled drug release
DLimited stability
Question 71Single Answer
Nanostructured lipid carriers (NLCs) differ from SLNs by having:
AA smaller particle size
BA more crystalline matrix
CA blend of solid and liquid lipids
DA higher surface area
Question 72Single Answer
Which statement about routes of administration of nanoparticle-based drug-delivery systems is correct?
AThey may be designed for oral, parenteral, pulmonary and other routes depending on formulation
BThey can be administered only orally
CThey can be administered only intravenously
DThey can never be administered by inhalation
Question 73Single Answer
Ligand-targeted liposomes are modified with specific molecules to:
AIncrease their circulation time
BEnhance drug solubility
CBind to receptors on target cells
DPrevent opsonization
Question 74Single Answer
Dendrimers are branched polymeric nanoparticles with:
AA hydrophobic core and hydrophilic surface
BA well-defined, tree-like structure
CA lamellar structure similar to liposomes
DA porous matrix for drug encapsulation
Question 75Single Answer
Which structural property of dendrimers makes them useful for targeted drug-delivery applications?
AMultiple surface functional groups that can be modified with targeting ligands
BComplete absence of branching
CMandatory phospholipid bilayer formation
DInability to interact with therapeutic molecules
Question 76Single Answer
What is the primary barrier that microneedles are designed to bypass during transdermal or intradermal drug delivery?
AStratum corneum
BSubcutaneous adipose tissue
CSkeletal muscle
DPeriosteum
Question 77Single Answer
Which is an important advantage of microneedle-based delivery compared with conventional hypodermic injection?
APotential for minimally invasive delivery with reduced pain
BGuaranteed delivery of unlimited drug quantities
CGuaranteed systemic bioavailability of every drug
DFaster onset for every medicine
Question 78Single Answer
Hydrogels used in drug delivery systems are typically composed of:
ALipids
BProteins
CCross-linked hydrophilic polymers
DInorganic materials
Question 79Single Answer
Stimuli-responsive hydrogels can release drugs in response to changes in:
ADrug concentration
BAtmospheric pressure
CpH, temperature, or light
DPatient's emotional state
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a transdermal patch used for hormone replacement therapy?
ANitroglycerin patch
BScopolamine patch
CEstradiol patch
DFentanyl patch
Question 81Single Answer
The rate of drug release from a reservoir-type transdermal patch is primarily controlled by:
AThe concentration of the drug in the adhesive
BThe surface area of the patch
CThe properties of the rate-controlling membrane
DThe hydration level of the skin
Question 82Single Answer
Which technique is commonly used to determine the hydrodynamic particle size of nanoparticles and can also be used alongside electrophoretic measurements for zeta-potential characterization?
ADynamic light scattering-based analysis
BGas chromatography
CHigh-performance liquid chromatography
DDifferential scanning calorimetry
Question 83Single Answer
Zeta potential represents the electrical potential at approximately which location around a dispersed particle?
ASlipping or shear plane
BGeometric center of the particle
CInterior of the nanoparticle core
DOuter boundary of the bulk liquid
Question 84Single Answer
Which factor can present an important challenge for orally administered nanoparticle drug-delivery systems?
ADegradation or destabilization in the gastrointestinal environment
BMandatory passage across the blood-brain barrier
CComplete absence of gastrointestinal barriers
DGuaranteed quantitative intestinal absorption
Question 85Single Answer
Mucoadhesive nanoparticles are designed to:
AEnhance drug penetration through the skin
BAdhere to the mucus layer, prolonging residence time
CTarget specific receptors on immune cells
DIncrease the solubility of hydrophobic drugs
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following is a common application of transdermal patches?
ATreatment of acute infections
BDelivery of large protein molecules
CManagement of chronic pain
DRapid onset of action drugs
Question 87Single Answer
The term "occlusion" in the context of transdermal patches refers to:
AEnhancing drug solubility within the patch
BPreventing drug leakage from the patch
CHydrating the stratum corneum to enhance permeability
DIncreasing the adhesive strength of the patch
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a common component of a transdermal patch?
ABacking layer
BDrug reservoir or matrix
CRate-controlling membrane (in some designs)
DEffervescent agents
Question 89Single Answer
How can appropriately designed liposomal or niosomal formulations improve therapeutic performance?
ABy modifying drug distribution and potentially increasing exposure at desired sites
BBy invariably increasing drug metabolism
CBy guaranteeing complete elimination of adverse effects
DBy causing nonspecific distribution in every tissue
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following advanced drug delivery systems is often used for gene therapy?
