Latest GSSSB MPHS Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Comprehension, Questions and Its Applications related to Technical Qualification
Question Bank GSSSB Multi Purpose Health Supervisor Exam - English
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 3Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 4Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 5Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 9Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 10Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 11Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 14Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 15Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 21Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 22Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 23Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 24Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 25Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 27Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Question 28Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID
Question 29Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 31Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 33Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 34Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 35Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 36Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 37Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 38Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 39Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 40Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 41Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 42Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 43Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 44Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 45Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS. (II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
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Quantitative Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 52Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 53Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 54Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 55Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 56Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I Quantity II
C
Quantity II Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 57Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I Quantity II
C
Quantity II Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 58Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C
Quantity II > Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 59Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C
Quantity II > Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 60Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it.you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer.
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
A
Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Comprehension
Question 61Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 62Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 63Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 64Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 65Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 66Single Answer
"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?
A
વાતચીત
B
આક્રમણ
C
ખેડૂત
D
ધમાધમ
Question 67Single Answer
"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?
A
સંગઠન
B
વ્યવસ્થા
C
સંવિદાન
D
અનવરત
Question 68Single Answer
"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A
અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B
વિઘટન
C
વિદ્યા
D
આકર્ષણ
Question 69Single Answer
"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?
A
ધૂપ
B
દૂર
C
જગ્યા
D
આવેશ
Question 70Single Answer
"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?
A
ગોલ
B
ધબ્બુ
C
સાંજ
D
ઉદ્દેશ
Question 71Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 72Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 73Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above
Question 74Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 75Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court
Question 76Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 77Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above
Question 78Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above
Question 79Single Answer
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947
Question 80Single Answer
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan
Question 81Single Answer
Which platform was launched by the Gujarat government in partnership with Meta to provide citizen services through WhatsApp?
A
Jan Seva Connect
B
Gujarat Digital Mitra
C
Smart Gujarat Portal
D
WhatsApp Governance Services
Question 82Single Answer
How many citizen-centric services were initially made available through the Gujarat government–Meta initiative?
A
20
B
15
C
10
D
25
Question 83Single Answer
Which city remained the administrative center of major government announcements in Gujarat during May 2026?
A
Gandhinagar
B
Rajkot
C
Vadodara
D
Surat
Question 84Single Answer
Which sector received a major boost through new state-level policy initiatives in May 2026?
A
Fisheries
B
Education Infrastructure
C
Aviation
D
Mining
Question 85Single Answer
What amount was approved by the Gujarat government for new schools and educational infrastructure?
A
₹150 crore
B
₹330 crore
C
₹220 crore
D
₹500 crore
Question 86Single Answer
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat
Question 87Single Answer
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan
Question 88Single Answer
Where was the 2026 SCO Leaders’ Summit held?
A
Tashkent
B
Bishkek
C
Dushanbe
D
Astana
Question 89Single Answer
India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?
A
Strategic Partnership
B
Economic Partnership
C
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D
Defence Partnership
Question 90Single Answer
Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?
A
ONGC and IOCL
B
GAIL and NTPC
C
PNGRB and EESL
D
HPCL and BPCL
Questions and Its Applications related to Technical Qualification
Question 91Single Answer
The primary objective of public health is to:
A
Treat individual patients only
B
Manufacture medicines
C
Perform surgery
D
Prevent disease and promote population health
Question 92Single Answer
Public health mainly focuses on:
A
Individual treatment only
B
Laboratory research only
C
Hospital construction
D
Population-based health improvement
Question 93Single Answer
Which is a basic principle of public health?
A
Treatment after complications only
B
Prevention of disease
C
Isolation of health services
D
Ignoring environmental factors
Question 94Single Answer
Health promotion aims to:
A
Increase hospitalization
B
Enable people to improve control over their health
C
Reduce public participation
D
Increase drug consumption
Question 95Single Answer
Primary prevention is carried out:
A
During rehabilitation only
B
After disability occurs
C
After complications occur
D
Before disease occurs
Question 96Single Answer
Immunization is an example of:
A
Primary prevention
B
Secondary prevention
C
Tertiary prevention
D
Rehabilitation
Question 97Single Answer
Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are part of:
A
Secondary prevention
B
Primary prevention
C
Primordial prevention
D
Tertiary prevention
Question 98Single Answer
Rehabilitation is generally included under:
A
Tertiary prevention
B
Secondary prevention
C
Primary prevention
D
Primordial prevention
Question 99Single Answer
Primordial prevention aims to:
A
Diagnose diseases early
B
Prevent the emergence of risk factors
C
Treat complications
D
Provide rehabilitation
Question 100Single Answer
Screening of apparently healthy persons is mainly a form of:
A
Primary prevention
B
Tertiary prevention
C
Secondary prevention
D
Rehabilitation
Question 101Single Answer
Which is an important determinant of health?
