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Latest GSSSB Supervisor Instructor Mechanical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Constitution of India, Current Affairs, Comprehension (Gujarati & English), Technical Subject (Mechanical)
Question Bank GSSSB Supervisor Instructor (Mechanical) Exam - English
Reasoning & Data Interpretation
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 12 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 13 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 14 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 15 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 16 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 17 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 18 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 19 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 20 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 22 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 23 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 24 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 25 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 26 :
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 27 :
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 28 :
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 29 :
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 30 :
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 31 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 32 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 33 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 34 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 35 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 36 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 37 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 38 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 39 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 40 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 41 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 42 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 43 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 44 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 45 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 46 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 47 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 48 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 49 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 50 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
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GSSSB Supervisor Instructor (Mechanical) Exam Question Bank Book - English
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A.4%
B.3%
C.1%
D.None of these
Q 52 :
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A á´– (A á´— B) equal to ?
A.Complement of A
B.Complement of B
C.B
D.A
Q 53 :
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.25%
Q 54 :
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A.25%
B.100%
C.75%
D.0%
Q 55 :
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A.15
B.25
C.40
D.75
Q 56 :
The percentage passengers who like at least 2 of the coffee, tea and lassi, is
A.30
B.45
C.50
D.60
Q 57 :
If the number of passengers is 180, then the number of passengers who like lassi only, is
A.10
B.18
C.27
D.36
Q 58 :
In a town three newspapers A, B and C are published. 42% of the people in that town read A, 68% read B, 51% read C, 30% read A and B, 28% read B and C, 36% A and C and 18% do not read any paper. Find the % of the population of town that reads all the three.
A.15%
B.25%
C.20%
D.35%
Q 59 :
What is the ratio of the length of PQ to that of QO?
A.1 : 4
B.1 : 3
C.3 : 8
D.3 : 4
Q 60 :
The committee should consist of 2 Males, 2 Females and 1 child ?
A.450
B.225
C.55
D.90
Constitution of India
Q 61 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 62 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 63 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 64 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 65 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A.Privy Council
B.Supreme Court
C.High Court
D.Federal Court
Q 66 :
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A.Original jurisdiction only
B.Appellate jurisdiction only
C.Advisory jurisdiction only
D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Q 67 :
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A.14 and 7
B.11 and 7
C.15 and 9
D.None of the above
Q 68 :
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A.Government of India Act, 1919
B.Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D.None of the above
Q 69 :
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A.3 June, 1947
B.4 July, 1947
C.15 July, 1947
D.18 July, 1947
Q 70 :
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A.Simon Commission
B.Cripps Mission
C.Cabinet Mission Plan
D.The Mountbatten plan
Current Affairs
Q 71 :
What is the name of the new policy launched by Gujarat CM Bhupendra Patel in June 2025 to boost electronics manufacturing?
What is the target investment amount for the Gujarat Electronics Component Manufacturing Policy 2025?
A.Rs.25,000 crore
B.Rs.35,000 crore
C.Rs.45,000 crore
D.Rs.55,000 crore
Q 73 :
How much financial aid is allocated for the Centre of Excellence under the Gujarat Electronics Component Manufacturing Policy 2025?
A.Rs.10 crore
B.Rs.15 crore
C.Rs.12.5 crore
D.Rs.20 crore
Q 74 :
Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
A.Syria
B.Iraq
C.Lebanon
D.Iran
Q 75 :
What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?
A.Nuclear disarmament only
B.Border security
C.Economic sanctions enforcement
D.Regime change in Tehran
Q 76 :
Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
A.Mumbai
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Jammu & Kashmir
D.Karnataka
Q 77 :
What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
A.EUR 10 million
B.EUR 100 million
C.EUR 50 million
D.EUR 20 million
Q 78 :
Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
A.Kerala
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Uttarakhand
D.Himachal Pradesh
Q 79 :
Who inaugurated three major inland waterways projects on National Waterway-2 in Assam in February 2026?
A.Nitin Gadkari
B.Jyotiraditya Scindia
C.Narendra Modi
D.Sarbananda Sonowal
Q 80 :
Which event is scheduled for inauguration by PM Narendra Modi in March 2026 in Uttar Pradesh?
A.New Parliament building
B.Noida International Airport
C.Bullet train launch
D.Smart City project
Comprehension (Gujarati & English)
Q 81 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 82 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 83 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 84 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 85 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 86 :
"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?