ATransdermal patches
BLipoplexes and polyplexes (nanoparticles complexed with nucleic acids)
CSolid lipid nanoparticles
DNiosomes
Question 91Single Answer
The process by which nanoparticles are taken up by cells is known as:
AEffusion
BDiffusion
CEndocytosis
DOsmosis
Question 92Single Answer
Which drug property strongly influences passive permeation through intact skin?
AMolecular size and partitioning characteristics
BTablet color
CManufacturer's trademark
DPackage size
Question 93Single Answer
Nanoparticles coated with polyethylene glycol (PEG) are often used to:
AEnhance cellular uptake
BIncrease opsonization and phagocytosis
CProlong circulation time in the bloodstream
DImprove drug solubility for hydrophobic drugs
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following is a potential advantage of advanced drug delivery systems over conventional formulations?
ALower manufacturing costs
BReduced frequency of dosing
CFaster onset of action for all drugs
DElimination of the need for preservatives
Question 95Single Answer
What category of intellectual property right grants exclusive rights for an invention, allowing the patent holder to exclude others from making, using, or selling the invention for a limited period?
ATrademark
BCopyright
CPatent
DTrade secret
Question 96Single Answer
Under the United States patent system, which three categories of patents are recognized as the principal statutory patent types?
AUtility, design and plant patents
BProduct, process and trademark patents
CChemical, mechanical and copyright patents
DProvisional, permanent and international patents
Question 97Single Answer
Under U.S. patent law, which type of patent protects a new, original and ornamental design for an article of manufacture?
ADesign patent
BUtility patent
CPlant patent
DProvisional application
Question 98Single Answer
Under U.S. patent law, which patent category may protect a new and distinct variety of plant that meets the statutory requirements for plant-patent protection?
APlant patent
BDesign patent
CTrademark
DCopyright
Question 99Single Answer
Under the general TRIPS framework, the term of patent protection available to qualifying inventions must not end before the expiration of?
A20 years from the filing date
B10 years from the filing date
C15 years from grant
D50 years from grant
Question 100Single Answer
Under current U.S. law, what is generally the term of a design patent resulting from an application filed on or after May 13, 2015?
A15 years from grant
B20 years from filing
C10 years from filing
D25 years from grant
Question 101Single Answer
For an invention to be patentable, what criteria must it generally meet?
ANovelty, non-obviousness, and industrial applicability (utility)
BOriginality, creativity, and marketability
CEfficiency, safety, and affordability
DScalability, sustainability, and profitability
Question 102Single Answer
What does the term "novelty" in patent law refer to?
AThe invention must be aesthetically pleasing.
BThe invention must be entirely new and not previously disclosed to the public.
CThe invention must have significant commercial success.
DThe invention must be easy to understand and use.
Question 103Single Answer
What does "non-obviousness" (or inventive step) in patent law mean?
AThe invention must be clearly explained in the patent application.
BThe invention should not be an obvious modification of what was already known to a person skilled in the relevant field.
CThe invention must be complex and difficult to replicate.
DThe invention must have a wide range of applications.
Question 104Single Answer
What does "industrial applicability" (or utility) in patent law imply?
AThe invention must be environmentally friendly.
BThe invention must be capable of being made or used in some kind of industry.
CThe invention must be affordable for the general public.
DThe invention must be related to pharmaceutical manufacturing.
Question 105Single Answer
What is the principal purpose of filing a provisional patent application where such a procedure is available?
ATo establish an early filing date before filing the complete/nonprovisional application
BTo obtain an automatically granted patent
CTo obtain permanent protection without further filing
DTo replace substantive patent examination
Question 106Single Answer
In the U.S. patent system, a corresponding nonprovisional application generally must be filed within what period after a provisional application to claim its benefit?
A12 months
B6 months
C18 months
D24 months
Question 107Single Answer
Which term best describes the legal right conferred by a patent to prevent others from carrying out specified acts concerning the patented invention without authorization?
AExclusive right
BCopyright
CTrademark
DTrade secret
Question 108Single Answer
What is "patent infringement"?
AThe expiration of a patent term.
BThe unauthorized making, using, or selling of a patented invention.
CThe process of applying for a patent.
DThe modification of a patented invention by the patent holder.
Question 109Single Answer
Which civil remedy is commonly available to a patent owner when patent infringement is established, subject to applicable law?
AInjunction and/or monetary relief
BAutomatic imprisonment in every case
CAutomatic cancellation of every competing patent
DAutomatic transfer of the infringer's company
Question 110Single Answer
What is the significance of a priority date in patent law?
AIt helps determine which disclosures constitute prior art when assessing patentability
BIt is always the patent grant date
CIt is necessarily the date commercial sales begin
DIt is always the patent expiration date
Question 111Single Answer
Which international treaty provides a system for filing an international patent application that can have effect in multiple contracting states?
APatent Cooperation Treaty
BBerne Convention
CMadrid Protocol
DBudapest Convention on Cybercrime
Question 112Single Answer
What is the "patent cliff" in the pharmaceutical industry?
AA sudden increase in the price of patented drugs.
BThe rapid decline in sales of a pharmaceutical product after its patent expires.
CA regulatory hurdle in the drug approval process.
DA shortage of raw materials for manufacturing patented drugs.
Question 113Single Answer
Which strategy may be used by pharmaceutical companies to mitigate revenue loss associated with expiry of important product patents?
ADeveloping legitimately patentable new formulations or therapeutic products
BAutomatically extending an expired patent without legal basis
CPreventing every generic application indefinitely
DIgnoring product-life-cycle planning
Question 114Single Answer
What is the difference between a patent and a trademark?
AA patent protects brand names and logos, while a trademark protects inventions.
BA patent protects inventions, while a trademark protects brand names and logos.
CPatents and trademarks are the same thing, just used in different industries.
DTrademarks have a limited term, while patents can last indefinitely.
Question 115Single Answer
What is the difference between a patent and a copyright?
AA patent protects artistic expressions, while a copyright protects inventions.
BA patent protects inventions, while a copyright protects original works of authorship.
CCopyrights are more difficult to obtain than patents.
DPatents last longer than copyrights.
Question 116Single Answer
What is a "trade secret"?
AA publicly disclosed formula or process that gives a business an advantage.
BConfidential information that provides a business with a competitive edge.
CA legally protected brand name or logo.
DAn invention protected by a patent.
Question 117Single Answer
How is a trade secret protected?
ABy registering it with a government agency.
BBy keeping the information confidential.
CBy obtaining a patent.
DBy using a trademark symbol.
Question 118Single Answer
Which of the following may qualify as a pharmaceutical trade secret when it derives economic value from secrecy and reasonable measures are taken to keep it confidential?
AConfidential manufacturing know-how
BPublished patent specification
CPublicly disclosed drug label
DRegistered trademark displayed publicly
Question 119Single Answer
What is the term for the unauthorized disclosure or use of a trade secret?
APatent infringement
BCopyright infringement
CMisappropriation of trade secrets
DTrademark infringement
Question 120Single Answer
What is the role of patents in promoting pharmaceutical innovation?
AThey limit competition and increase drug prices.
BThey provide incentives for research and development by granting exclusive rights.
CThey delay the availability of generic drugs.
DThey primarily benefit large pharmaceutical companies.
Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation
Question 121Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
ATwo
BThree
CFive
DFour
ENone of these
Question 122Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
ATrue
BFalse
CUncertain
DNone
Question 123Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
AA
BE
CT
DX
EY
Question 124Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 125Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 126Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 127Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
AT
BL
CE
DY
EX
Question 128Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 129Single Answer
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
AX
BW
CI
DH
Question 130Single Answer
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
ASUM
BBIG
CBoth BIG and THE
DFOR
EBoth FOR and BIG
Question 131Single Answer
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
AAND
BFOR
CTHE
DBIG
ESUM
Question 132Single Answer
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EFour
Question 133Single Answer
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
ATwo
BFive
CSix
DNine
EThree
Question 134Single Answer
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 135Single Answer
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EFour
Question 136Single Answer
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
ABoth CAT and OWN
BBoth BRU and INK
COnly CAT
DOnly INK
EOnly LEG
Question 137Single Answer
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
AOWN
BLEG
CBRU
DCAT
EINK
Question 138Single Answer
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 139Single Answer
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A71
B61
C79
D69
Question 140Single Answer
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
AHID
BSON
CBoth LAP and BUT
DCAR
EBoth CAR and LAP
Question 141Single Answer
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 142Single Answer
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 143Single Answer
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 144Single Answer
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 145Single Answer
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 146Single Answer
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 147Single Answer
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 148Single Answer
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 149Single Answer
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 150Single Answer
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 151Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A51:52
B52:53
C51:53
D52:55
Question 152Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A√49
B0.125
C√2
D22/7
Question 153Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A35600
B34500
C9630
D93600
Question 154Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 155Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A36
B38
C310
D96
Question 156Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A4
B3
C2
D5
Question 157Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A3/5
B2/3
C4/5
Question 158Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A169
B36
C196
DCan not say
Question 159Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A16
B25
C28
D30
Question 160Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A93
B103
C60.5
D121
Question 161Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A15/16
B17/18
CEqual
DCannot compare
Question 162Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A3
B4
C5
D7
Question 163Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
AXLI
BXLVI
CXLIV
DXLVIC
Question 164Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A1/11
B9/11
C1/9
D9/10
Question 165Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A9996
B10000
C10096
D10196
Question 166Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A9/11
B7/9
CEqual
DCannot compare
Question 167Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A26/45
B52/90
C13/22
D5/9
Question 168Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A81/100
B9/10
C8/9
D9/11
Question 169Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A3528
B3852
C3582
D3825
Question 170Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A13/17
B11/14
CEqual
DCannot compare
Question 171Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A20
B24
C22
D26
Question 172Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A3/4
B2/3
C4/5
D5/8
Question 173Single Answer
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A318
B198
C213
D206
Question 174Single Answer
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A558
B718
C628
DNone of these
Question 175Single Answer
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A20%
B25%
C30%
D40%
Question 176Single Answer
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A19%
B31%
C44%
DNone of these
Question 177Single Answer
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A38%
B48%
C51%
DNone of these
Question 178Single Answer
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A4%
B3%
C1%
DNone of these
Question 179Single Answer
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A á´– (A á´— B) equal to ?
