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Question Bank

GSSSB Laboratory Assistant Exam - English

Duration: 180 ยท Questions: 210 ยท Max Marks: 210 ยท Language: 1

View GSSSB Laboratory Assistant 2026 Exam Page

Reasoning & Data Interpretation

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
12
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
13
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
14
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
15
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
16
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
17
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
18
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
19
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
20
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.Both CAT and OWN
  2. B.Both BRU and INK
  3. C.Only CAT
  4. D.Only INK
  5. E.Only LEG
21
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
  1. A.OWN
  2. B.LEG
  3. C.BRU
  4. D.CAT
  5. E.INK
22
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
23
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
  1. A.71
  2. B.61
  3. C.79
  4. D.69
24
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
  1. A.HID
  2. B.SON
  3. C.Both LAP and BUT
  4. D.CAR
  5. E.Both CAR and LAP
25
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
  1. A.LAP
  2. B.BUT
  3. C.CAR
  4. D.SON
  5. E.HID
26
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
27
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
28
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
29
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.More than three
  5. E.None
30
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.One
  3. C.None
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

Quantitative Aptitude

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
11
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
12
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
13
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
14
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
15
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
16
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
17
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
18
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
19
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
20
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
21
16.928 + 24.7582  5.015 =?
  1. A.20   
  2. B.24
  3. C.22
  4. D.26
22
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/4
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
  4. D.5/8
23
Which is greater ?
  1. A.11/13
  2. B.12/15
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
24
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
  1. A.0
  2. B.1
  3. C.Same
  4. D.Prime
25
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
  1. A.
    10
  2. B.100
  3. C.1000
  4. D.10000
26
Chemistry but not in Physics.
  1. A.318
  2. B.198
  3. C.213 
  4. D.206
27
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
  1. A.558   
  2. B.718
  3. C.628  
  4. D.None of these
28
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
  1. A.20%  
  2. B.25%
  3. C.30%  
  4. D.40%
29
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
  1. A.19%  
  2. B.31%
  3. C.44%
  4. D.None of these
30
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
  1. A.38% 
  2. B.48%
  3. C.51%  
  4. D.None of these

