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Question Bank

GSSSB Multi Purpose Health Worker Exam - English

Duration: 180 ยท Questions: 210 ยท Max Marks: 210 ยท Language: 1

View GSSSB Multi Purpose Health Worker 2026 Exam Page

Reasoning & Data Interpretation

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
10
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
11
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
12
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
13
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
14
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
15
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
16
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.Both CAT and OWN
  2. B.Both BRU and INK
  3. C.Only CAT
  4. D.Only INK
  5. E.Only LEG
17
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
  1. A.OWN
  2. B.LEG
  3. C.BRU
  4. D.CAT
  5. E.INK
18
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
19
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
  1. A.71
  2. B.61
  3. C.79
  4. D.69
20
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
  1. A.HID
  2. B.SON
  3. C.Both LAP and BUT
  4. D.CAR
  5. E.Both CAR and LAP
21
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.

(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
22
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
23
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
24
What is the value of x  ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
25
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years  ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
26
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
27
What is the value of a two-digit number ? 
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
28
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
29
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
30
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.                 
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Quantitative Aptitude

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
11
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
12
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
13
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
14
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
15
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
16
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
17
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
18
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
19
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
20
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
21
16.928 + 24.7582  5.015 =?
  1. A.20   
  2. B.24
  3. C.22
  4. D.26
22
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/4
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
  4. D.5/8
23
Chemistry but not in Physics.
  1. A.318
  2. B.198
  3. C.213 
  4. D.206
24
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
  1. A.558   
  2. B.718
  3. C.628  
  4. D.None of these
25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
  1. A.20%  
  2. B.25%
  3. C.30%  
  4. D.40%
26
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
  1. A.19%  
  2. B.31%
  3. C.44%
  4. D.None of these
27
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
  1. A.38% 
  2. B.48%
  3. C.51%  
  4. D.None of these
28
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
  1. A.4%
  2. B.3%
  3. C.1%  
  4. D.None of these
29
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A รกยดโ€“ (A รกยดโ€” B) equal to ?
  1. A.Complement of A 
  2. B.Complement of B
  3. C.B   
  4. D.A
30
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
  1. A.10%    
  2. B.15%
  3. C.20%  
  4. D.25%

Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Comprehension

1
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
2
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
3
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A. presented , stay
  2. B.introduced , keep
  3. C.announce , make
  4. D.created , let
  5. E.proclaimed , hold
4
Assets
  1. A.liabilities
  2. B.responsibilities
  3. C.estates
  4. D.profits
5
Affidavit
  1. A. Affirmation
  2. B.Slander
  3. C.Oath
  4. D.Testimony
6
"เชถเชพเช‚เชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชตเชพเชคเชšเซ€เชค
  2. B. เช†เช•เซเชฐเชฎเชฃ
  3. C. เช–เซ‡เชกเซ‚เชค
  4. D. เชงเชฎเชพเชงเชฎ
7
"เชตเซเชฏเช•เซเชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เชตเชฟเชฒเซ‹เชฎ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชธเช‚เช—เช เชจ
  2. B. เชตเซเชฏเชตเชธเซเชฅเชพ
  3. C. เชธเช‚เชตเชฟเชฆเชพเชจ
  4. D. เช…เชจเชตเชฐเชค
8
"เชตเชฟเช•เชพเชธ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เช…เชญเชฟเชตเซƒเชฆเซเชงเชฟ
  2. B. เชตเชฟเช˜เชŸเชจ
  3. C. เชตเชฟเชฆเซเชฏเชพ
  4. D. เช†เช•เชฐเซเชทเชฃ
9
"เชธเซเชฅเชพเชจ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เชตเชฟเชฐเซ‹เชงเซ€ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชงเซ‚เชช
  2. B. เชฆเซ‚เชฐ
  3. C. เชœเช—เซเชฏเชพ
  4. D. เช†เชตเซ‡เชถ
10
"เชฎเช‚เชœเชฟเชฒ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เชตเซเชฏเชพเชชเชพเชฐเชฟเช• เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เช—เซ‹เชฒ
  2. B. เชงเชฌเซเชฌเซ
  3. C. เชธเชพเช‚เชœ
  4. D. เช‰เชฆเซเชฆเซ‡เชถ
11
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1915
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.The Government of India Act, 1935
12
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
13
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.None of the above
14
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
  1. A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
15
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
  1. A.Privy Council
  2. B.Supreme Court
  3. C.High Court
  4. D.Federal Court
16
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
  1. A.Original jurisdiction only
  2. B.Appellate jurisdiction only
  3. C.Advisory jurisdiction only
  4. D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
17
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
  1. A.14 and 7
  2. B.11 and 7
  3. C.15 and 9
  4. D.None of the above
18
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
  1. A.Government of India Act, 1919
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
  4. D.None of the above
19
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
  1. A.3 June, 1947
  2. B.4 July, 1947
  3. C.15 July, 1947
  4. D.18 July, 1947
20
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
  1. A.Simon Commission
  2. B.Cripps Mission
  3. C.Cabinet Mission Plan
  4. D.The Mountbatten plan
21
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
  1. A.July 1, 2026
  2. B.June 30, 2026
  3. C.July 2, 2026
  4. D.June 29, 2026
22
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
  1. A.Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
  2. B.Chandrayaan-4
  3. C.Gaganyaan crewed mission
  4. D.Mars Orbiter Mission-2
23
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
  1. A.Gukesh D
  2. B.Praggnanandhaa R
  3. C.Harshavardhan G.B.
  4. D.Arjun Erigaisi
24
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
  1. A.Merger with SBI
  2. B.Merger into a single power financing entity
  3. C.Merger with NTPC
  4. D.Merger with IREDA
25
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
  1. A.Lakhpati Didi App
  2. B.Digital India Rural Scheme
  3. C.PM Kisan Drone Yojana
  4. D.SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
26
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
  1. A.New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
  2. B.Presidential elections were held
  3. C.Parliament was dissolved
  4. D.King was crowned
27
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
  1. A.20% below average
  2. B.39.8% below average
  3. C.15% above average
  4. D.Normal rainfall
28
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
  1. A.Bengaluru
  2. B.New Delhi
  3. C.Mumbai
  4. D.Hyderabad
29
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
  1. A.Universal Health Coverage
  2. B.Ayushman Bharat expansion only
  3. C.TB-free India 2030
  4. D.National Ambulance Services 2026
30
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?
  1. A.Removal of all cesses
  2. B.Single 12% slab
  3. C.Primarily two tax slabs of 5% and 18%
  4. D.Only state-level taxation

Multi Purpose Health Worker

1
Mental health is best defined as?
  1. A.A state of well-being in which an individual realizes abilities, copes with normal stresses, works productively, and contributes to society
  2. B.A state of complete physical fitness only
  3. C.Absence of all emotions
  4. D.Freedom from infectious diseases only
2
Which concept is primarily concerned with preserving and promoting mental health?
  1. A.Mental hygiene
  2. B.Pathology
  3. C.Epidemiology
  4. D.Pharmacology
3
Which component is NOT considered a dimension of psychological well-being?
  1. A.Self-acceptance
  2. B.Chronic dependency
  3. C.Environmental mastery
  4. D.Purpose in life
4
A mentally healthy person is most likely to?
  1. A.Avoid every challenge
  2. B.Suppress all emotions permanently
  3. C.Depend on others for every decision
  4. D.Accept constructive criticism positively
5
Which characteristic best reflects emotional maturity?
  1. A.Freuent impulsive reactions
  2. B.Balanced emotional expression according to situations
  3. C.Inability to forgive mistakes
  4. D.Complete absence of emotional responses
6
The ability to recover uickly after experiencing stress or adversity is known as?
  1. A.Regression
  2. B.Resilience
  3. C.Delusion
  4. D.Isolation
7
Which of the following is an indicator of positive mental health?
  1. A.Persistent hopelessness
  2. B.Constant irritability
  3. C.Social withdrawal
  4. D.Healthy interpersonal relationships
8
Mental illness differs from mental health because mental illness primarily involves?
  1. A.Positive coping abilities
  2. B.Psychological dysfunction causing distress or impaired functioning
  3. C.High emotional intelligence
  4. D.Effective adaptation to change
9
Which factor contributes most to maintaining mental health?
  1. A.Unrealistic expectations
  2. B.Effective stress management
  3. C.Social isolation
  4. D.Avoidance of responsibilities
10
A person with realistic self-perception usually?
  1. A.Overestimates personal abilities
  2. B.Underestimates every achievement
  3. C.Depends entirely on others' opinions
  4. D.Recognizes both strengths and weaknesses accurately
11
Which statement best describes mental hygiene?
  1. A.Elimination of all negative emotions
  2. B.Scientific measures to maintain and improve mental health
  3. C.Treatment of only psychiatric disorders
  4. D.Isolation from stressful situations
12
Adaptability in a mentally healthy person refers to?
  1. A.Adjusting effectively to changing circumstances
  2. B.Avoiding new situations
  3. C.Rejecting different opinions
  4. D.Following rigid routines regardless of context
13
Which behavior demonstrates psychological well-being?
  1. A.Persistent pessimism
  2. B.Fear of every social interaction
  3. C.Constant blaming of others
  4. D.Constructive problem-solving
14
Which uality is LEAST associated with good mental health?
  1. A.Flexibility
  2. B.Emotional balance
  3. C.Self-confidence
  4. D.Chronic suspicion
15
Which psychological characteristic helps an individual face failures positively?
  1. A.Healthy self-esteem
  2. B.Learned helplessness
  3. C.Emotional instability
  4. D.Extreme perfectionism
16
Mental health promotion mainly aims to?
  1. A.Increase dependence on others
  2. B.Eliminate all emotions
  3. C.Prevent physical exercise
  4. D.Enhance coping skills and uality of life
17
Which individual is most likely to possess good mental health?
  1. A.One who avoids all criticism
  2. B.One who accepts responsibility for mistakes
  3. C.One who blames everyone else
  4. D.One who fears every decision
18
Which is an example of emotional stability?
  1. A.Freuent uncontrolled anger
  2. B.Calm response during difficult situations
  3. C.Panic over minor issues
  4. D.Sudden mood changes every hour
19
Mental health is influenced by?
  1. A.Biological factors only
  2. B.Psychological factors only
  3. C.Social factors only
  4. D.Biological, psychological, and social factors together
20
Which characteristic reflects healthy interpersonal relationships?
  1. A.Continuous manipulation
  2. B.Mutual respect and trust
  3. C.Constant conflict
  4. D.Emotional exploitation
21
What is the primary objective of Information, Education, and Communication (IEc) in public health?
  1. A.To increase hospital admissions
  2. B.To improve knowledge and encourage healthy practices
  3. C.To provide financial assistance
  4. D.To replace medical treatment
22
Which element is the first step in the communication process?
  1. A.Sender
  2. B.Receiver
  3. C.Feedback
  4. D.Evaluation
23
In the communication process, encoding refers to?
  1. A.Receiving the message
  2. B.Ignoring feedback
  3. C.Measuring communication outcomes
  4. D.Converting ideas into understandable symbols or words
24
Which communication channel is most effective for individual behavior change?
  1. A.Interpersonal communication
  2. B.Television advertisement
  3. C.Newspaper article
  4. D.Billboard display
25
Which barrier to communication arises due to differences in language?
  1. A.Mechanical barrier
  2. B.Semantic barrier
  3. C.Environmental barrier
  4. D.Physiological barrier
26
Which type of communication allows immediate clarification of doubts?
  1. A.Interpersonal communication
  2. B.Printed communication
  3. C.Radio broadcast
  4. D.Poster exhibition
27
Which communication method is most appropriate for demonstrating handwashing techniues?
  1. A.Lecture only
  2. B.Newspaper advertisement
  3. C.Demonstration
  4. D.Audio announcement
28
Which component of communication confirms that the message has been understood correctly?
  1. A.Encoding
  2. B.Noise
  3. C.Feedback
  4. D.Channel
29
Which of the following is an example of mass media communication?
  1. A.Television campaign
  2. B.Home visit
  3. C.Face-to-face counseling
  4. D.Group discussion with five people
30
Which barrier is caused by poor hearing in the receiver?
  1. A.Cultural barrier
  2. B.Organizational barrier
  3. C.Physiological barrier
  4. D.Technical barrier
31
Which characteristic is essential for effective health education?
  1. A.Use of technical jargon only
  2. B.Scientific accuracy
  3. C.One-way communication only
  4. D.Avoiding community participation
32
Which communication channel is best suited for emergency public health alerts?
  1. A.Classroom lecture
  2. B.Individual counseling only
  3. C.Social media and electronic mass media
  4. D.Printed booklets alone
33
Which factor most influences the effectiveness of IEC activities?
  1. A.Excessive medical terminology
  2. B.Complex language
  3. C.Long speeches
  4. D.Audience participation
34
Which type of communication occurs through facial expressions and body posture?
  1. A.Written communication
  2. B.Non-verbal communication
  3. C.Electronic communication
  4. D.Printed communication
35
Which communication barrier results from preconceived beliefs and attitudes?
  1. A.Linguistic barrier
  2. B.Mechanical barrier
  3. C.Physical barrier
  4. D.Psychological barrier
36
Which IEC activity is most suitable for increasing immunization awareness in rural communities?
  1. A.Village health meeting
  2. B.Confidential hospital record
  3. C.Prescription writing
  4. D.Laboratory reporting
37
Which principle should be followed while preparing health education messages?
  1. A.Messages should be unnecessarily lengthy
  2. B.Messages should contain maximum technical terms
  3. C.Messages should avoid local language
  4. D.Messages should be simple and relevant
38
Which communication method provides the widest audience coverage in a short time?
  1. A.Individual interview
  2. B.Home visit
  3. C.Mass media
  4. D.Family counseling
39
Which communication skill is most important during counseling?
  1. A.Continuous interruption
  2. B.Active listening
  3. C.Dominating the conversation
  4. D.Ignoring emotions
40
Which communication barrier occurs due to excessive surrounding noise?
  1. A.Semantic barrier
  2. B.Emotional barrier
  3. C.Physical barrier
  4. D.Organizational barrier
41
Which structure forms the roof of the oral cavity?
  1. A.Uvula
  2. B.Tongue
  3. C.Mandible
  4. D.Hard palate
42
How many deciduous (primary) teeth are normally present in a healthy child?
  1. A.28
  2. B.24
  3. C.20
  4. D.32
43
How many permanent teeth are present in a normal adult including third molars?
  1. A.28
  2. B.30
  3. C.34
  4. D.32
44
Which tooth is primarily adapted for tearing food?
  1. A.Canine
  2. B.Incisor
  3. C.Premolar
  4. D.Molar
45
Which tooth has the broadest chewing surface?
  1. A.Incisor
  2. B.Molar Correct
  3. C.Premolar
  4. D.Canine
46
Which is the hardest substance in the human body?
  1. A.Dentin
  2. B.Enamel
  3. C.Cementum
  4. D.Alveolar bone
47
Which tissue forms the bulk of the tooth beneath enamel?
  1. A.Cementum
  2. B.Gingiva
  3. C.Pulp
  4. D.Dentin
48
Which part of the tooth contains blood vessels and nerves?
  1. A.Enamel
  2. B.Dentin
  3. C.Pulp Correct
  4. D.Cementum
49
Which structure anchors the tooth root to the alveolar bone?
  1. A.Tongue frenulum
  2. B.Oral mucosa
  3. C.Buccal mucosa
  4. D.Periodontal ligament
50
Which salivary gland is the largest?
  1. A.Parotid gland
  2. B.Sublingual gland
  3. C.Minor salivary gland
  4. D.Buccal gland
51
What is the primary function of saliva?
  1. A.Lubricate food and begin digestion
  2. B.Destroy enamel
  3. C.Increase bacterial growth
  4. D.Remove taste sensation
52
Which vitamin deficiency commonly causes bleeding gums?
  1. A.Vitamin A
  2. B.Vitamin B12
  3. C.Vitamin D
  4. D.Vitamin C
53
Dental caries primarily results from?
  1. A.Viral infection
  2. B.Acid produced by bacteria acting on dietary sugars
  3. C.Fungal invasion
  4. D.Autoimmune reaction
54
Which bacterium is most commonly associated with initiation of dental caries?
  1. A.Streptococcus mutans
  2. B.Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  3. C.Vibrio cholerae
  4. D.Salmonella Typhi
55
Freuent consumption of which food increases the risk of dental caries the most?
  1. A.Fresh vegetables
  2. B.Boiled pulses
  3. C.Sugary sticky foods
  4. D.Plain water
56
Which dental condition is characterized by inflammation of the gums without loss of attachment?
  1. A.Periodontitis
  2. B.Dental fluorosis
  3. C.Gingivitis
  4. D.Malocclusion
57
Untreated gingivitis may progress to?
  1. A.Periodontitis
  2. B.Glossitis
  3. C.Leukoplakia
  4. D.Xerostomia
58
Which symptom is most characteristic of gingivitis?
  1. A.Jaw dislocation
  2. B.Tooth fracture
  3. C.Bleeding gums during brushing
  4. D.Tongue paralysis
59
Which is the principal cause of periodontal disease?
  1. A.High protein intake
  2. B.Dental plaue accumulation
  3. C.Viral hepatitis
  4. D.Calcium supplementation
60
Dental plaue is best described as?
  1. A.Calcified bone
  2. B.Tooth enamel defect
  3. C.Salivary gland enlargement
  4. D.Soft bacterial biofilm on teeth
61
Which committee is known as the Health Survey and Development Committee?
  1. A.Mudaliar Committee
  2. B.Bhore Committee
  3. C.Chaddah Committee
  4. D.Kartar Singh Committee
62
In which year was the Bhore Committee constituted?
  1. A.1952
  2. B.1946
  3. C.1948
  4. D.1943
63
In which year did the Bhore Committee submit its report?
  1. A.1946
  2. B.1943
  3. C.1951
  4. D.1962
64
Who was the Chairman of the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Dr. S. Chaddah
  2. B.Dr. A. L. Mudaliar
  3. C.Sir Joseph Bhore
  4. D.Dr. Jungalwalla
65
What was the principal objective of the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Reorganization of India's health services
  2. B.Expansion of railway hospitals
  3. C.Privatization of healthcare
  4. D.Establishment of medical colleges only
66
Which important concept was strongly recommended by the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Exclusive urban healthcare
  2. B.Separation of preventive and curative services
  3. C.Integration of preventive and curative services
  4. D.Insurance-based healthcare only
67
The Bhore Committee emphasized health care based on which principle?
  1. A.Private insurance coverage
  2. B.Treatment only for government employees
  3. C.Universal access irrespective of ability to pay
  4. D.Urban-centered specialty hospitals
68
Which level of healthcare was given highest priority by the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Primary Health Care
  2. B.Tertiary Care
  3. C.Super-specialty Care
  4. D.Cosmetic Care
69
According to the Bhore Committee, health services should primarily be?
  1. A.Curative only
  2. B.Comprehensive and integrated
  3. C.Preventive only
  4. D.Commercially operated
70
Which healthcare model was proposed by the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Corporate hospital model
  2. B.Single urban hospital model
  3. C.Military hospital model
  4. D.Three-tier health system
71
Which type of hospital was proposed at the primary level by the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Primary Health Centre
  2. B.District Hospital
  3. C.Medical College Hospital
  4. D.Specialized Cancer Hospital
72
The Bhore Committee recommended that Primary Health Centres should serve approximately how many people in the long-term programme?
  1. A.10,000โ€“20,000
  2. B.50,000โ€“75,000
  3. C.1,00,000
  4. D.2,00,000
73
Which important principle was emphasized regarding medical treatment?
  1. A.Private healthcare only
  2. B.Urban healthcare only
  3. C.Eual healthcare for rural and urban populations
  4. D.Industrial worker healthcare only
74
The Bhore Committee recommended that healthcare should begin from which level?
  1. A.Private Clinics
  2. B.State Secretariat
  3. C.National Referral Hospital
  4. D.Village level
75
Which category of healthcare workers did the Bhore Committee strongly recommend expanding?
  1. A.Public health personnel
  2. B.Military doctors
  3. C.Industrial engineers
  4. D.Veterinary inspectors
76
Which of the following was considered essential for improving community health by the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Medical tourism
  2. B.Luxury hospitals
  3. C.Health education
  4. D.Cosmetic surgery
77
The Bhore Committee considered health as?
  1. A.A responsibility of the State
  2. B.A private business
  3. C.An industrial activity
  4. D.A charitable service only
78
Which recommendation of the Bhore Committee laid the foundation for India's PHC system?
  1. A.Health insurance mandates
  2. B.Expansion of private hospitals
  3. C.Urban clinic licensing
  4. D.Establishment of Primary Health Centres
79
Which aspect of maternal and child health received emphasis in the Bhore Committee Report?
  1. A.Preventive and promotive care
  2. B.Cosmetic treatment
  3. C.Industrial safety only
  4. D.Occupational rehabilitation only
80
Which healthcare philosophy did the Bhore Committee advocate?
  1. A.Cure without prevention
  2. B.Prevention is better than cure
  3. C.Hospital care only
  4. D.Specialist care first
81
Which factor did the Bhore Committee identify as essential for improving national health?
  1. A.International tourism
  2. B.Air travel
  3. C.Environmental sanitation
  4. D.Sports clubs
82
Which public health activity received special emphasis from the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Alternative tourism
  2. B.Cosmetic medicine
  3. C.Plastic surgery
  4. D.Disease prevention
83
The Bhore Committee recommended integrating preventive services with which services?
  1. A.Banking services
  2. B.Industrial services
  3. C.Judicial services
  4. D.Curative services
84
Which health professional was expected to play an important role in rural healthcare according to the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Sports Physician
  2. B.Airline Medical Officer
  3. C.Naval Surgeon
  4. D.General Medical Officer
85
Which committee is regarded as the blueprint of India's public health system?
  1. A.Bhore Committee
  2. B.Mudaliar Committee
  3. C.Chaddah Committee
  4. D.Shrivastava Committee
86
Which approach was discouraged by the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Community participation
  2. B.Fragmented health services
  3. C.Preventive healthcare
  4. D.Rural health development
87
Which principle guided the Bhore Committee's recommendations?
  1. A.Curative medicine only
  2. B.Urban hospital expansion only
  3. C.Comprehensive healthcare for all
  4. D.Private insurance model
88
Which major national health institution evolved based on recommendations of early health planning initiated after the Bhore Committee?
  1. A.Primary Health Centre system
  2. B.Export Promotion Council
  3. C.Railway Board
  4. D.Planning Commission Secretariat
89
Which area received priority in the Bhore Committee's rural health strategy?
  1. A.Airport healthcare
  2. B.Village-based healthcare
  3. C.Port healthcare
  4. D.Corporate healthcare
90
According to the Bhore Committee, preventive medicine should be available at which level?
  1. A.Every level of healthcare
  2. B.District hospitals only
  3. C.Medical colleges only
  4. D.National institutes only
91
Which Plasmodium species is responsible for the most severe form of malaria in India?
  1. A.Plasmodium malariae
  2. B.Plasmodium ovale
  3. C.Plasmodium falciparum
  4. D.Plasmodium knowlesi
92
Which mosuito is the principal vector of malaria in India?
  1. A.Female Anopheles mosuito
  2. B.Culex uinuefasciatus
  3. C.Aedes aegypti
  4. D.Male Anopheles mosuito
93
Which stage of the malarial parasite infects humans during a mosuito bite?
  1. A.Sporozoite
  2. B.Merozoite
  3. C.Gametocyte
  4. D.Trophozoite
94
Which species of Plasmodium commonly causes relapsing malaria due to dormant liver forms?
  1. A.Plasmodium falciparum
  2. B.Plasmodium vivax
  3. C.Plasmodium malariae
  4. D.Plasmodium knowlesi
95
Which organ is first invaded by Plasmodium sporozoites after entering the bloodstream?
  1. A.Liver
  2. B.Spleen
  3. C.Kidney
  4. D.Bone marrow
96
Which laboratory test is considered the gold standard for routine diagnosis of malaria in primary health care settings?
  1. A.Urine microscopy
  2. B.Chest X-ray
  3. C.Stool examination
  4. D.Peripheral blood smear examination
97
Rapid Diagnostic Tests (RDTs) for malaria primarily detect?
  1. A.Malarial antigens
  2. B.Viral RNA
  3. C.Platelet antibodies
  4. D.Serum electrolytes
98
Which symptom is classically associated with malaria?
  1. A.Bloody diarrhea
  2. B.Persistent skin rash
  3. C.Severe joint deformity
  4. D.Cyclical fever with chills and sweating
99
Which complication is most commonly associated with severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria?
  1. A.Cataract
  2. B.Otitis media
  3. C.Cerebral malaria
  4. D.Peptic ulcer
100
Which national programme is responsible for malaria control in India?
  1. A.National AIDS Control Programme
  2. B.National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme
  3. C.National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme
  4. D.National Mental Health Programme
101
Which insecticide-treated measure is recommended for malaria prevention?
  1. A.Cotton blankets
  2. B.Insecticide-treated bed nets
  3. C.Plastic curtains
  4. D.Mosuito coils only
102
Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS) primarily aims to destroy?
  1. A.Mosuito larvae only
  2. B.Mosuito eggs in water
  3. C.Adult mosuitoes resting indoors
  4. D.Houseflies
103
Which mosuito transmits dengue?
  1. A.Female Culex vishnui
  2. B.Female Anopheles stephensi
  3. C.Female Aedes aegypti
  4. D.Male Aedes aegypti
104
Which mosuito primarily transmits chikungunya in India?
  1. A.Mansonia uniformis
  2. B.Anopheles culicifacies
  3. C.Culex tritaeniorhynchus
  4. D.Aedes aegypti
105
Which characteristic distinguishes Aedes mosuitoes from Anopheles mosuitoes?
  1. A.They bite mainly during daytime.
  2. B.They bite only at midnight.
  3. C.They breed only in rivers.
  4. D.They transmit malaria.
106
Which breeding habitat is most preferred by Aedes aegypti?
  1. A.Flowing rivers
  2. B.Clean stagnant water in artificial containers
  3. C.Saltwater marshes
  4. D.Paddy fields only
107
Which virus causes dengue fever?
  1. A.Coronavirus
  2. B.Orthomyxovirus
  3. C.Flavivirus
  4. D.Paramyxovirus
108
Dengue virus has how many major serotypes?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Four
  4. D.Six
109
Which warning sign indicates progression toward severe dengue?
  1. A.Hair loss
  2. B.Mild sneezing
  3. C.Persistent vomiting
  4. D.Freuent urination
110
Which laboratory finding is commonly seen in dengue fever?
  1. A.Increased eosinophils only
  2. B.Polycythemia
  3. C.Hypercalcemia
  4. D.Thrombocytopenia
111
Which of the following best defines health promotion?
  1. A.Treating diseases after hospitalization
  2. B.Enabling people to increase control over and improve their health
  3. C.Providing medicines only
  4. D.Conducting laboratory investigations only
112
Which international conference led to the adoption of the Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion in 1986?
  1. A.International Conference on Nutrition
  2. B.Alma-Ata Conference
  3. C.Rio Earth Summit
  4. D.First International Conference on Health Promotion
113
According to the Ottawa Charter, which action area focuses on making healthy choices easier through supportive environments?
  1. A.Increasing pharmaceutical production
  2. B.Developing hospital infrastructure
  3. C.Creating supportive environments
  4. D.Conducting disease surveillance
114
Which of the following is NOT one of the five action areas of the Ottawa Charter?
  1. A.Developing personal skills
  2. B.Expanding tertiary hospitals only Correct
  3. C.Building healthy public policy
  4. D.Reorienting health services
115
Wellness is best described as?
  1. A.A dynamic process of achieving optimal physical, mental, and social well-being
  2. B.Complete absence of communicable diseases only
  3. C.Physical fitness without mental health
  4. D.Freedom from disability only
116
Which determinant of health has the greatest influence on an individual's health status?
  1. A.Lifestyle and behavior
  2. B.Blood group
  3. C.Zodiac sign
  4. D.Eye color
117
Which of the following is an example of a modifiable risk factor?
  1. A.Age
  2. B.Tobacco use
  3. C.Genetic makeup
  4. D.Blood group
118
Which level of prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of disease before it develops?
  1. A.Rehabilitation
  2. B.Secondary prevention
  3. C.Tertiary prevention
  4. D.Primary prevention
119
Immunization is an example of?
  1. A.Rehabilitation
  2. B.Secondary prevention
  3. C.Disability limitation
  4. D.Specific protection under primary prevention
120
Health education regarding handwashing mainly represents?
  1. A.Surgical intervention
  2. B.Disease diagnosis
  3. C.Drug therapy
  4. D.Health promotion