A
Environment
B
All of the above
C
Lifestyle
D
Genetics
Question 102Single Answer
Public health surveillance means:
A
Conducting surgery camps
B
Treating every patient in a hospital
C
Continuous collection and analysis of health data
D
Manufacturing vaccines
Question 103Single Answer
Epidemiology is the study of:
A
Drug manufacturing
B
Distribution and determinants of health-related events in populations
C
Hospital accounting
D
Surgical procedures
Question 104Single Answer
Incidence refers to:
A
All existing cases
B
New cases occurring during a specified period
C
Deaths only
D
Recovered cases only
Question 105Single Answer
Prevalence refers to:
A
Only severe cases
B
Only new cases
C
Only deaths
D
Existing cases in a population at a given time or period
Question 106Single Answer
The number of deaths in a population is measured by:
A
Morbidity
B
Mortality
C
Fertility
D
Disability
Question 107Single Answer
Morbidity refers to:
A
Deaths only
B
Births
C
Illness or disease in a population
D
Migration
Question 108Single Answer
Infant mortality rate considers deaths among children below:
A
28 days
B
1 year
C
6 months
D
5 years
Question 109Single Answer
Neonatal mortality refers to deaths occurring within:
A
First 28 completed days of life
B
First 7 days only
C
First year
D
First five years
Question 110Single Answer
Maternal mortality is an important indicator of:
A
School attendance
B
Road safety
C
Industrial production
D
Maternal health services
Question 111Single Answer
Malaria is caused by a:
A
Virus
B
Protozoan parasite
C
Bacterium
D
Fungus
Question 112Single Answer
Malaria is transmitted to humans mainly by the bite of:
A
Female Anopheles mosquito
B
Male Anopheles mosquito
C
Female Aedes mosquito
D
Culex mosquito
Question 113Single Answer
The infective stage of malaria parasite transmitted from mosquito to human is:
A
Gametocyte
B
Merozoite
C
Trophozoite
D
Sporozoite
Question 114Single Answer
Which species is particularly associated with severe malaria?
A
Plasmodium malariae only
B
Plasmodium falciparum
C
Plasmodium ovale only
D
Plasmodium vivax only
Question 115Single Answer
A common symptom of malaria is:
A
Constipation only
B
Fever with chills
C
Ear discharge
D
Joint dislocation
Question 116Single Answer
Malaria surveillance primarily aims to:
A
Stop blood examination
B
Increase mosquito breeding
C
Identify and respond to malaria cases
D
Reduce reporting
Question 117Single Answer
During malaria supervision, the supervisor should first ensure that fever cases are:
A
Properly tested and recorded
B
Ignored
C
Treated without assessment in all cases
D
Deleted from registers
Question 118Single Answer
RDT in malaria stands for:
A
Rapid Diagnostic Test
B
Routine Drug Therapy
C
Regional Disease Treatment
D
Rapid Disinfection Technique
Question 119Single Answer
Microscopic diagnosis of malaria generally requires examination of:
A
Urine
B
Stool
C
Sputum
D
Blood smear
Question 120Single Answer
Thick blood smear is particularly useful for:
A
Measuring blood pressure
B
Detecting malaria parasites
C
Detecting proteinuria
D
Testing vision
Question 121Single Answer
A thin blood smear is useful for:
A
Measuring hemoglobin only
B
Identifying Plasmodium species
C
Detecting dehydration
D
Testing chlorine
Question 122Single Answer
A malaria supervisor should check whether malaria diagnostic kits are:
A
Available and within expiry date
B
Stored in sunlight
C
Distributed without records
D
Used after expiry
Question 123Single Answer
Malaria cases should be treated according to:
A
Traditional assumptions alone
B
Personal preference of the worker
C
Patient rumors
D
Standard treatment guidelines
Question 124Single Answer
Delay in malaria diagnosis may increase the risk of:
A
Complications and transmission
B
Improved surveillance
C
Mosquito elimination
D
Better immunity in everyone
Question 125Single Answer
The malaria vector commonly breeds in:
A
Flames
B
Dry sand only
C
Water collections
D
Sealed metal surfaces
Question 126Single Answer
Source reduction means:
A
Increasing vegetation everywhere
B
Increasing water storage
C
Increasing mosquito density
D
Eliminating mosquito breeding sites
Question 127Single Answer
Indoor residual spraying is mainly intended to kill:
A
Bacteria in drinking water
B