AComplement of A
BComplement of B
CB
DA
Question 180Single Answer
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A10%
B15%
C20%
D25%
Constitution of India
Question 181Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
AThe Indian Councils Act, 1909
BThe Government of India Act, 1915
CThe Government of India Act, 1919
DThe Government of India Act, 1935
Question 182Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
AThe Indian Councils Act, 1909
BGovernment of India Act, 1919
CGovernment of India Act, 1935
DIndian Independence Act, 1947
Question 183Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
AThe Indian Councils Act, 1909
BThe Government of India Act, 1935
CThe Government of India Act, 1919
DNone of the above
Question 184Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
AIndian Councils Act, 1909
BGovernment of India Act, 1919
CGovernment of India Act, 1935
DIndian Independence Act, 1947
Question 185Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
APrivy Council
BSupreme Court
CHigh Court
DFederal Court
Question 186Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
AOriginal jurisdiction only
BAppellate jurisdiction only
CAdvisory jurisdiction only
DOriginal, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 187Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A14 and 7
B11 and 7
C15 and 9
DNone of the above
Question 188Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
AGovernment of India Act, 1919
BGovernment of India Act, 1935
CThe Indian Independence Act, 1947
DNone of the above
Question 189Single Answer
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A3 June, 1947
B4 July, 1947
C15 July, 1947
D18 July, 1947
Question 190Single Answer
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
ASimon Commission
BCripps Mission
CCabinet Mission Plan
DThe Mountbatten plan
Current Affairs
Question 191Single Answer
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
AJoint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
BPurchase of Rafale jets
CRajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
DSigning of a nuclear agreement
Question 192Single Answer
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
AGSAT-31
BChandrayaan-4
CINSAT-4CR
DGSAT-32
Question 193Single Answer
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
AA new defence missile system
BGreen hydrogen mission
CAI Tutoring initiative
DDigital payment platform
Question 194Single Answer
UAE announced its exit from OPEC, with the decision taking effect from:
A1 May 2026
B1 January 2026
C1 July 2026
D31 December 2026
Question 195Single Answer
A tragic road accident in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh on or around 1 May 2026 resulted in how many deaths?
AAt least 16 (including 6 children and 7 women)
B8
C25
D12
Question 196Single Answer
Which platform was launched by the Gujarat government in partnership with Meta to provide citizen services through WhatsApp?
AJan Seva Connect
BGujarat Digital Mitra
CSmart Gujarat Portal
DWhatsApp Governance Services
Question 197Single Answer
How many citizen-centric services were initially made available through the Gujarat government–Meta initiative?
A20
B15
C10
D25
Question 198Single Answer
Which city remained the administrative center of major government announcements in Gujarat during May 2026?
AGandhinagar
BRajkot
CVadodara
DSurat
Question 199Single Answer
Which sector received a major boost through new state-level policy initiatives in May 2026?
AFisheries
BEducation Infrastructure
CAviation
DMining
Question 200Single Answer
What amount was approved by the Gujarat government for new schools and educational infrastructure?
A₹150 crore
B₹330 crore
C₹220 crore
D₹500 crore
Language Comprehension (English & Gujarati)
Question 201Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
Aa
Ban
Csome
Dthe
Question 202Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
ASteal the car
BYou should have the stolen car
CGet someone to steal the car
DThey have stolen the car
Question 203Single Answer
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.