How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
ATwo
BThree
CFive
DFour
ENone of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
ATrue
BFalse
CUncertain
DNone
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
AA
BE
CT
DX
EY
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
AT
BL
CE
DY
EX
Question 8Single Answer
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
AX
BW
CI
DH
Question 9Single Answer
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
ASUM
BBIG
CBoth BIG and THE
DFOR
EBoth FOR and BIG
Question 10Single Answer
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
AAND
BFOR
CTHE
DBIG
ESUM
Question 11Single Answer
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EFour
Question 12Single Answer
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
ATwo
BFive
CSix
DNine
EThree
Question 13Single Answer
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EMore than three
Question 14Single Answer
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
ANone
BOne
CTwo
DThree
EFour
Question 15Single Answer
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
ABoth CAT and OWN
BBoth BRU and INK
COnly CAT
DOnly INK
EOnly LEG
Question 16Single Answer
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 17Single Answer
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 18Single Answer
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 19Single Answer
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 20Single Answer
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 21Single Answer
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 22Single Answer
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 23Single Answer
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 24Single Answer
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 25Single Answer
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
AStatement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DStatements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 26Single Answer
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
AQuantity I > Quantity II
BQuantity I Quantity II
CQuantity II Quantity I
DQuantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 27Single Answer
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
AQuantity I > Quantity II
BQuantity I รขโฌโน Quantity II
CQuantity II Quantity I
DQuantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 28Single Answer
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
AQuantity I > Quantity II
BQuantity I ≥ Quantity II
CQuantity II > Quantity I
DQuantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 29Single Answer
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
AQuantity I > Quantity II
BQuantity I ≥ Quantity II
CQuantity II > Quantity I
DQuantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 30Single Answer
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
AStatement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
CBOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Mathematical Test
Question 31Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A51:52
B52:53
C51:53
D52:55
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A√49
B0.125
C√2
D22/7
Question 33Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A35600
B34500
C9630
D93600
Question 34Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 35Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A36
B38
C310
D96
Question 36Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A4
B3
C2
D5
Question 37Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A3/5
B2/3
C4/5
Question 38Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A169
B36
C196
DCan not say
Question 39Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A16
B25
C28
D30
Question 40Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A93
B103
C60.5
D121
Question 41Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A15/16
B17/18
CEqual
DCannot compare
Question 42Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A3
B4
C5
D7
Question 43Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
AXLI
BXLVI
CXLIV
DXLVIC
Question 44Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A1/11
B9/11
C1/9
D9/10
Question 45Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A9996
B10000
C10096
D10196
Question 46Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A9/11
B7/9
CEqual
DCannot compare
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A26/45
B52/90
C13/22
D5/9
Question 48Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A81/100
B9/10
C8/9
D9/11
Question 49Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A3528
B3852
C3582
D3825
Question 50Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A13/17
B11/14
CEqual
DCannot compare
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Mathematical Test
Question 51Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A20
B24
C22
D26
Question 52Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A3/4
B2/3
C4/5
D5/8
Question 53Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A11/13
B12/15
CEqual
DCannot compare
Question 54Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A0
B1
CSame
DPrime
Question 55Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B100
C1000
D10000
Question 56Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A1
B10
CInfinite
DNone
Question 57Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A12345
B1331
C1234
D1213
Question 58Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A1
B3
C7
D9
Question 59Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A4
B8
C16
D32
Question 60Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A3
B4
C5
D6
General Knowledge & Awareness
Question 61Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
AHe was in the temper
Band refused
Cdiscuss the matter again
DNo error
Question 62Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
AA flower makes no garland
Bso we must do a thing together
Cin a unit for a good result
DNo error
Question 63Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
AMy friend is a software engineer
Band his wife is doctor
Cso they don’t have enough time for each other
DNo error
Question 64Single Answer
To sleep with the fishes
AAlways be in a dream world
BTo make absurd excuses
CTo sleep peacefully
DTo be dead
Question 65Single Answer
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
AThe Indian Councils Act, 1909
BThe Government of India Act, 1915
CThe Government of India Act, 1919
DThe Government of India Act, 1935
Question 72Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
AThe Indian Councils Act, 1909
BGovernment of India Act, 1919
CGovernment of India Act, 1935
DIndian Independence Act, 1947
Question 73Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
AThe Indian Councils Act, 1909
BThe Government of India Act, 1935
CThe Government of India Act, 1919
DNone of the above
Question 74Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
AIndian Councils Act, 1909
BGovernment of India Act, 1919
CGovernment of India Act, 1935
DIndian Independence Act, 1947
Question 75Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
APrivy Council
BSupreme Court
CHigh Court
DFederal Court
Question 76Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
AOriginal jurisdiction only
BAppellate jurisdiction only
CAdvisory jurisdiction only
DOriginal, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 77Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A14 and 7
B11 and 7
C15 and 9
DNone of the above
Question 78Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
AGovernment of India Act, 1919
BGovernment of India Act, 1935
CThe Indian Independence Act, 1947
DNone of the above
Question 79Single Answer
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A3 June, 1947
B4 July, 1947
C15 July, 1947
D18 July, 1947
Question 80Single Answer
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
ASimon Commission
BCripps Mission
CCabinet Mission Plan
DThe Mountbatten plan
Question 81Single Answer
What is the name of the new policy launched by Gujarat CM Bhupendra Patel in June 2025 to boost electronics manufacturing?