Malaria parasites in blood
C
Adult mosquitoes resting on sprayed surfaces
D
Mosquito eggs in food
Question 128Single Answer
IRS stands for:
A
Internal Reporting System
B
Indoor Residual Spraying
C
Integrated Referral Service
D
Insect Recording Survey
Question 129Single Answer
During IRS supervision, a supervisor should check:
A
Only staff uniforms
B
Spray quality and coverage
C
Road condition only
D
School attendance
Question 130Single Answer
Long-lasting insecticidal nets are commonly abbreviated as:
A
NCDs
B
ORS
C
IUCDs
D
LLINs
Question 131Single Answer
The main benefit of an insecticide-treated bed net is to:
A
Purify drinking water
B
Reduce mosquito bites
C
Treat malaria directly
D
Measure fever
Question 132Single Answer
A malaria supervisor should check correct use of bed nets during:
A
Laboratory sterilization only
B
Household visits
C
Hospital surgery
D
Vehicle inspection
Question 133Single Answer
Community education for malaria should emphasize:
A
Early testing of fever
B
Waiting several weeks before seeking care
C
Avoiding mosquito nets
D
Allowing stagnant water
Question 134Single Answer
Mosquito larvae live mainly in:
A
Water
B
Dry cloth
C
Food grains
D
Human blood
Question 135Single Answer
Larval source management targets:
A
Immature stages of mosquitoes
B
Human red blood cells
C
Adult parasites only
D
Hospital bacteria
Question 136Single Answer
Malaria supervision should include review of:
A
Only salary registers
B
Fever and malaria registers
C
Construction records only
D
Vehicle logbooks only
Question 137Single Answer
A sudden rise in malaria cases should prompt:
A
Deletion of records
B
Investigation
C
Delay in reporting
D
Suspension of surveillance
Question 138Single Answer
Epidemiological investigation helps determine:
A
Pattern and possible source of transmission
B
Patient's bank balance
C
School grades
D
Soil fertility only
Question 139Single Answer
Malaria surveillance data should be analyzed to identify:
A
Only employee attendance
B
High-risk areas
C
Hospital furniture needs
D
Building paint requirements
Question 140Single Answer
The term "vector density" refers to:
A
Number of medicines
B
Number of patients in hospital
C
Abundance of disease-transmitting vectors
D
Number of laboratories
Question 141Single Answer
A supervisor checking mosquito breeding sites is performing:
A
Counseling only
B
Financial auditing
C
Nutritional assessment
D
Vector surveillance
Question 142Single Answer
Environmental management for malaria control may include:
A
Creating stagnant pools
B
Drainage of unnecessary standing water
C
Open storage of water indefinitely
D
Increasing discarded containers
Question 143Single Answer
Fever surveillance should be especially strengthened during:
A
High transmission season
B
Periods with no population
C
Staff holidays only
D
Building repairs only
Question 144Single Answer
A malaria supervisor should verify whether health workers know:
A
Case definitions and referral criteria
B
Only payroll procedures
C
Only office timings
D
Building measurements
Question 145Single Answer
Severe malaria requires:
A
Home remedies only
B
Delayed care
C
Urgent referral and appropriate management
D
No monitoring
Question 146Single Answer
Altered consciousness in a malaria patient should be considered:
A
Unrelated to severity
B
A normal finding
C
A sign of complete recovery
D
A danger sign
Question 147Single Answer
Persistent vomiting in a malaria patient may require:
A
Clinical assessment and possible referral
B
No action
C
Increased mosquito exposure
D
Stopping all fluids without advice
Question 148Single Answer
Malaria control is strengthened by coordination between:
A
Diagnosis alone
B
Surveillance, diagnosis, treatment and vector control
C
Treatment alone
D
Reporting alone
Question 149Single Answer
Supervision should verify that malaria treatment is:
A
Shared among family members
B
Stopped as soon as fever falls regardless of regimen
C
Completed as prescribed
D
Taken randomly
Question 150Single Answer
Treatment adherence is important to:
A
Reduce surveillance
B
Increase complications
C
Increase vector breeding
D
Improve cure and reduce continued infection
Question 151Single Answer
The primary purpose of maintaining health records is to:
A
Increase paperwork
B
Replace patient care
C
Ensure continuity of care and provide health information
D
Avoid reporting
Question 152Single Answer
A report is generally prepared from:
A
Rumours
B
Personal memory only
C
Recorded data
D
Assumptions
Question 153Single Answer
A good health record should be:
A
Accurate
B
Complete
C
Legible
D
All of the above
Question 154Single Answer
Recording an activity immediately after it is performed improves:
A
Delay
B
Confusion
C
Duplication
D
Accuracy
Question 155Single Answer
A register is mainly used for:
A
Laboratory sterilization
B
Drug treatment
C
Water chlorination
D
Systematic recording of service information
Question 156Single Answer
Monthly health reports are primarily used to:
A
Hide service gaps
B
Replace registers
C
Eliminate supervision
D
Summarize services and activities
Question 157Single Answer
Completeness of a report means:
A
Report is very long
B
Only totals are entered
C
All required information is entered
D
Report is handwritten
Question 158Single Answer
Timeliness of reporting means:
A
Submission after reminders only
B
Submission whenever convenient
C
Submission once a year only
D
Submission within the prescribed period
Question 159Single Answer
Data accuracy means:
A
Data are estimated
B
Reported information reflects actual events
C
Targets are reported as achievements
D
Missing data are ignored
Question 160Single Answer
Duplicate recording may lead to:
A
Better accuracy
B
Over-reporting
C
Improved data quality
D
Reduced workload
Question 161Single Answer
Under-reporting means:
A
All events are reported correctly
B
More events are reported
C
Fewer events are reported than actually occurred
D
Data are verified
Question 162Single Answer
A supervisor should compare reports with:
A
Personal assumptions
B
Rumours
C
Source registers
D
Newspaper reports
Question 163Single Answer
Data validation is done to:
A
Detect errors and inconsistencies
B
Increase errors
C
Eliminate records
D
Avoid reporting
Question 164Single Answer
A discrepancy between a register and monthly report should be:
A
Investigated
B
Ignored
C
Hidden
D
Repeated next month
Question 165Single Answer
Confidential health records should be accessible to:
A
Unrelated visitors
B
Everyone
C
Media
D
Authorized personnel
Question 166Single Answer
Confidentiality protects:
A
Buildings
B
Mosquitoes
C
Patient information
D
Equipment only
Question 167Single Answer
A line list is commonly used to record:
A
Staff salaries
B
Individual cases during surveillance or outbreaks
C
Equipment prices
D
Building repairs
Question 168Single Answer
A tally sheet is useful for:
A
Chlorinating water
B
Diagnosing disease
C
Measuring BP
D
Counting repeated events or services
Question 169Single Answer
Daily service records help prepare:
A
Monthly reports
B
Only annual budgets
C
Drug prescriptions
D
Water maps
Question 170Single Answer
A good report should be:
A
Unverified
B
Ambiguous
C
Based on guesswork
D
Clear and concise
Question 171Single Answer
Maternal health mainly refers to the health of women during:
A
Pregnancy, childbirth and postpartum period
B
Pregnancy only
C
Childhood only
D
Old age only
Question 172Single Answer
Child health is influenced by:
A
All of the above
B
Immunization
C
Environment
D
Nutrition
Question 173Single Answer
One major determinant of maternal health is:
A
Climate only
B
Road width
C
School uniform
D
Antenatal care
Question 174Single Answer
Early registration of pregnancy is important because it:
A
Prevents nutrition counseling
B
Delays care
C
Enables early risk detection
D
Avoids follow-up
Question 175Single Answer
Antenatal care primarily helps to:
A
Prevent all pregnancies
B
Detect complications early
C
Avoid institutional delivery
D
Reduce vaccination
Question 176Single Answer
High-risk pregnancy requires:
A
Closer monitoring
B
No special care
C
Less follow-up
D
Home care only
Question 177Single Answer
Severe anemia in pregnancy may increase the risk of:
A
Higher immunity
B
Better fetal growth
C
Maternal complications
D
Reduced fatigue
Question 178Single Answer
Iron-folic acid supplementation in pregnancy helps prevent:
A
Malaria
B
Nutritional anemia
C
Rabies
D
Cholera
Question 179Single Answer
Maternal nutrition directly affects:
A
Mosquito exposure
B
Only maternal height
C
Only eyesight
D
Fetal growth
Question 180Single Answer
Low maternal weight may increase the risk of:
A
No effect on pregnancy
B
Macrosomia in all cases
C
Better fetal growth
D
Low-birth-weight baby
Question 181Single Answer
5 kg
Question 182Single Answer
Prematurity means birth before:
A
28 weeks
B
30 weeks
C
42 weeks
D
37 completed weeks
Question 183Single Answer
Premature babies are at increased risk of:
A
All of the above
B
Infection
C
Breathing difficulties
D
Feeding problems
Question 184Single Answer
Maternal age below 18 years may increase:
A
Service utilization
B
Nutritional adequacy automatically
C
Birth spacing
D
Pregnancy-related risks
Question 185Single Answer
Pregnancy at advanced maternal age may increase risk of:
A
Better outcomes always
B
Zero complications
C
Certain maternal and fetal complications
D
No monitoring need
Question 186Single Answer
Short birth interval may adversely affect:
A
Only maternal height
B
Maternal and child health
C
Only father’s health
D
Only community sanitation
Question 187Single Answer
Adequate birth spacing helps:
A
Reduce nutrition
B
Increase maternal depletion
C
Increase infant risk
D
Improve maternal recovery
Question 188Single Answer
Multiparity refers to:
A
Menopause
B
One pregnancy only
C
No pregnancy
D
Having had multiple pregnancies/births
Question 189Single Answer
Grand multiparity may be associated with:
A
Increased obstetric risk
B
No health risk
C
Better hemoglobin automatically
D
Reduced need for antenatal care
Question 190Single Answer
Institutional delivery is beneficial mainly because it provides:
A
No newborn care
B
No emergency support
C
Skilled birth attendance
D
No referral
Question 191Single Answer
Communication is the process of:
A
Conducting surgery
B
Giving medicines
C
Measuring blood pressure
D
Exchanging information and ideas
Question 192Single Answer
The person who initiates communication is called the:
A
Receiver
B
Evaluator
C
Observer
D
Sender
Question 193Single Answer
The person for whom a message is intended is the:
A
Sender
B
Encoder
C
Receiver
D
Supervisor
Question 194Single Answer
The information transmitted during communication is called the:
A
Channel
B
Noise
C
Feedback
D
Message
Question 195Single Answer
The medium through which a message is transmitted is called:
A
Encoding
B
Feedback
C
Channel
D
Motivation
Question 196Single Answer
Feedback helps the sender know whether:
A
The patient is vaccinated
B
The room is clean
C
The message was understood
D
The equipment is working
Question 197Single Answer
Two-way communication includes:
A
Feedback
B
No response
C
Only instructions
D
No interaction
Question 198Single Answer
One-way communication usually has:
A
Immediate feedback
B
Counseling
C
Group discussion
D
Limited or no feedback
Question 199Single Answer
Which is an example of one-way communication?
A
Group discussion
B
Lecture
C
Interview
D
Counseling session
Question 200Single Answer
Which is an example of two-way communication?
A
Poster
B
Group discussion
C
Radio announcement
D
Newspaper advertisement
Question 201Single Answer
Verbal communication uses:
A
Pictures only
B
Gestures only
C
Words
D
Facial expression only
Question 202Single Answer
Non-verbal communication includes:
A
Gestures and facial expressions
B
Written report only
C
Telephone message only
D
Lecture notes only
Question 203Single Answer
Eye contact usually indicates:
A
Treatment
B
Confusion only
C
Disease
D
Attention
Question 204Single Answer
Body posture is a form of:
A
Non-verbal communication
B
Written communication
C
Mass communication only
D
Statistical communication
Question 205Single Answer
Tone of voice can affect:
A
Population growth
B
Blood pressure only
C
Nutrition only
D
Meaning of a message
Question 206Single Answer
Active listening requires:
A
Full attention to the speaker
B
Frequent interruption
C
Ignoring emotions
D
Changing the topic
Question 207Single Answer
A good listener should:
A
Look away constantly
B
Speak continuously
C
Ignore the speaker
D
Avoid unnecessary interruption
Question 208Single Answer
Empathy means:
A
Giving orders
B
Understanding another person's feelings
C
Agreeing with everything
D
Ignoring emotions
Question 209Single Answer
Sympathy differs from empathy because sympathy mainly involves: