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Latest GSSSB Supervisor Instructor Electrical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Technical Subject, Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Constitution of India, Current Affairs, Comprehension
Question Bank GSSSB Supervisor Instructor (Electrical) Exam - English
Reasoning & Data Interpretation
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 10 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 11 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 12 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 13 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 14 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 15 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 16 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 17 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 18 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69
Q 20 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 21 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 22 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 23 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 24 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 25 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 26 :
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 27 :
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 28 :
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 29 :
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 30 :
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Technical Subject
Q 31 :
What is illumination?
A.Production of heat
B.Lighting of surfaces
C.Generation of power
D.Transmission of energy
Q 32 :
What is the unit of luminous flux?
A.Lumen
B.Lux
C.Candela
D.Watt
Q 33 :
What is the unit of illumination?
A.Lux
B.Lumen
C.Candela
D.Ohm
Q 34 :
One lux is equal to?
A.One watt/m²
B.One lumen/cm²
C.One candela/m²
D.One lumen/m²
Q 35 :
What is luminous intensity measured in?
A.Candela
B.Lux
C.Lumen
D.Watt
Q 36 :
What is the full form of MCB?
A.Main Circuit Box
B.Maximum Current Breaker
C.Miniature Circuit Breaker
D.Motor Control Breaker
Q 37 :
What is the main function of MCB?
A.Voltage regulation
B.Power factor improvement
C.Power generation
D.Protection against overcurrent
Q 38 :
What type of protection does a fuse provide?
A.Overvoltage
B.Overcurrent
C.Earth fault only
D.Frequency variation
Q 39 :
What is the operating principle of a fuse?
A.Magnetic effect
B.Heating effect of current
C.Chemical reaction
D.Capacitance
Q 40 :
What is the full form of RCCB?
A.Relay Controlled Circuit Breaker
B.Rated Current Circuit Breaker
C.Reverse Current Circuit Breaker
D.Residual Current Circuit Breaker
Q 41 :
RCCB is mainly used for protection against?
A.Overload
B.Short circuit
C.Earth leakage
D.Overvoltage
Q 42 :
What is the full form of ELCB?
A.Earth Load Circuit Breaker
B.Electric Line Circuit Breaker
C.Energy Loss Circuit Breaker
D.Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker
Q 43 :
MCCB stands for?
A.Maximum Current Circuit Breaker
B.Motor Circuit Control Breaker
C.Main Control Circuit Breaker
D.Molded Case Circuit Breaker
Q 44 :
Which device is used for high current protection?
A.MCCB
B.Fuse
C.MCB
D.Switch
Q 45 :
What is the main advantage of MCB over fuse?
A.Low cost
B.High resistance
C.Reusable
D.Low voltage
Q 46 :
What is a diode?
A.Passive component
B.Three-terminal device
C.Four-terminal device
D.Two-terminal semiconductor device
Q 47 :
Diode allows current to flow in?
A.Both directions
B.One direction
C.No direction
D.Alternate direction
Q 48 :
What is the main function of a diode?
A.Amplification
B.Storage
C.Oscillation
D.Rectification
Q 49 :
PN junction is formed by?
A.Two metals
B.P-type and N-type materials
C.Two semiconductors
D.Insulators
Q 50 :
Forward bias means?
A.No current flow
B.High resistance
C.Reverse current
D.Low resistance
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GSSSB Supervisor Instructor (Electrical) Exam Question Bank Book - English
Extra High Voltage (EHV) transmission starts from?
A.11 kV
B.33 kV
C.220 kV
D.132 kV
Q 59 :
Which conductor material is commonly used in transmission lines?
A.Copper
B.Steel
C.Aluminum
D.Gold
Q 60 :
ACSR stands for?
A.Aluminum Core Steel Reinforced
B.Alloy Core Steel Reinforced
C.Aluminum Conductor Steel Reinforced
D.Aluminum Cable Standard Rated
Q 61 :
Which parameter affects transmission line resistance?
A.Length
B.Area
C.Temperature
D.All of these
Q 62 :
The inductance of a transmission line depends on?
A.Distance between conductors
B.Voltage
C.Current
D.Frequency only
Q 63 :
Capacitance in transmission lines exists between?
A.Conductors only
B.Conductors and ground
C.Ground only
D.Insulators only
Q 64 :
Skin effect increases with?
A.Decrease in frequency
B.Decrease in voltage
C.Increase in frequency
D.Increase in resistance
Q 65 :
Corona effect occurs in?
A.Low voltage lines
B.High voltage lines
C.DC circuits
D.Underground cables
Q 66 :
What is the basic unit of electrical measurement?