A. વાતચીત
B. આક્રમણ
C. ખેડૂત
D. ધમાધમ
Q 87 :
"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. સંગઠન
B. વ્યવસ્થા
C. સંવિદાન
D. અનવરત
Q 88 :
"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A. અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B. વિઘટન
C. વિદ્યા
D. આકર્ષણ
Q 89 :
"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?
A. ધૂપ
B. દૂર
C. જગ્યા
D. આવેશ
Q 90 :
"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?
A. ગોલ
B. ધબ્બુ
C. સાંજ
D. ઉદ્દેશ
Technical Subject (Mechanical)
Q 91 :
A robot is?
A.A human operator
B.A programmable machine capable of performing tasks automatically
C.A manual tool
D.A mechanical lever
Q 92 :
Industrial robots are mainly used for?
A.Only cutting
B.Welding, material handling, painting, assembly
C.Grinding only
D.Cooling only
Q 93 :
The main components of a robot include?
A.Only controller
B.Only manipulator and motor
C.Only sensors and actuator
D.Manipulator, controller, end-effector, sensors, power supply
Q 94 :
Manipulator in robotics refers to?
A.The sensor unit
B.The robot controller
C.The programming language
D.The robotic arm or structure used to move objects
Q 95 :
End-effector in a robot is?
A.The tool attached to the robot to perform tasks
B.The power supply
C.The controller only
D.The sensor
Q 96 :
Robot degrees of freedom (DOF) indicate?
A.Speed only
B.Power consumption
C.Weight of robot
D.Number of independent movements the robot can make
Q 97 :
Cartesian robot has which type of motion?
A.Spherical motion
B.Rotary only
C.Linear motion along X, Y, Z axes
D.Circular only
Q 98 :
SCARA robot is mainly used for?
A.Assembly and pick-and-place operations
B.Welding only
C.Grinding only
D.Painting only
Q 99 :
Articulated robot has?
A.Rotary joints like human arm
B.Linear motion only
C.Single-axis motion only
D.No joints
Q 100 :
Delta robot is mainly used for?
A.High-speed pick-and-place operations
B.Welding
C.Milling
D.Grinding
Q 101 :
Machining is?
A.Removing material from a workpiece to obtain desired shape
B.Adding material to a workpiece
C.Painting a surface
D.Heating a workpiece
Q 102 :
Metal cutting involves?
A.Welding of material
B.Casting of material
C.Shearing of material using a cutting tool
D.Heating only
Q 103 :
Orthogonal cutting is?
A.Cutting at an angle
B.Cutting where the cutting edge is perpendicular to the cutting velocity
C.Shaping process
D.Forging process
Q 104 :
Oblique cutting is?
A.Milling process
B.Perpendicular cutting
C.Cutting where the cutting edge is at an angle to the cutting velocity
D.Grinding process
Q 105 :
Primary shear zone in metal cutting is?
A.Chip flow area only
B.Zone of heat dissipation only
C.Tool surface only
D.Zone where most of shearing occurs
Q 106 :
Tool flank wear occurs at?
A.Flank of the tool due to rubbing
B.Rake face
C.Workpiece
D.Chip
Q 107 :
Crater wear occurs at?
A.Rake face of the tool
B.Flank
C.Workpiece
D.Coolant
Q 108 :
Machinability is?
A.Ease of cutting a material
B.Hardness of material only
C.Toughness only
D.Strength only
Q 109 :
High speed steel (HSS) tools are used for?
A.Casting only
B.Grinding only
C.General purpose machining
D.Welding only
Q 110 :
Carbide tools are used for?
A.High speed and hard materials machining
B.Soft metals only
C.Wood only
D.Plastic only
Q 111 :
Work study is used to?
A.Improve productivity and efficiency
B.Reduce raw material
C.Reduce machine cost
D.Increase power consumption
Q 112 :
Method study focuses on?
A.Improving the method of doing a job
B.Reducing labor only
C.Reducing machine cost only
D.Reducing material
Q 113 :
Work measurement determines?
A.Standard time for a job
B.Material cost
C.Machine maintenance schedule
D.Quality control
Q 114 :
Techniques of work study include?
A.Method study and work measurement
B.Cost accounting
C.Marketing strategies
D.Inventory only
Q 115 :
Motion study is part of?
A.Inventory control
B.Work measurement
C.Quality control
D.Method study
Q 116 :
Time study uses?
A.Stop watch or time measurement devices
B.Cost accounting software
C.CAD software
D.Statistical tables only
Q 117 :
Standard time includes?
A.Only machine time
B.Only normal time
C.Only rest time
D.Normal time + allowances
Q 118 :
Work sampling is used to?
A.Reduce inventory
B.Measure quality
C.Determine proportion of time spent on activities
D.Measure production cost
Q 119 :
Production planning involves?
A.Only machine maintenance
B.Only hiring labor
C.Only purchasing material
D.Planning of materials, machines, and manpower
Q 120 :
Production control ensures?
A.Quality control only
B.Material reduction only
C.Machine utilization only
D.Production as per schedule
Q 121 :
CAD stands for?
A.Computer Aided Design
B.Computer Assisted Drawing
C.Centralized Automated Design
D.Computer Analysis Design
Q 122 :
CAM stands for?
A.Computer Aided Manufacturing
B.Computer Assisted Machining
C.Central Automated Manufacturing
D.Computer Analysis Machine
Q 123 :
A CAD workstation primarily consists of?
A.Printer only
B.Lathe, milling machine, computer
C.Computer, monitor, input devices, software
D.Scanner only
Q 124 :
Vector graphics in CAD are?
A.Defined by mathematical equations
B.Composed of pixels
C.Raster images only
D.Photographs
Q 125 :
Raster graphics in CAD are?
A.Mathematical curves
B.Composed of pixels
C.Vector only
D.3D models
Q 126 :
Carbon steel contains primarily?
A.Iron and Chromium
B.Iron and Nickel
C.Iron and Copper
D.Iron and Carbon
Q 127 :
Mild steel has carbon content of approximately?
A.2–3%
B.0.6–1%
C.1.5–2%
D.0.15–0.25%
Q 128 :
Cast iron contains carbon in the range of?
A.4–6%
B.0.2–0.5%
C.0.5–1%
D.2–4%
Q 129 :
Stainless steel is resistant to?
A.Wear only
B.Corrosion
C.Heat only
D.Torque
Q 130 :
Alloy steel contains?
A.Additional elements like Cr, Ni, Mo
B.Only carbon
C.Only iron
D.Only copper
Q 131 :
Heat treatment process used to soften steel is?
A.Hardening
B.Quenching
C.Tempering
D.Annealing
Q 132 :
Quenching is used to?
A.Reduce carbon
B.Soften steel
C.Increase hardness
D.Increase ductility
Q 133 :
Tempering is performed after?
A.Rolling
B.Annealing
C.Normalizing
D.Quenching
Q 134 :
Normalizing is performed to?
A.Harden steel
B.Refine grain structure
C.Reduce hardness
D.Weld metal
Q 135 :
Case hardening increases?
A.Ductility
B.Core hardness
C.Surface hardness
D.Toughness only
Q 136 :
The SI unit of length is?
A.Meter
B.Centimeter
C.Inch
D.Foot
Q 137 :
The SI unit of mass is?
A.Gram
B.Kilogram
C.Pound
D.Ton
Q 138 :
Vernier calipers are used to measure?
A.Torque
B.Pressure
C.Temperature
D.Linear dimensions
Q 139 :
Micrometer screw gauge can measure?
A.Flow rate
B.Temperature
C.Pressure
D.Small linear dimensions with high accuracy
Q 140 :
The least count of an instrument is?
A.Average reading
B.Maximum measurement
C.Smallest measurement it can accurately measure
D.Total range
Q 141 :
The instrument used to measure angles accurately is?
A.Micrometer
B.Vernier caliper
C.Sine bar
D.Dial gauge
Q 142 :
Straightness of a surface is measured by?
A.Vernier caliper
B.Micrometer
C.Dial gauge and surface plate
D.Bevel protractor
Q 143 :
Flatness can be checked using?
A.Vernier caliper
B.Surface plate and feeler gauge
C.Micrometer
D.Sine bar
Q 144 :
Squareness is the measure of?
A.Surface roughness
B.Angle between two surfaces
C.Roundness
D.Concentricity
Q 145 :
Perpendicularity tolerance specifies?
A.Flatness
B.Linear dimensions
C.How perpendicular a feature is to a reference
D.Surface roughness
Q 146 :
The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of?
A.Entropy increase
B.Conservation of mass
C.Conservation of energy
D.Heat transfer
Q 147 :
The second law of thermodynamics states?
A.Energy is conserved
B.Entropy of an isolated system never decreases
C.Pressure is constant
D.Work is equal to heat
Q 148 :
In an ideal gas, internal energy depends on?
A.Pressure only
B.Temperature only
C.Volume only
D.Pressure and volume
Q 149 :
The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on?
A.Mass flow rate
B.Pressure difference
C.Volume difference
D.Temperature difference between heat reservoirs
Q 150 :
The term “isentropic process” means?
A.Constant volume
B.Constant pressure
C.Constant entropy
D.Constant temperature
Q 151 :
A refrigerant absorbs heat in the?
A.Compressor
B.Condenser
C.Evaporator
D.Expansion valve
Q 152 :
The coefficient of performance (COP) of a refrigerator is?
A.QL / W
B.W / QL
C.QH / W
D.W / QH
Q 153 :
In a heat pump, the heat is delivered to?
A.High temperature reservoir
B.Low temperature reservoir
C.Compressor only
D.Evaporator only
Q 154 :
The working fluid of a vapour compression system is called?
A.Steam
B.Water
C.Air
D.Refrigerant
Q 155 :
In fluid statics, pressure at a point is?
A.Dependent on velocity
B.Varies with direction
C.Zero at all points
D.Same in all directions
Q 156 :
Manometers are used to measure?
A.Pressure
B.Flow rate
C.Velocity
D.Temperature
Q 157 :
Pascal’s law is applied in?
A.Pumps
B.Hydraulic systems
C.Compressors
D.Heat exchangers
Q 158 :
Hydrostatic pressure at a depth h in a fluid of density ρ is?
A.ρ g / h
B.ρ g h
C.h / ρ g
D.ρ / g h
Q 159 :
The Bernoulli’s equation is a statement of?
A.Second law of thermodynamics
B.Conservation of mass
C.Conservation of energy for flowing fluids
D.Momentum principle
Q 160 :
The flow of an ideal fluid is?
A.Turbulent
B.Rotational
C.Irrotational
D.Viscous
Q 161 :
Kinematic viscosity is defined as?
A.Velocity / density
B.Density / dynamic viscosity
C.Pressure / velocity
D.Dynamic viscosity / density
Q 162 :
Reynolds number determines?
A.Velocity
B.Pressure
C.Temperature
D.Laminar or turbulent flow
Q 163 :
In laminar flow, the velocity profile is?
A.Parabolic
B.Uniform
C.Linear
D.Sinusoidal
Q 164 :
In turbulent flow, the velocity profile is?
A.Linear
B.Parabolic
C.Flat near the center and steep near the walls
D.Sinusoidal
Q 165 :
The orifice meter measures?
A.Flow rate
B.Pressure
C.Temperature
D.Density
Q 166 :
Solar energy is classified as?
A.Fossil fuel energy
B.Non-renewable energy
C.Conventional energy
D.Renewable energy
Q 167 :
The efficiency of a solar photovoltaic cell depends mainly on?
A.Humidity
B.Wind speed
C.Temperature and irradiance
D.Altitude only
Q 168 :
Wind energy is converted into electricity by?
A.Solar panel
B.Wind turbine
C.Hydro turbine
D.Biomass gasifier
Q 169 :
The energy obtained from flowing water is called?
A.Tidal energy
B.Geothermal energy
C.Solar energy
D.Hydro energy
Q 170 :
Biomass energy is derived from?
A.Organic matter
B.Sunlight
C.Wind
D.Tides
Q 171 :
Geothermal energy comes from?
A.Ocean currents
B.Sunlight
C.Heat from Earth’s interior
D.Wind
Q 172 :
Tidal energy is produced due to?
A.Gravitational forces of moon and sun
B.Wind
C.Solar radiation
D.Earth’s rotation only
Q 173 :
The most abundant renewable energy source on Earth is?
A.Wind energy
B.Solar energy
C.Biomass
D.Geothermal energy
Q 174 :
Photovoltaic effect is the principle of?
A.Wind turbines
B.Solar water heater
C.Solar cells
D.Biomass combustion
Q 175 :
The Betz limit refers to?
A.Biomass conversion efficiency
B.Solar panel efficiency
C.Maximum efficiency of a wind turbine
D.Hydro turbine efficiency
Q 176 :
The fundamental frequency of a simple harmonic motion is inversely proportional to?
A.Stiffness
B.Mass
C.Amplitude
D.Time period
Q 177 :
In a flywheel, the maximum fluctuation of speed occurs at?
A.Neutral axis
B.Minimum energy storage
C.Mean energy
D.Maximum energy storage
Q 178 :
The primary function of a governor is to?
A.Increase power output
B.Regulate engine speed
C.Reduce fuel consumption
D.Balance engine load
Q 179 :
In a belt drive, the velocity ratio depends on?
A.Belt tension
B.Pulley diameters
C.Belt width
D.Pulley material
Q 180 :
Maximum bending stress in a shaft subjected to bending moment M, σ =?
A.M c / I
B.M / I
C.I / M
D.M / Z
Q 181 :
Maximum shear stress in a circular shaft under torque T, τmax =?
A.4 T / π d³
B.32 T / π d³
C.8 T / π d³
D.16 T / π d³
Q 182 :
For a simply supported shaft subjected to torque and bending, the maximum shear stress occurs?
A.At mid-radius
B.At the axis
C.On the surface
D.At neutral axis
Q 183 :
The safe load on a shaft is determined by?
A.Maximum bending stress only
B.Maximum combined stress
C.Maximum torsional stress only
D.Minimum diameter
Q 184 :
In a belt drive, slip occurs due to?
A.Tension
B.Friction
C.Pulley diameter
D.Shaft speed
Q 185 :
The coefficient of friction in a journal bearing depends on?
A.All of the above
B.Bearing material
C.Load
D.Lubricant
Q 186 :
Direct stress is defined as?
A.Force per unit area along axis of body
B.Force per unit length
C.Shear force / Area
D.Moment / Area
Q 187 :
Unit of stress is?
A.N
B.N·m
C.N/m²
D.m²
Q 188 :
Strain is?
A.Force per unit area
B.Deformation per unit length
C.Energy per volume
D.Stress / Area
Q 189 :
Unit of strain is?
A.m
B.N/m²
C.No unit
D.m²
Q 190 :
Young’s modulus is?
A.Force × Area
B.Strain / Stress
C.Stress / Strain
D.Stress × Strain
Q 191 :
Shear stress is defined as?
A.Force × Length
B.Axial force / Area
C.Moment / Area
D.Tangential force / Area
Q 192 :
Poisson’s ratio is?
A.Lateral strain / Longitudinal strain
B.Longitudinal strain / Lateral strain
C.Stress / Strain
D.Shear stress / Shear strain
Q 193 :
Maximum shear stress occurs at?
A.Neutral axis
B.Top fiber
C.Bottom fiber
D.At supports
Q 194 :
For uniform bar, axial deformation ΔL =?
A.FL / AE
B.AE / FL
C.F / AL
D.FL / E
Q 195 :
Unit of modulus of rigidity (G) is?
A.N/m²
B.N·m
C.N
D.Pa·m
Q 196 :
Moment of inertia depends on?
A.Shape and size of cross-section
B.Material
C.Load
D.Length only
Q 197 :
Moment of inertia of rectangular section about centroidal axis, I =?
A.b h² / 6
B.h b³ / 12
C.b h³ / 12
D.b³ h / 12
Q 198 :
Polar moment of inertia of solid circular shaft, J =?
A.π d² / 4
B.π d³ / 16
C.π d⁴ / 32
D.π d⁴ / 64
Q 199 :
Bending moment at a section is?
A.Shear force × distance
B.Sum of moments of forces about that section
C.Load / Area
D.Force × Length
Q 200 :
Shear force at a section is?
A.Moment / Length
B.Algebraic sum of vertical forces to one side
C.Load × Distance
D.None
Q 201 :
Centroid of a uniform triangular lamina is located at?
A.1/2 from base
B.2/3 from base
C.1/3 from base
D.1/4 from base
Q 202 :
Centroid of a uniform semicircular lamina from the flat edge is?
A.R/2
B.4R/3π
C.2R/3
D.R/π
Q 203 :
Centre of gravity of a uniform solid hemisphere is located at?
A.3R/8 from base
B.R/2 from base
C.R/3 from base
D.4R/3π from base
Q 204 :
Coplanar concurrent forces result in?
A.Translation only
B.Rotation only
C.Both translation and rotation
D.Equilibrium only
Q 205 :
Lami’s theorem is applicable to?
A.Two forces
B.Three forces
C.Four forces
D.Any number of forces
Q 206 :
Resultant of two parallel forces acting in opposite directions is?
A.Sum of magnitudes
B.Product of magnitudes
C.Difference of magnitudes
D.Zero always
Q 207 :
If two parallel forces act in the same direction, their resultant is?