Constitution of India, Current Affairs and Comprehension

1
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
2
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
3
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A. presented , stay
  2. B.introduced , keep
  3. C.announce , make
  4. D.created , let
  5. E.proclaimed , hold
4
Assets
  1. A.liabilities
  2. B.responsibilities
  3. C.estates
  4. D.profits
5
Affidavit
  1. A. Affirmation
  2. B.Slander
  3. C.Oath
  4. D.Testimony
6
"เชถเชพเช‚เชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชตเชพเชคเชšเซ€เชค
  2. B. เช†เช•เซเชฐเชฎเชฃ
  3. C. เช–เซ‡เชกเซ‚เชค
  4. D. เชงเชฎเชพเชงเชฎ
7
"เชตเซเชฏเช•เซเชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เชตเชฟเชฒเซ‹เชฎ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชธเช‚เช—เช เชจ
  2. B. เชตเซเชฏเชตเชธเซเชฅเชพ
  3. C. เชธเช‚เชตเชฟเชฆเชพเชจ
  4. D. เช…เชจเชตเชฐเชค
8
"เชตเชฟเช•เชพเชธ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เช…เชญเชฟเชตเซƒเชฆเซเชงเชฟ
  2. B. เชตเชฟเช˜เชŸเชจ
  3. C. เชตเชฟเชฆเซเชฏเชพ
  4. D. เช†เช•เชฐเซเชทเชฃ
9
"เชธเซเชฅเชพเชจ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เชตเชฟเชฐเซ‹เชงเซ€ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชงเซ‚เชช
  2. B. เชฆเซ‚เชฐ
  3. C. เชœเช—เซเชฏเชพ
  4. D. เช†เชตเซ‡เชถ
10
"เชฎเช‚เชœเชฟเชฒ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เชตเซเชฏเชพเชชเชพเชฐเชฟเช• เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เช—เซ‹เชฒ
  2. B. เชงเชฌเซเชฌเซ
  3. C. เชธเชพเช‚เชœ
  4. D. เช‰เชฆเซเชฆเซ‡เชถ
11
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1915
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.The Government of India Act, 1935
12
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
13
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.None of the above
14
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
  1. A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
15
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
  1. A.Privy Council
  2. B.Supreme Court
  3. C.High Court
  4. D.Federal Court
16
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
  1. A.Original jurisdiction only
  2. B.Appellate jurisdiction only
  3. C.Advisory jurisdiction only
  4. D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
17
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
  1. A.14 and 7
  2. B.11 and 7
  3. C.15 and 9
  4. D.None of the above
18
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
  1. A.Government of India Act, 1919
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
  4. D.None of the above
19
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
  1. A.3 June, 1947
  2. B.4 July, 1947
  3. C.15 July, 1947
  4. D.18 July, 1947
20
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
  1. A.Simon Commission
  2. B.Cripps Mission
  3. C.Cabinet Mission Plan
  4. D.The Mountbatten plan
21
Whats the capital city of Gujarat?
  1. A.Ahmedabad
  2. B.Surat
  3. C.Gandhinagar
  4. D.Vadodara
22
Which national parkn Gujarats famous for Asiatic lions?
  1. A.Gir National Park
  2. B.Ranthambore National Park
  3. C.Kanha National Park
  4. D.Bandipur National Park
23
Which river flows through the city of Ahmedabad?
  1. A.Sabarmati
  2. B.Tapi
  3. C.Narmada
  4. D.Mahi
24
Whats the official language of Gujarat?
  1. A.Gujarati
  2. B.Hindi
  3. C.Marathi
  4. D.Konkani
25
Which dance forms native to Gujarat?
  1. A.Garba
  2. B.Bhangra
  3. C.Lavani
  4. D.Kathakali
26
Which platform was launched by the Gujarat government in partnership with Meta to provide citizen services through WhatsApp?
  1. A.Jan Seva Connect
  2. B.Gujarat Digital Mitra
  3. C.Smart Gujarat Portal
  4. D.WhatsApp Governance Services
27
How many citizen-centric services were initially made available through the Gujarat governmentโ€“Meta initiative?
  1. A.20
  2. B.15
  3. C.10
  4. D.25
28
Which city remained the administrative center of major government announcements in Gujarat during May 2026?
  1. A.Gandhinagar
  2. B.Rajkot
  3. C.Vadodara
  4. D.Surat
29
Which sector received a major boost through new state-level policy initiatives in May 2026?
  1. A.Fisheries
  2. B.Education Infrastructure
  3. C.Aviation
  4. D.Mining
30
What amount was approved by the Gujarat government for new schools and educational infrastructure?
  1. A.โ‚น150 crore
  2. B.โ‚น330 crore
  3. C.โ‚น220 crore
  4. D.โ‚น500 crore

Technical Subject

1
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
2
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
3
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
  1. A.0.45 m    
  2. B.0.15 m
  3. C.0.30 m       
  4. D.0.6 m
4
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
  1. A.having a constant phase difference
  2. B.of equal wavelength
  3. C.of equal speed
  4. D.having same shape of wavefront
5
Three resistors 1 รขโ€žยฆ, 2 รขโ€žยฆ, 3รขโ€žยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโ€žยฆ resistor is -
  1. A.0.75 A     
  2. B.1 A
  3. C.2 A         
  4. D.1.5 A
6
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
  1. A.anywhere 
  2. B.emitter-collector
  3. C.collector-base
  4. D.base-emitter
7
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
  1. A.2 and 4
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.4 only
8
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
  1. A.S1,S2 and S4
  2. B.S2 and S4
  3. C.S4 only
  4. D.S3 only
9
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
  1. A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
  2. B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
  3. C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
  4. D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
10
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
  1. A.same in all the medium
  2. B.lesser in rarer medium
  3. C.lesser in denser medium
  4. D.independent of the medium
11
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
12
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
13
The one which decreases with dilution is
  1. A.molar conductance
  2. B.conductance
  3. C.specific conductance
  4. D.equivalent conductance
14
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
  1. A.28 mm   
  2. B.56 mm
  3. C.70 mm    
  4. D.140 mm
15
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
  1. A.1 M solution of glucose
  2. B.0.05 M solution of glucose
  3. C.6% solution of glucose
  4. D.25% solution of glucose
16
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
  1. A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
  2. B.to minimise the snow fall
  3. C.to minimise pollution
  4. D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
17
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
  1. A.AB2 
  2. B.A2B
  3. C.AB
  4. D.AB3
18
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
  1. A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
  2. B.decreases electron density at meta position
  3. C.increases electron  density at meta position
  4. D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
19
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
  1. A.PCI5
  2. B.PCI3
  3. C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
  4. D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
20
The carbon bond length in benzene is
  1. A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
  2. B.same as in C2H4
  3. C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
  4. D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
21
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
22
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
  1. A.Water vapour
  2. B.Carbon monoxide
  3. C.Methane
  4. D.Oxygen
23
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
  1. A.50%          
  2. B.75%
  3. C.0% 
  4. D.25%
24
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
  1. A.fresh-water mussel
  2. B.tortoise
  3. C.frog
  4. D.jelly fish
25
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
  1. A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
  2. B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
  3. C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
  4. D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
26
Compare the statement A and B.
Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy.
Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
  1. A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
  2. B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
  3. C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
  4. D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
27
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
  1. A.B,C and D
  2. B.A and D
  3. C.B and D
  4. D.A, B and C
28
Compare the statements A and B.
Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds.
Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
  1. A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
  2. B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
  3. C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
  4. D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
29
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
  1. A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
  2. B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
  3. C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
  4. D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
30
Stoma opens, when
  1. A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
  2. B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
  3. C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
  4. D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
31
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
  1. A.{–2, 2} 
  2. B.{–1, 0, 1}
  3. C.{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
  4. D.{0, 1, 2}
32
  1. D.None of these
33
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
  1. A.{2}
  2. B.{1, 2}  
  3. C.{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
  4. D.{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
34
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
  1. A.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
  2. B.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}  
  3. C.{2, 4, 6}
  4. D.{1, 3, 5}
35
If A B and A B, then
  1. A.A is called a proper subset of B
  2. B.A is called a super set of B
  3. C.A is not a subset of B 
  4. D.B is a subset of A
36
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
  1. A.15
  2. B.14
  3. C.16
  4. D.17
37
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
  1. A.2m – 1
  2. B.m 
  3. C.m2
  4. D.2m
38
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
  1. A.3
  2. B.8
  3. C.7
  4. D.None of these
39
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
  1. A.16
  2. B.15  
  3. C.4 
  4. D.None of these 
40
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
  1. A.A is always a subset of the complement of B