A.Ampere
B.Volt
C.Ohm
D.All of the above
Q 67 :
Which instrument measures electric current?
A.Ammeter
B.Voltmeter
C.Wattmeter
D.Ohmmeter
Q 68 :
An ideal ammeter has?
A.High resistance
B.Low resistance
C.Infinite resistance
D.Zero current
Q 69 :
An ideal voltmeter has?
A.Low resistance
B.Medium resistance
C.Zero resistance
D.High resistance
Q 70 :
Which instrument measures resistance?
A.Voltmeter
B.Ammeter
C.Ohmmeter
D.Wattmeter
Q 71 :
Wattmeter is used to measure?
A.Power
B.Current
C.Voltage
D.Resistance
Q 72 :
Which instrument measures electrical energy?
A.Energy meter
B.Wattmeter
C.Ammeter
D.Voltmeter
Q 73 :
The unit of electrical energy is?
A.Watt
B.kWh
C.Joule
D.Volt
Q 74 :
Moving iron instruments work on?
A.Electrostatic principle
B.Chemical effect
C.Thermal effect
D.Magnetic effect
Q 75 :
Moving coil instruments are used for?
A.AC only
B.Both AC and DC
C.DC only
D.High voltage only
Q 76 :
What is the main fuel used in thermal power plants?
A.Wind
B.Uranium
C.Water
D.Coal
Q 77 :
What is the function of boiler in thermal power plant?
A.Produce steam
B.Generate electricity
C.Store energy
D.Increase voltage
Q 78 :
Which turbine is used in hydro power plant?
A.Water turbine
B.Gas turbine
C.Steam turbine
D.Wind turbine
Q 79 :
What is the main source of energy in nuclear power plant?
A.Coal
B.Uranium
C.Water
D.Oil
Q 80 :
Which component converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?
A.Transformer
B.Capacitor
C.Generator
D.Inductor
Q 81 :
What is the main advantage of hydro power plant?
A.High pollution
B.Renewable source
C.High fuel cost
D.Limited availability
Q 82 :
Which energy source is non-conventional?
A.Coal
B.Oil
C.Gas
D.Solar
Q 83 :
What is the function of condenser in thermal plant?
A.Convert steam to water
B.Heat water
C.Increase pressure
D.Store energy
Q 84 :
Which power plant uses photovoltaic cells?
A.Thermal
B.Solar
C.Nuclear
D.Hydro
Q 85 :
What is the working fluid in steam turbine?
A.Air
B.Steam
C.Water
D.Oil
Q 86 :
What is used to measure insulation resistance in wiring systems?
A.Megger
B.Ammeter
C.Voltmeter
D.Wattmeter
Q 87 :
Which wiring system is most suitable for temporary installations?
A.Conduit wiring
B.Batten wiring
C.Cleat wiring
D.Casing wiring
Q 88 :
Which material is commonly used for conductor in cables?
A.Iron
B.Lead
C.Zinc
D.Copper
Q 89 :
Which insulation is used in underground cables?
A.PVC
B.All of the above
C.Paper
D.Rubber
Q 90 :
What is the function of earthing in electrical installation?
A.Increase voltage
B.Reduce current
C.Safety from shock
D.Improve efficiency
Q 91 :
Which device protects against overload?
A.Fuse
B.Capacitor
C.Transformer
D.Inductor
Q 92 :
What is the standard color of earth wire?
A.Red
B.Green
C.Blue
D.Yellow
Q 93 :
Which wiring method uses wooden battens?
A.Cleat wiring
B.Batten wiring
C.Conduit wiring
D.Surface wiring
Q 94 :
What is the main function of distribution board?
A.Generate power
B.Store power
C.Distribute power
D.Measure power
Q 95 :
Which cable is used for underground installation?
A.VIR cable
B.TRS cable
C.Armoured cable
D.PVC insulated cable
Q 96 :
DC generator works on principle of?
A.Resistance
B.Electrostatic induction
C.Capacitance
D.Electromagnetic induction
Q 97 :
EMF equation of DC generator is?
A.V = IR
B.(PΦZN)/(60A)
C.P = VI
D.I = V/R
Q 98 :
DC generator converts?
A.Electrical to mechanical energy
B.Mechanical to electrical energy
C.Heat to electrical energy
D.Light to electrical energy
Q 99 :
DC motor converts?
A.Heat to mechanical energy
B.Mechanical to electrical energy
C.Electrical to mechanical energy
D.Light to electrical energy
Q 100 :
Back EMF in DC motor is?
A.Zero
B.Supports supply voltage
C.Opposes supply voltage
D.Infinite
Q 101 :
Back EMF is proportional to?
A.Resistance
B.Speed
C.Voltage
D.Current
Q 102 :
Torque in DC motor is proportional to?
A.Voltage
B.Flux and armature current
C.Resistance
D.Speed
Q 103 :
Types of DC generators are?
A.Single phase
B.Series, Shunt, Compound
C.Three phase
D.AC only
Q 104 :
Shunt generator has field winding in?
A.None
B.Series
C.Both
D.Parallel
Q 105 :
Series generator has field winding in?
A.Both
B.Parallel
C.Series
D.None
Q 106 :
Compound generator has?
A.Only series
B.Both series and shunt
C.Only shunt
D.None
Q 107 :
DC motor types are?
A.Induction
B.Series, Shunt, Compound
C.Synchronous
D.AC only
Q 108 :
Series motor is suitable for?
A.High starting torque
B.Constant speed
C.Low load
D.No load
Q 109 :
Shunt motor has?
A.Variable speed
B.Constant speed
C.High torque
D.Zero torque
Q 110 :
Compound motor has?
A.Only high speed
B.Both features
C.Only low torque
D.None
Q 111 :
Armature winding is placed on?
A.Shaft
B.Stator
C.Frame
D.Rotor
Q 112 :
Field winding is placed on?
A.Commutator
B.Rotor
C.Shaft
D.Stator
Q 113 :
Commutator is used for?
A.Transmission
B.Amplification
C.Rectification
D.Storage
Q 114 :
Brushes are used to?
A.Generate voltage
B.Collect current
C.Store energy
D.Increase speed
Q 115 :
Armature reaction causes?
A.Voltage increase
B.Flux distortion
C.Current decrease
D.Resistance increase
Q 116 :
Electric field intensity is defined as?
A.Force per unit charge
B.Charge per unit force
C.Voltage per unit current
D.Power per unit charge
Q 117 :
Unit of electric field intensity is?
A.N/C
B.Volt
C.Ampere
D.Ohm
Q 118 :
Electric flux is?
A.Product of electric field and area
B.Charge per unit area
C.Voltage per unit current
D.Power per unit area
Q 119 :
Unit of electric flux is?
A.N·m²/C
B.Volt
C.Ampere
D.Ohm
Q 120 :
Gauss’s law relates electric flux to?
A.Current
B.Voltage
C.Enclosed charge
D.Resistance
Q 121 :
Permittivity is property of?
A.Voltage
B.Charge
C.Medium
D.Current
Q 122 :
Unit of permittivity is?
A.V
B.H/m
C.Ω
D.F/m
Q 123 :
Electric potential is?
A.Current per unit voltage
B.Charge per unit work
C.Work done per unit charge
D.Power per unit charge
Q 124 :
Unit of electric potential is?
A.Volt
B.Ampere
C.Ohm
D.Watt
Q 125 :
Potential difference is?
A.Difference of potentials
B.Sum of potentials
C.Product of potentials
D.Ratio of potentials
Q 126 :
Conductors allow flow of?
A.Charges
B.Voltage
C.Resistance
D.Power
Q 127 :
Insulators oppose flow of?
A.Voltage
B.Charges
C.Power
D.Energy
Q 128 :
Electric field inside a conductor is?
A.Minimum
B.Maximum
C.Zero
D.Infinite
Q 129 :
Charge resides on conductor at?
A.Surface
B.Center
C.Inside uniformly
D.Nowhere
Q 130 :
Electrostatic shielding is achieved by?
A.Capacitors
B.Insulators
C.Semiconductors
D.Conductors
Q 131 :
Ohm’s Law states that current is?
A.Directly proportional to resistance
B.Inversely proportional to voltage
C.Directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to resistance
D.Independent of voltage
Q 132 :
The unit of resistance is?
A.Volt
B.Ohm
C.Ampere
D.Watt
Q 133 :
Kirchhoff’s Current Law is based on?
A.Charge conservation
B.Energy conservation
C.Power conservation
D.Voltage law
Q 134 :
Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law is based on?
A.Energy conservation
B.Charge conservation
C.Current law
D.Resistance law
Q 135 :
The algebraic sum of currents at a node is?
A.Always positive
B.Always negative
C.Zero
D.Infinite
Q 136 :
The algebraic sum of voltages in a loop is?
A.Infinite
B.One
C.Zero
D.Negative
Q 137 :
The equivalent resistance of resistors in series is?
A.Sum of resistances
B.Reciprocal sum
C.Product
D.Difference
Q 138 :
The equivalent resistance of resistors in parallel is?
A.Sum
B.Product
C.Difference
D.Reciprocal of sum of reciprocals
Q 139 :
Power in a resistor is given by?
A.VI
B.V/I
C.I/V
D.R/I
Q 140 :
The unit of power is?
A.Watt
B.Ampere
C.Volt
D.Ohm
Q 141 :
In AC circuit, RMS value is?
A.Peak value
B.Effective value
C.Average value
D.Minimum value
Q 142 :
The frequency of AC supply in India is?
A.50 Hz
B.60 Hz
C.100 Hz
D.25 Hz
Q 143 :
In a pure resistive AC circuit, voltage and current are?
A.In phase
B.90° out of phase
C.180° out of phase
D.45° out of phase
Q 144 :
In a pure inductive circuit, current lags voltage by?
A.180°
B.0°
C.90°
D.45°
Q 145 :
In a pure capacitive circuit, current leads voltage by?
A.180°
B.0°
C.90°
D.45°
Q 146 :
Reactance of inductor is?
A.XC = 1/2πfC
B.XL = 1/2πfL
C.XC = 2πfC
D.XL = 2πfL
Q 147 :
Reactance of capacitor is?
A.XL = 2πfL
B.XL = 1/2πfL
C.XC = 2πfC
D.XC = 1/2πfC
Q 148 :
Impedance is combination of?
A.Resistance only
B.Resistance and reactance
C.Reactance only
D.Voltage only
Q 149 :
Unit of impedance is?
A.Volt
B.Watt
C.Ohm
D.Ampere
Q 150 :
Power factor is?
A.cosθ
B.sinθ
C.tanθ
D.secθ
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 151 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 152 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 153 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 154 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 155 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 156 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 157 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 158 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 159 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 160 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 161 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 162 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 163 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 164 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 165 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 166 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 167 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 168 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 169 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 170 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 171 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 172 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 173 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 174 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 175 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 176 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 177 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 178 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 179 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 180 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Constitution of India
Q 181 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 182 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 183 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 184 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 185 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A.Privy Council
B.Supreme Court
C.High Court
D.Federal Court
Q 186 :
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A.Original jurisdiction only
B.Appellate jurisdiction only
C.Advisory jurisdiction only
D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Q 187 :
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A.14 and 7
B.11 and 7
C.15 and 9
D.None of the above
Q 188 :
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A.Government of India Act, 1919
B.Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D.None of the above
Q 189 :
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A.3 June, 1947
B.4 July, 1947
C.15 July, 1947
D.18 July, 1947
Q 190 :
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A.Simon Commission
B.Cripps Mission
C.Cabinet Mission Plan
D.The Mountbatten plan
Current Affairs
Q 191 :
The Alluri Sitarama Raju International Airport is named after a:
A.Former Chief Minister
B.Freedom fighter
C.Industrialist
D.Scientist
Q 192 :
What campaign did Prime Minister Narendra Modi launch to curb drug abuse among youth?
A.Nasha Mukt Yuva
B.Nasha Mukt Bharat
C.Yuva Shakti Abhiyan
D.Drug-Free India Mission
Q 193 :
The Centre has directed states to set up special courts to clear approximately how many pending NDPS (narcotics) cases?
A.1.5 lakh
B.2.9 lakh
C.3.9 lakh
D.5.2 lakh
Q 194 :
Which Indian pass saw the resumption of India-China cross-border trade after six years?
A.Nathu La
B.Jelep La
C.Lipulekh
D.Shipki La
Q 195 :
The Lok Sabha passed a bill to increase the sanctioned strength of Supreme Court judges from 34 to how many?
A.38
B.36
C.40
D.42
Q 196 :
President Droupadi Murmu approved which state’s Freedom of Religion Act, 2026 (anti-conversion law)?
A.Maharashtra
B.Gujarat
C.Uttar Pradesh
D.Madhya Pradesh
Q 197 :
Indian table tennis players Ankur Bhattacharjee and Yashaswini Ghorpade won singles titles at which championship?
A.Asian Table Tennis Championships
B.22nd Commonwealth Table Tennis Championships
C.World Table Tennis Championships
D.South Asian Games
Q 198 :
India finished with how many medals at the 2026 Commonwealth Games in Glasgow?
A.29
B.39
C.35
D.45
Q 199 :
Kerala reported a high burden of which zoonotic disease in 2026, linked to contaminated water and animal urine?
A.Dengue
B.Scrub Typhus
C.Japanese Encephalitis
D.Leptospirosis
Q 200 :
According to a NITI Aayog report, approximately how many government schools were closed over the past decade?
A.94,000
B.75,000
C.50,000
D.1.2 lakh
Comprehension
Q 201 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 202 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 203 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.