What is the target investment amount for the Gujarat Electronics Component Manufacturing Policy 2025?
ARs.25,000 crore
BRs.35,000 crore
CRs.45,000 crore
DRs.55,000 crore
Question 83Single Answer
How much financial aid is allocated for the Centre of Excellence under the Gujarat Electronics Component Manufacturing Policy 2025?
ARs.10 crore
BRs.15 crore
CRs.12.5 crore
DRs.20 crore
Question 84Single Answer
Which think tank, modeled on NITI Aayog, was announced by the Gujarat government to achieve the vision of Viksit Gujarat by 2047?
AGujarat Development Council
BGujarat State Institution for Transformation (GRIT)
CGujarat Progress Board
DGujarat Vision Commission
Question 85Single Answer
Who chairs the governing body of the Gujarat State Institution for Transformation (GRIT)?
AFinance Minister
BIndustry Minister
CChief Minister
DEducation Minister
Question 86Single Answer
Which ministry launched the e-SHRAM portal to register unorganized workers in India?
AMinistry of Labour and Employment
BMinistry of Finance
CMinistry of Social Justice and Empowerment
DMinistry of Home Affairs
Question 87Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the โBioE3 Policyโ approved by the Union Cabinet?
AFoster high-performance biomanufacturing
BPromote traditional farming practices
CIncrease coal production
DEnhance organic farming
Question 88Single Answer
Which state launched the โIndiramma Atmiya Bharosa Schemeโ in 2025?
ATelangana
BAndhra Pradesh
CKarnataka
DTamil Nadu
Question 89Single Answer
How many individuals were announced to receive the Padma Awards in 2025 by the Government of India?
A121
B139
C140
D165
Question 90Single Answer
Which Indian bank became the first to implement Clari5โs NCRP Integration Solution?
ABank of Baroda
BPunjab National Bank
CBank of India
DCanara Bank
Civil Engineering
Question 91Single Answer
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
AMaximum daily demand
BMaximum hourly demand and fire demand
CAverage demand
DMaximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 92Single Answer
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
ARainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
BRainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
CAir temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
DAir temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days
Question 93Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
A40.5m3
B50m3
C75m3
D94.7m3
Question 94Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
AFlow rate through the tank
BDiameter of the particle intended to be removed
CVolume of the sedimentation tank
DDetention time in the tank
Question 95Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1, 2, 3 and 4
B1, 2 and 3 only
C1, 2 and 4 only
D3 and 4 only
Question 96Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
A3.6 mg/l
B13.6 mg/l
C33.6 mg/l
D53.6 mg/l
Question 97Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1, 2 and 3 only
B3 and 4 only
C1, 2 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 98Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when
Athe void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
Bthe upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
Cthe upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
Dthe upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil
Question 99Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is theรย corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
A5 m2
B25 m2
C10 m2
D20 m2รย
Question 100Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1, 2, 3 and 4
B1, 2 and 3 only
C3 and 4 only
D1, 2 and 4 only
Question 101Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A1 and 3 only
B1 and 4 only
C2 and 4 only
D2 and 3 only
Question 102Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A1, 2 and 3 only
B2, 3 and 4 only
C1, 3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 103Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
AMethane and Hydrogen
BHydrogen Sulphide
CCarbonic acid and Hydrogen
DAmmonia
Question 104Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
AExcessive burning of bricks
BHigh silt content in brick clay
CHigh porosity of bricks
DSoluble salts present in parent clay
Question 105Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1, 2 and 4 only
C3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 106Single Answer
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1, 2 and 4 only
C3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
Question 108Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
ATricalcium silicate
BDicalcium silicate
CTricalcium aluminate
DTetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A1, 2, 3 and 4
B1, 2 and 3 only
C3 and 4 only
D1, 2 and 4 only
Question 110Single Answer
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A3.00
B3.45
C4.50
D6.00
Question 111Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1, 2 and 4 only
C3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 112Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A2 and 3 only
B2 and 4 only
C1 and 3 only
D1 and 4 only
Question 113Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
A1 and 2 only
B2 and 4 only
C1 and 3 only
D3 and 4 only
Question 114Single Answer
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1, 2 and 3
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1 and 3 only
Question 115Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1 and 3 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 4 only
D2 and 4 only
Question 116Single Answer
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1, 2 and 4 only
C1, 3 and 4 only
D2, 3 and 4 only
Question 117Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1 and 3 only
B1 and 4 only
C2 and 3 only
D2 and 4 only
Question 118Single Answer
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
A100.6 N/mm2
B120.4 N/mm2
C140.2 N/mm2
D160.0 N/mm2
Question 119Single Answer
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
AAnnealing effect
BBauschinger effect
CStrain rate effect
DFatigue effect
Question 120Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A1, 2 and 3
B1 only
C2 only
D3 only
Question 121Single Answer
The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm4. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm2. The safe concentrated load at the free end would be
A100 N
B200 N
C300 N
D400 N
Question 122Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1 and 4 only
B1 and 3 only
C2 and 4 only
D2 and 3 only
Question 123Single Answer
Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1, 2 and 4 only
C1, 3 and 4 only
D2, 3 and 4 only
Question 124Single Answer
A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is
A49.27 mm
B39.27 mm
C30.27 mm
D20.27 mm
Question 125Single Answer
The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A1, 2 and 3
B1 only
C2 only
D3 only
Question 126Single Answer
A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly
A0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
B0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
C4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
D0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
Question 127Single Answer
A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly
A136 N
B131 N
C131 N
D121 N
Question 128Single Answer
The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A1 only
B2 only
C3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Question 129Single Answer
A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM1 and SM2 as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively
ASM1 > SM2
BSM1 < SM2
CSM1 = SM2
DCannot be ascertained
Question 130Single Answer
Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A1,2 and 3
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1 and 3 only
Question 131Single Answer
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A30 l
B35 l
C40 l
D45 l
Question 132Single Answer
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A1 : 1 : 1
B1 : 2 : 3
C1 : 2 : 4
D1 : 3 : 4
Question 133Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A1, 2 and 4
B1, 3 and 5
C2, 3 and 4
D2, 4 and 5
Question 134Single Answer
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A10
B20
C25
D30
Question 135Single Answer
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A11.8
B12.4
C14.2
D14.8
Question 136Single Answer
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A1, 2 and 3
B1, 2 and 4
C2, 3 and 4
D1, 3 and 4
Question 137Single Answer
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1 and 2
B1 and 3
C2 and 3
D3 and 4
Question 138Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1, 3 and 4 only
C2, 3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 139Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1, 2 and 5 only
C1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Question 140Single Answer
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A165 l
B205 l
C245 l
D285 l
Question 141Single Answer
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
AIS : 4970-1973
BIS : 1708-1969
CIS : 1141-1958
DIS : 399-1963
Question 142Single Answer
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A1, 2, 3 and 4
B2 and 4 only
C1 and 4 only
D2 and 3 only
Question 143Single Answer
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
AParallel to each other
BAt right angle to one another
C45° oblique to adjacent grain
DNot constrained by any consideration
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
AIt must be free from lumps of lime
BIt should not be mixed with salty water
CIt must be non-homogeneous
DIt should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Question 145Single Answer
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A440 kg/cm2
B175 kg/cm2
C100kg/cm2
D75kg/cm2
Question 146Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1 and 2
B3 and 4
C2 and 3
D1 and 4
Question 147Single Answer
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1 and 2 only
B1 and 3
C1, 2 and 4
D2, 3 and 4
Question 148Single Answer
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
AMagnesium oxide
BSilica
CAlumina
DCalcium sulphate
Question 149Single Answer
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
AOrdinary Portland
BHigh Alumina
CLow-heat Portland
DPortland Cement
Question 150Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1, 2 and 3
B2, 3 and 4
C3, 4 and 5
D2, 3 and 5
Question 151Single Answer
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
A11 to 15 mm
B8 to 10 mm
C15 to 17 mm
D5 to 7 mm
Question 152Single Answer
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
C1
Question 153Single Answer
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
AThe compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
BTensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
CThe allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
DThe tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Question 154Single Answer
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
Aรขโฌโนรขโฌโน0.5 L
B0.85 L
C2 L
D0.75 L
Question 155Single Answer
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
AWorking from part to whole
BWorking from point to area
CWorking from angle to volume
DWorking from whole to part
Question 156Single Answer
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A100 m
B1000 m
C600 m
D150 m
Question 157Single Answer
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
A20
B25
C15
D10
Question 158Single Answer
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
AReduces the secondary hydration process
BIncreases the heat of hydration
CIncreases the amount of air entrainment
DReduces the heat of hydration
Question 159Single Answer
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
AM 20 and M 30
BM 20 and M 25
CM 22 and M 40
DM 15 and M 25
Question 160Single Answer
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
AMass density
BMoment of inertia
CPoission’s ratio
DModulus of elasticity
Question 161Single Answer
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
A120
B140
C70
D60
Question 162Single Answer
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
A0.5 m2
B1.0 m2
C3 m2
D0.75 m2
Question 163Single Answer
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
A20 cm
B10 cm
C30 cm
D25 cm
Question 164Single Answer
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
AStatements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
BBoth statements S1 and S2 are false
CStatements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
DBoth statements S1 and S2 are true
Question 165Single Answer
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
A121o25'
B148o25'
C58o25'
D211o25'
Question 166Single Answer
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
Acreek
Bcrest
Climp
Dnappe
Question 167Single Answer
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
A10 - 25 mm
B25 - 50 mm
C0 - 10 mm
D50 - 100 mm
Question 168Single Answer
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
AMarch / April to June / July
BDecember / January to April / May
CMay / June to October / November
DOctober / November to April / May
Question 169Single Answer
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
Amarket value
Bbook value
Cscrap value
Dsalvage value
Question 170Single Answer
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
A2.5 m2
B0.55 m2
C1.10 m2
D0.25 m2
Question 171Single Answer
Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .
AIncreasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
BIncreasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
CIncreasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
DIncreasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility
Question 172Single Answer
Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?
ANewton's law
BPascal's law
CDarcy's law
DHydrostatic law
Question 173Single Answer
The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as
ASample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
BSample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
CSample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
DSample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive
Question 174Single Answer
Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?
AC4AF
BC3S
CC3A
DC2A
Question 175Single Answer
According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :
A0.0002 m
B0.005 m
C0.0001 m
D0.01 m
Question 176Single Answer
Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.
Abulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
Bsaturated bulk unit weight to total void
Ctotal void to saturated bulk unit weight
Dtotal void to saturated bulk unit weight
Question 178Single Answer
Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .
APlate bearing test
BTriaxial test
CCBR test
DDirect shear test
Question 179Single Answer
In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm2 units) :
A1.2
B1.8
C1.68
D1.92
Question 180Single Answer
Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?
ALucknow plan
BDelhi plan
CBombay plan
DNagpur plan
Question 181Single Answer
The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .
AStatement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
BStatement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
CBoth statement 1 and 2 are true
DBoth statement 1 and 2 are false
Question 182Single Answer
A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :
A2
B3
C5
D4
Question 183Single Answer
The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :
Aaeolian soils
Balluvial soils
Clacustrine soils
Dmarine soils
Question 184Single Answer
What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?
A0.155 m
B0.225 m
C0.100 m
D0.552 m
Question 185Single Answer
The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).
According to IS 800 : 2007, identify the property which is considered as a mechanical property of structural steel, important in design .
AUnit mass
BMaximum percent elongation on a standard gauge length
CCo - efficient of thermal expansion
DPoisson ration
Question 187Single Answer
Which of the following methods is NOT used for measuring air content in fresh concrete ?
ABlaine air permeability method
BGravimetric method
CPressure method
DVolumetric method
Question 188Single Answer
Which of the following methods is NOT used for the calculation of depreciation of a structure ?
AStraight line method
BQuantity survey method
CGeometric projection method
DDeclining balance method
Question 189Single Answer
The failure of an over reinforced concrete beam is due to :
Acompression failure
Bmid failure
Cshear failure
Dtension failure
Question 190Single Answer
In which type of estimate is 'Court yard' NOT considered ?
AUnit rate estimate
BPlinth area estimate
CLump sum estimate
DCub rate estimate
Question 191Single Answer
Match the items in List 1 (name of quantities) with those in List 2 (unit of quantities in the SI system). Use codes in List for matching .
รขโฌโน List 1 List 2
M. Dynamic viscosity 1. N/m
N. Kinematic viscosity 2. N.m
O. Surface tension 3. N.s/m2
P. Energy 4. m2/s
AM-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
BM-3, N-4, O-1, P-2
CM-4, N-3, O-1, P-2
DM-2, N-4, O-1, P-3
Question 192Single Answer
A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments .
Moment due to dead load = 50 kNm
Moment due to live load = 50 kNm
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is :
A120 kNm
B180 kNm
C144 kNm
D150 kNm
Question 193Single Answer
In a workshop shade, trusses are spaced at 4 m centre to centre. The purlins are spaced at 1.4 m centre to centre along the slope of 300. The (Dead Load + Live load) is 3 kNm2 and the wind load in 5 kNm2. The vertical and the inclined point loads, respectively, will be :
A14.54 kN and 28 kN
B17.8 kN and 48 kN
C20 kN and 24 kN
D18 kN and 21 kN
Question 194Single Answer
What will be the percentage of passing aggregate for the grading zone 1 of sieve size 1.18 mm ?
A100%
B10% - 20%
C7% - 25%
D30% - 70%
Question 195Single Answer
The annual or periodical payment for repayment of the capital amount invested on a property for a specified period is known as :
Adepreciation
Bobsolescence
Camortization
Dannuity
Question 196Single Answer
Among the following river training works, which are aligned either parallel or at an angle to the banks, identify the one having a difference in alignment when compared to others :
AFlood walls
BGuide banks
CGroynes
DLevees
Question 197Single Answer
The test commonly to determine the grade of bitumen in terms of its hardness is :
Athe penetration test
Bthe ductility test
Cthe softening point test
Dthe flash and fire point test
Question 198Single Answer
A level section has formation width of 10 m, side slope of 1 : 2 (vertical : horizontal) and central height of 2 m. Determine the quantity of earthwork required for a 1 km length of formation (in m3) .
A24,000
B20,000
C18,000
D28,000
Question 199Single Answer
Which type of odour characteristic is NOT used for classifying odour of a given water sample as per IS 3025 (part-5) 1983 ?
ADegree of sweetness
BDegree of turbidity
CDegree of pungency
DDegree of smokiness
Question 200Single Answer
The liquid limit and plastic limit of clay materials is 45% and 25% respectively, what is the activity of clay materials if 20% by weight of particles of size less than 2 microns ?
A0
B2
C3
D1
Question 201Single Answer
Among the following corrections applied for tape measurement, identify the correction which is NOT always negative in sign :
ASag
BSlope of taype
CPull
DWrong alignment
Question 202Single Answer
A village has a population of 200 with as average rate of water demand as 100 litre per capita per day. A rapid sand filter having an average filtration rate of 100 litre/hour/m2 is to be designed for water treatment. The area of rapid sand filter required is : (Take the ratio of maximum demand to average demand as 1.5.)
A8.00 m2
B14.50 m2
C10.00 m2
D12.50 m2
Question 203Single Answer
If the bearing of the side AB of a regular hexagon traverse ABCDFFA shown in the figure is 36o45', the bearing of the adjacent side BC of the traverse is :
รขโฌโน
A216o15'
B96o45'
C83o15'
D156o45'
Question 204Single Answer
Pigment volume concentration (PVC) of paint is defined as :
Question 205Single Answer
The Indian Roads Congress (IRC) was founded in the year :
A1927
B1934
C1950
D1982
Question 206Single Answer
In a leveling survey work, the first staff reading taken in a staff station after shifting the instrument and the last staff reading taken to a staff sation before the instrument in shifted are, respectively :
Aback sight and intermediate sight
Bintermediate sight and back sight
Cback sight and fore sight
Dfore sight and back sight
Question 207Single Answer
Which of the following Indian Standard Codes provides conservatively imposed loads for buildings and structures ?
AIS 875 (part 4) – 1987
BIS 875 (part 1) – 1987
CIS 875 (part 3) – 1987
DIS 875 (part 2) – 1987
Question 208Single Answer
Activity of soil is ratio of the plasticity index to :
Apercentage of compressive strength
Bpercentage by weight of clay fraction
Cliquidity index
Dpercentage of sensitivity
Question 209Single Answer
Kor watering in irrigation is defined as :
Athe first watering which is given to seeds sown in the plot for germination
Bthe first watering which is given to a crop when the crop is a few centimeters high
Cthe first watering which is given to a crop before transplanting
Dthe first watering which is given to a plot when the crop is transplanted