  2. B.B is always a subset of A  
  3. C.A and B are always disjoint
  4. D.A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint  
41
Which of the following is/are empty set? 
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z}   B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
  1. A.A
  2. B.B  
  3. C.Both A and B
  4. D.None of the above 
42
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
  1. A.empty
  2. B.finite
  3. C.infinite
  4. D.singleton 
43
The universal set for the sets   
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and   
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
  1. A.{1, 2}
  2. B.{1, 3}
  3. C.{1, 2, 3}
  4. D.{0, 1, 2, 3}
44
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0}, 
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and 
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
  1. A.A and B
  2. B.A and C  
  3. C.A, B and C 
  4. D.A, C and D
45
If A = (–3, 5) and  B = [–7, 9], then
  1. A.A = B
  2. B.A B 
  3. C.B A
  4. D.None of these 
46
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
  1. A.7, 6
  2. B.5, 1
  3. C.6, 3
  4. D.8, 7
47
Combine terms: 12a + 26b  - 4b – 16a .
  1. A.4a + 22b
  2. B.-28a + 30b
  3. C.-4a + 22b
  4. D.28a + 30b
48
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
  1. A.25.30
  2. B.25.5
  3. C.25.00
  4. D.12.25
49
60 Times of 8 Equals to
  1. A.480
  2. B.300
  3. C.250
  4. D.400
50
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
  1. A.A
  2. B.A and B
  3. C.A and C
  4. D.A, B and C
51
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
  1. A.N
  2. B.Y – X
  3. C.X
  4. D.Y
52
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
  1. A.I and III are correct
  2. B.II and III are correct  
  3. C.Only IV is correct 
  4. D.All above are correct 
53
    54
    Consider the following statements :
    1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
    2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    1. A.1 only
    2. B.2 only
    3. C.Both 1 and 2
    4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
    55
    What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
    1. A.13
    2. B.12
    3. C.14
    4. D.11
    56
    If A and B are two given sets, then A (A B)C is equal to
    1. A.A
    2. B.B
    57
    121 Divided by 11 is
    1. A.11
    2. B.10
    3. C.19
    4. D.18
    58
    Let X be the universal set for sets A and B, if n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300 and n = 100, then n is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to
    1. A.600
    2. B.700
    3. C.800
    4. D.900
    59
    1. A.{3, 4, 10}
    2. B.{2, 8, 10}
    3. C.{4, 5, 6}
    4. D.{3, 5, 14}
    60
    Let A = {x : x is a prime factor of 240} B = {x : x is the sum of any two prime factors of 240}, then
      61
      Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
      1. A.length and mass
      2. B.mass and time
      3. C.length, mass and time
      4. D.None of these
      62
      Electron volt is a unit of
      1. A.potential difference
      2. B.charge
      3. C.energy
      4. D.capacity
      63
      Dimensions of impulse are
      1. A.[MLT –1]
      2. B.[MLT²]
      3. C.[MT–2]
      4. D.[ML–1T–3]
      64
      Potential is measured in
      1. A.joule/coulomb
      2. B.watt/coulomb
      3. C.newton–second
      4. D.None of these
      65
      One Nanometer is equal to
      1. A.10–9m
      2. B.10–6m
      3. C.10–10m
      4. D.10–3m
      66
      Maxwell is the unit of
      1. A.magnetic susceptibility
      2. B.intensity of Magnetisation
      3. C.magnetic Flux
      4. D.magnetic Permeability
      67
      Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
      1. A.Mass
      2. B.Velocity
      3. C.Length
      4. D.Time
      68
      What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
      1. A.Wb A–1 m–1
      2. B.Wb–1 Am
      3. C.Wb A m–1
      4. D.Wb A–1 m
      69
      The dimensions of pressure gradient are
      1. A.[ML–2 T–2]
      2. B.[ML–2 T–1]
      3. C.[ML–1 T–1]
      4. D.[ML–1 T–2]
      70
      The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
      1. A.[M0L–1T]
      2. B.[MLT–1]
      3. C.[M0 L–1T0]
      4. D.[ML0 T2]
      71
      'Farad' is the unit of
      1. A.resistance
      2. B.conductance
      3. C.capacitance
      4. D.inductance
      72
      S.I. unit of surface tension is
      1. A.degree/cm
      2. B.N/m
      3. C.N/m²
      4. D.Nm
      73
      Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimension ?
      1. A.Potential energy and Kinetic energy
      2. B.Density and specific gravity
      3. C.Focal length and height
      4. D.Gravitational force and frictional force
      74
      Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure ?
      1. A.Angular momentum
      2. B.Stress
      3. C.Strain
      4. D.Work
      75
      The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for
      1. A.Holm
      2. B.Halogen
      3. C.Henry
      4. D.Hertz
      76
      Light year is a measure of
      1. A.time
      2. B.distance
      3. C.total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year
      4. D.average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year
      77
      Which one of the following is not a dimension less quantity ?
      1. A.Strain
      2. B.Relative density
      3. C.Frequency
      4. D.Angle
      78
      The dimensions of universal gas constant are
      1. A.[L² M¹ T–2 K–1]
      2. B.[L¹ M² T–2 K–1]
      3. C.[L¹ M¹ T–2 K–1]
      4. D.[L² M² T–2 K–1]
      79
      The dimensions of magnetic moment are
      1. A.[L²A¹]
      2. B.[L²A–1]
      3. C.[L²/A³]
      4. D.[LA²]
      80
      The dimensions of Wien's constant are
      1. A.[ML0TK]
      2. B.[M0LT0K]
      3. C.[M0L0TK]
      4. D.[MLTK]
      81
      Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
      1. A.Anygora
      2. B.Rayon
      3. C.Nylon
      4. D.Polyster
      82
      Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
      1. A.Ca3Al2O6
      2. B.Ca3SiO5
      3. C.Ca2Si­O4
      4. D.Ca3(PO4)2
      83
      What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
      1. A.It does not contain carbon
      2. B.It does not contain silicon
      3. C.It does not contain iron
      4. D.It does not contain calcium
      84
      Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
      1. A.Super phosphate
      2. B.Nitrolim
      3. C.Muriate of Potash
      4. D.Humus
      85
      Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
      1. A.Aluminium sulphate
      2. B.Copper sulphate
      3. C.Cobalt sulphate
      4. D.Nickel sulphate 
      86
      What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
      1. A.Glass
      2. B.Cement
      3. C.paint
      4. D.Gun powder
      87
      Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
      1. A.Sulphur based
      2. B.Phosphorus based
      3. C.Silicon based
      4. D.Iron based 
      88
      Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
      1. A.Magnesium oxide
      2. B.Magnesium carbonate
      3. C.Magnesium chloride
      4. D.Magnesium sulphate
      89
      Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
      1. A.Red phosphorus
      2. B.White phosphorus
      3. C.Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
      4. D.Black phosphorus
      90
      Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
      1. A.Nylon –6, 6
      2. B.Rayon
      3. C.Kevlar
      4. D.Dacron
      91
      Which one of the following is another name of RDX
      1. A.Cyanohydrin
      2. B.Dextran
      3. C.Cyclohexane
      4. D.Cyclonite
      92
      Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
      1. A.Phosphorus trichloride
      2. B.Mercuric oxide
      3. C.Graphite
      4. D.Nitroglycerine
      93
      Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
      1. A.Zinc and barium borosilicate
      2. B.Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
      3. C.Sodium aluminium borosilicate
      4. D.Pure silica and zinc oxide
      94
      Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
      1. A.Crystalline solid
      2. B.Super cooled liquid
      3. C.Condensed gas
      4. D.Liquid crystal
      95
      Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
      1. A.Ammonium nitrate
      2. B.Ammonium sulphide
      3. C.Ammonium phosphate
      4. D.Ammonium sulphate   
      96
      Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
      1. A.Lithium
      2. B.Sodium
      3. C.Rubidium
      4. D.Caesium
      97
      Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
      1. A.It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
      2. B.It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
      3. C.It is used for disinfecting drinking water
      4. D.It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
      98
      Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
      1. A.hard glass have Na in place of K
      2. B.hard glass having K in place of Na
      3. C.hard glass having both Na and K
      4. D.None of the above
      99
      A complete fertilizer provides
      1. A.N,P, K
      2. B.S, K, N
      3. C.S, B, K
      4. D.N, S, P
      100
      Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
      1. A.sodium hydrogen phthalate
      2. B.magnesium hydroxide  
      3. C.calcium hydroxide
      4. D.manganese acetate
      101
      Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
      1. A.Dictyosomes
      2. B.Endoplasmic reticulum
      3. C.lysosomes
      4. D.Mitochondria
      102
      Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
      1. A.Cell membrane
      2. B.Plasma membrane
      3. C.Cell wall
      4. D.Nucleus
      103
      Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
      1. A.Manganese
      2. B.Potassium
      3. C.Phosphorus
      4. D.Calcium
      104
      Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
      1. A.Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
      2. B.Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
      3. C.Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
      4. D.Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
      105
      For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
      1. A.Apple
      2. B.Date
      3. C.Grape
      4. D.Plum
      106
      Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
      1. A.Cholesterol
      2. B.Glycoplids
      3. C.Proline
      4. D.Phospholipids
      107
      The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
      1. A.S–phase
      2. B.G1–phase
      3. C.G2–phase
      4. D.M-phase
      108
      During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?
      1. A.Phophase
      2. B.Metaphase
      3. C.Anaphase
      4. D.Telophase
      109
      Lysosome arises from
      1. A.endoplasmic reticulum
      2. B.golgi apparatus
      3. C.nucleus
      4. D.mitochondria
      110
      The correct sequence of cell cycle is
      1. A.S, G1, G2, M
      2. B.S, M, G1, G2
      3. C.G1, S, G2, M
      4. D.M, G1, G2, S
      111
      Biological membranes are composed of
      1. A.40% proteins and 60% lipids
      2. B.50% proteins and 50% lipids
      3. C.70% proteins and 30% lipids
      4. D.60% proteins and 40% lipids
      112
      F1 particles / oxysome / elementary particles are present in
      1. A.endoplasmic reticulum
      2. B.chloroplast
      3. C.mitochondria
      4. D.golgi complex
      113
      "Endomitosis" refers to
      1. A.division of nucleus without chromosomal division
      2. B.division of chromosome without nuclear division
      3. C.division of cytoplasm
      4. D.None of the above
      114
      When the concentration of water and solutes on either side of the cell membrane is same, the solution is said to be
      1. A.hypertonic
      2. B.isotonic
      3. C.hypotonic
      4. D.None of these
      115
      The function of nucleous is the synthesis of
      1. A.DNA
      2. B.m - RNA
      3. C.r- RNA
      4. D.t - RNA
      116
      Mesosome in a bacterial cell is
      1. A.plasmid
      2. B.connection between two cells
      3. C.plasma membrane infolded for respiration
      4. D.None of these
      117
      In living cels synthesis of ribonoucleic acid (RNA) takes place in :
      1. A.Cytoplasm
      2. B.Nucleus
      3. C.Golgi body
      4. D.Nephron
      118
      The cell organelle storing substances like starch, oil and proteins is
      1. A.Vacuole
      2. B.Lysosome
      3. C.Plastid
      4. D.Golgi body
      119
      Organisms lacking nuclear membrane and cell organelles is called as :
      1. A.Prokaryotes
      2. B.Eukaryotes
      3. C.Protozoa
      4. D.Virus
      120
      Cell organelles that are involved in the waste disposal system of the cell are :
      1. A.Golgi apparatus
      2. B.Lysosomes
      3. C.Chromosomes
      4. D.Ribosomes
      Question for GSSSB Laboratory Assistant 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam