How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 8Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 11Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 14Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 15Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 16Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 17Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 18Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 19Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 22Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 23Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 25Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 28Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 29Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 30Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 31Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 33Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 34Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 35Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 36Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 37Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 38Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 39Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 40Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 41Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 42Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 43Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 44Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 45Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 46Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 48Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 49Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 50Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
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Quantitative Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 52Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 53Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 54Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 55Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 56Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 57Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 58Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 59Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 60Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Constitution of India, Current Affairs, Comprehension
Question 61Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 62Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 63Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 64Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 65Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 66Single Answer
"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?
A
વાતચીત
B
આક્રમણ
C
ખેડૂત
D
ધમાધમ
Question 67Single Answer
"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?
A
સંગઠન
B
વ્યવસ્થા
C
સંવિદાન
D
અનવરત
Question 68Single Answer
"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A
અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B
વિઘટન
C
વિદ્યા
D
આકર્ષણ
Question 69Single Answer
"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?
A
ધૂપ
B
દૂર
C
જગ્યા
D
આવેશ
Question 70Single Answer
"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?
A
ગોલ
B
ધબ્બુ
C
સાંજ
D
ઉદ્દેશ
Question 71Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 72Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 73Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above
Question 74Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 75Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court
Question 76Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 77Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above
Question 78Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above
Question 79Single Answer
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947
Question 80Single Answer
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan
Question 81Single Answer
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A
July 1, 2026
B
June 30, 2026
C
July 2, 2026
D
June 29, 2026
Question 82Single Answer
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A
Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
Gaganyaan crewed mission
D
Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Question 83Single Answer
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A
Gukesh D
B
Praggnanandhaa R
C
Harshavardhan G.B.
D
Arjun Erigaisi
Question 84Single Answer
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A
Merger with SBI
B
Merger into a single power financing entity
C
Merger with NTPC
D
Merger with IREDA
Question 85Single Answer
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A
Lakhpati Didi App
B
Digital India Rural Scheme
C
PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D
SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
Question 86Single Answer
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
A
New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
B
Presidential elections were held
C
Parliament was dissolved
D
King was crowned
Question 87Single Answer
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
A
20% below average
B
39.8% below average
C
15% above average
D
Normal rainfall
Question 88Single Answer
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
A
Bengaluru
B
New Delhi
C
Mumbai
D
Hyderabad
Question 89Single Answer
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
A
Universal Health Coverage
B
Ayushman Bharat expansion only
C
TB-free India 2030
D
National Ambulance Services 2026
Question 90Single Answer
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?
A
Removal of all cesses
B
Single 12% slab
C
Primarily two tax slabs of 5% and 18%
D
Only state-level taxation
Technical Subject
Question 91Single Answer
Smart textiles are mainly used for?
A
Integrating electronics with fabric
B
Only decoration
C
Only stitching
D
Only dyeing
Question 92Single Answer
Smart textile technology is used in?
A
Hand stitching only
B
Traditional sewing only
C
Wearable technology
D
Cutting process only
Question 93Single Answer
3D printing in garments is used for?
A
Designing accessories and prototypes
B
Only stitching
C
Only washing
D
Only pressing
Question 94Single Answer
Sustainable fashion mainly focuses on?
A
Eco-friendly production
B
Heavy decoration
C
Only synthetic fabrics
D
Only machine use
Question 95Single Answer
Fast fashion means?
A
Rapid production of trendy garments
B
Slow production
C
Handmade only
D
Traditional only
Question 96Single Answer
Which projection is classically used to demonstrate the maxillary sinuses with minimal petrous-ridge superimposition?
A
Caldwell projection
B
Towne projection
C
Waters projection
D
Lateral skull projection
Question 97Single Answer
In the Waters projection for paranasal sinuses, which line is generally positioned approximately perpendicular to the image receptor?
A
Orbitomeatal line
B
Mentomeatal line
C
Infraorbitomeatal line
D
Interpupillary line
Question 98Single Answer
Which projection is particularly useful for demonstrating the frontal and anterior ethmoidal sinuses?
A
Submentovertex projection
B
Caldwell projection
C
Towne projection
D
Reverse Towne projection
Question 99Single Answer
In a standard Caldwell projection of the paranasal sinuses, the petrous ridges should appear where?
A
Above the superior orbital margins
B
Completely below the maxillary sinuses
C
In the lower third of the orbits
D
Through the nasal septum
Question 100Single Answer
Which projection best demonstrates the sphenoid sinus through the open mouth?
A
Open-mouth Waters projection
B
Caldwell projection
C
Lateral nasal-bone projection
D
Reverse Towne projection
Question 101Single Answer
Which SI unit is used to measure force?
A
Joule
B
Newton
C
Watt
D
Pascal
Question 102Single Answer
Work is done when a force produces what?
A
Temperature change only
B
Decrease in density
C
Increase in mass
D
Displacement in the direction of force
Question 103Single Answer
Which expression correctly represents mechanical work for a constant force parallel to displacement?
A
W = F/d
B
W = d/F
C
W = Fd
D
W = Ft
Question 104Single Answer
Which SI unit is used for work and energy?
A
Watt
B
Coulomb
C
Newton
D
Joule
Question 105Single Answer
Power is defined as what?
A
Force per unit area
B
Work done per unit time
C
Energy per unit charge
D
Charge per unit time
Question 106Single Answer
Which mosquito genus characteristically rests with its body at an angle to the resting surface?
A
Culex
B
Aedes
C
Anopheles
D
Mansonia
Question 107Single Answer
Which feature most reliably distinguishes an adult female Anopheles mosquito from a female Culex mosquito?
A
Culex has longer palps than its proboscis
B
Anopheles lacks maxillary palps
C
Culex has spotted wings in every species
D
Anopheles has maxillary palps approximately as long as the proboscis
Question 108Single Answer
Eggs of Anopheles mosquitoes are characteristically provided with what?
A
Operculum
B
Lateral floats
C
Terminal spine
D
Gelatinous stalk
Question 109Single Answer
Which mosquito generally lays its eggs singly on the water surface rather than in rafts?
A
Culex
B
Coquillettidia
C
Mansonia
D
Anopheles
Question 110Single Answer
Which mosquito commonly lays eggs in raft-like masses on water?
A
Aedes
B
Anopheles
C
Toxorhynchites
D
Culex
Question 111Single Answer
Which nursing action is most appropriate when assessing a newly admitted patient before planning care?
A
Collect comprehensive subjective and objective data
B
Formulate interventions before assessment
C
Establish discharge criteria first
D
Delegate the entire assessment to attendants
Question 112Single Answer
Which step of the nursing process involves identifying actual or potential patient responses to health problems?
A
Assessment
B
Evaluation
C
Implementation
D
Nursing diagnosis
Question 113Single Answer
Which nursing-process phase determines whether expected patient outcomes have been achieved?
A
Planning
B
Assessment
C
Diagnosis
D
Evaluation
Question 114Single Answer
A patient's respiratory rate is 8/min after opioid administration. Which nursing action has the highest priority?
A
Document and reassess after two hours
B
Assess airway, breathing and level of consciousness immediately
C
Encourage oral fluids
D
Begin discharge teaching
Question 115Single Answer
Which position is generally most useful for maximizing lung expansion in a conscious patient with dyspnea?
A
Supine
B
High Fowler's
C
Trendelenburg
D
Prone with legs elevated
Question 116Single Answer
Which finding is most consistent with orthostatic hypotension?
A
Rise in blood pressure after standing
B
Significant fall in blood pressure after assuming upright posture
C
Bradycardia only during sleep
D
Increased pulse pressure after meals
Question 117Single Answer
Which pulse site is most appropriate for assessing circulation during adult cardiopulmonary arrest by a trained healthcare provider?
A
Radial
B
Dorsalis pedis
C
Carotid
D
Temporal
Question 118Single Answer
Which finding indicates adequate peripheral tissue perfusion most reliably among the following?
A
Warm extremities with appropriate capillary refill
B
Persistent cyanosis
C
Weak thready pulse
D
Cool mottled skin
Question 119Single Answer
Which nursing intervention most effectively prevents pressure injury in an immobile patient?
A
Massage reddened bony prominences vigorously
B
Restrict protein intake
C
Keep bed linen wrinkled
D
Reposition regularly and redistribute pressure
Question 120Single Answer
Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin over a bony prominence corresponds to which pressure-injury stage?
A
Unstageable
B
Stage 2
C
Stage 3
D
Stage 1
Question 121Single Answer
Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis is characteristic of which pressure-injury stage?
A
Stage 1
B
Stage 2
C
Stage 3
D
Stage 4
Question 122Single Answer
Which principle is essential while transferring a weak patient from bed to chair?
A
Keep the feet close together and twist the spine
B
Lift principally with the back muscles
C
Hold the patient away from the body
D
Maintain a wide base of support and bend at the knees
Question 123Single Answer
Which action is appropriate when obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine specimen?
A
Collect the first urine that begins flowing
B
Obtain urine from the drainage bag of an indwelling catheter
C
Clean the area and collect the middle portion of the stream
D
Add disinfectant to the container
Question 124Single Answer
Which intervention best reduces aspiration risk during enteral feeding?
A
Keep the patient completely supine
B
Elevate the head of the bed appropriately during feeding
C
Give the feeding as rapidly as possible
D
Mix medications directly into the feeding bag routinely
Question 125Single Answer
Before administering medication through a feeding tube, the nurse should primarily do what?
A
Verify tube placement according to appropriate clinical protocol
B
Place the patient flat
C
Mix incompatible drugs together
D
Stop all flushing
Question 126Single Answer
Which pancreatic hormone is primarily responsible for lowering blood glucose concentration after a carbohydrate-rich meal?
A
Glucagon
B
Insulin
C
Cortisol
D
Growth hormone
Question 127Single Answer
Insulin promotes glucose uptake in skeletal muscle primarily by increasing membrane translocation of which transporter?
A
GLUT4
B
GLUT1
C
GLUT2
D
SGLT1
Question 128Single Answer
Which glucose transporter functions as a high-capacity, low-affinity transporter in hepatocytes and pancreatic beta cells?
A
GLUT3
B
GLUT4
C
GLUT5
D
GLUT2
Question 129Single Answer
Which enzyme catalyses phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in most peripheral tissues?
A
Hexokinase
B
Glucokinase
C
Phosphoglucomutase
D
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Question 130Single Answer
Which enzyme functions as the major glucose-phosphorylating enzyme in hepatocytes?
A
Hexokinase I
B
Phosphofructokinase
C
Glucokinase
D
Pyruvate kinase
Question 131Single Answer
Which hormone most directly stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis during fasting?
A
Insulin
B
Calcitonin
C
Thyroxine
D
Glucagon
Question 132Single Answer
Which hepatic pathway is principally responsible for maintaining blood glucose during prolonged fasting?
A
Glycogenesis
B
Pentose phosphate pathway
C
Lipogenesis
D
Gluconeogenesis
Question 133Single Answer
Which substrate can serve as a precursor for hepatic gluconeogenesis?
A
Acetyl-CoA carbon directly
B
Lactate
C
Cholesterol
D
Ketone bodies
Question 134Single Answer
Which organ becomes an increasingly important site of gluconeogenesis during prolonged fasting?
A
Spleen
B
Kidney
C
Pancreas
D
Thyroid
Question 135Single Answer
The Cori cycle involves transport of which metabolite from exercising muscle to liver?
A
Citrate
B
Acetoacetate
C
Cholesterol
D
Lactate
Question 136Single Answer
Which mechanism allows a small nonpolar molecule to cross a bacterial cytoplasmic membrane without carrier involvement?
A
Group translocation
B
Passive diffusion
C
Active transport
D
Facilitated diffusion
Question 137Single Answer
Which feature distinguishes facilitated diffusion from simple diffusion?
A
It always requires ATP
B
It requires a specific membrane carrier or channel
C
It transports solutes against a concentration gradient
D
It chemically modifies the transported molecule
Question 138Single Answer
Which statement about facilitated diffusion in microorganisms is correct?
A
It proceeds down the electrochemical gradient
B
It can concentrate solute above its extracellular concentration
C
It obligatorily hydrolyses ATP
D
It always phosphorylates the incoming solute
Question 139Single Answer
Active transport differs fundamentally from facilitated diffusion because active transport can do what?
A
Move substances only through lipid bilayers
B
Function without membrane proteins
C
Accumulate solutes against their electrochemical gradients
D
Operate only at equilibrium
Question 140Single Answer
Which transport system directly uses ATP hydrolysis to drive solute uptake in bacteria?
A
Porin channel
B
ABC transporter
C
Simple diffusion
D
Uniporter operating passively
Question 141Single Answer
Which bacterial structure is primarily responsible for maintaining cell shape and preventing osmotic lysis?
A
Peptidoglycan cell wall
B
Capsule
C
Cytoplasmic membrane
D
Flagellum
Question 142Single Answer
Which component is characteristic of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria?
A
Teichoic acid
B
Lipopolysaccharide
C
Mycolic acid
D
Chitin
Question 143Single Answer
The toxic activity of Gram-negative endotoxin is mainly associated with which portion of lipopolysaccharide?
A
Lipid A
B
O antigen
C
Core polysaccharide
D
Porin
Question 144Single Answer
Teichoic acids are most characteristically found in the cell wall of which bacteria?
A
Gram-positive bacteria
B
Gram-negative bacteria
C
Mycoplasma
D
Chlamydia
Question 145Single Answer
Which bacterial group naturally lacks a rigid cell wall?
A
Bacillus
B
Mycoplasma
C
Clostridium
D
Corynebacterium
Question 146Single Answer
Which ethical principle requires a healthcare professional to respect a competent patient's right to make decisions about treatment?
A
Beneficence
B
Fidelity
C
Autonomy
D
Utility
Question 147Single Answer
A nurse acts to maximize a patient's welfare and therapeutic benefit primarily under which ethical principle?
A
Confidentiality
B
Veracity
C
Justice
D
Beneficence
Question 148Single Answer
The ethical obligation to avoid causing unnecessary harm is known as what?
A
Fidelity
B
Autonomy
C
Non-maleficence
D
Advocacy
Question 149Single Answer
Fair allocation of limited healthcare resources primarily reflects which ethical principle?
A
Veracity
B
Justice
C
Fidelity
D
Paternalism
Question 150Single Answer
A healthcare professional who gives truthful information to a patient is principally following which ethical duty?
A
Solidarity
B
Utility
C
Reciprocity
D
Veracity
Question 151Single Answer
Which statement most accurately defines public health?
A
Organized efforts to prevent disease, prolong life and promote population health
B
Treatment of hospitalized patients only
C
Laboratory diagnosis of infectious diseases only
D
Administration of private hospitals
Question 152Single Answer
Which activity is primarily a public health function rather than an individual clinical service?
A
Appendectomy
B
Population disease surveillances
C
Fracture fixation
D
Cataract extraction
Question 153Single Answer
Which concept describes systematic differences in health that are avoidable, unfair and socially produced?
A
Health transition
B
Case fatality
C
Health inequity
D
Biological variation
Question 154Single Answer
Which determinant most directly represents the socioeconomic environment influencing population health?
A
ABO blood group
B
Employment conditions
C
Eye colour
D
Genetic mutation
Question 155Single Answer
Which approach addresses health determinants before risk factors become established in a population?
A
Disability limitation
B
Secondary prevention
C
Primordial prevention
D
Rehabilitation
Question 156Single Answer
Fluoridation of an appropriate community water supply for prevention of dental caries is an example of which public health approach?
A
Case management
B
Rehabilitation
C
Disability limitation
D
Specific protection
Question 157Single Answer
Screening apparently healthy individuals for hypertension represents which level of prevention?
A
Primordial
B
Tertiary
C
Secondary
D
Rehabilitative
Question 158Single Answer
Physiotherapy to restore function after a disabling stroke primarily represents what?
A
Health promotion
B
Specific protection
C
Tertiary prevention
D
Primordial prevention
Question 159Single Answer
Which epidemiological measure is most appropriate for estimating the risk of developing a disease during a defined period?
A
Incidence proportion
B
Point prevalence
C
Proportional mortality
D
Case fatality
Question 160Single Answer
Which measure best describes the burden of an existing chronic disease in a community at a particular time?
A
Incidence
B
Case fatality
C
Secondary attack rate
D
Prevalence
Question 161Single Answer
Which personal hygiene practice most directly interrupts fecal-oral transmission of enteric pathogens?
A
Daily hair combing
B
Wearing cotton clothes
C
Handwashing with soap after defecation
D
Daily exercise
Question 162Single Answer
Which part of routine handwashing is most important for mechanically removing transient microorganisms?
A
Friction over all hand surfaces
B
Using very hot water
C
Wearing rings during washing
D
Drying before rinsing
Question 163Single Answer
Which practice is most appropriate for maintaining oral hygiene and reducing dental caries?
A
Frequent intake of sticky carbohydrates
B
Brushing only after dental pain
C
Avoiding cleaning between teeth
D
Regular brushing with fluoride toothpaste
Question 164Single Answer
Dental plaque is best described as what?
A
Mineralized bone tissue
B
Structured microbial biofilm on tooth surfaces
C
Salivary gland secretion
D
Necrotic gingival tissue
Question 165Single Answer
Which dietary practice most strongly increases the risk of dental caries?
A
Frequent consumption of fermentable sugars
B
Adequate protein intake
C
Drinking plain water
D
Eating fibrous vegetables
Question 166Single Answer
Which hygiene measure is particularly important for preventing fungal infection of the feet?
A
Sharing footwear
B
Wearing damp socks continuously
C
Keeping interdigital spaces dry
D
Avoiding foot inspection
Question 167Single Answer
Which practice is most appropriate for menstrual hygiene?
A
Prolonged use of one absorbent product
B
Avoiding bathing throughout menstruation
C
Regular changing of clean menstrual absorbents
D
Sharing reusable absorbents without washing
Question 168Single Answer
Which measure best prevents transmission of head lice within households?
A
Sharing combs after dry wiping
B
Avoiding sharing personal hair-care items
C
Routine antibiotic use
D
Increasing dietary calcium
Question 169Single Answer
Which personal hygiene practice is especially important for food handlers?
A
Wearing artificial nails
B
Keeping fingernails short and clean
C
Tasting food with serving utensils repeatedly
D
Handling food with uncovered infected wounds
Question 170Single Answer
Which factor is most important for maintaining healthy skin integrity?
A
Repeated use of harsh chemicals
B
Appropriate cleanliness with avoidance of prolonged moisture
C
Continuous occlusion of wet skin
D
Vigorous scratching
Question 171Single Answer
Which measure most accurately represents the ability of a communicable disease to spread from one infected person to susceptible contacts?
A
Infectivity
B
Pathogenicity
C
Virulence
D
Case fatality
Question 172Single Answer
Which epidemiological term denotes the proportion of infected persons who develop clinically apparent disease?
A
Infectivity
B
Pathogenicity
C
Virulence
D
Prevalence
Question 173Single Answer
Which term describes the ability of an infectious agent to cause severe disease or death?
A
Antigenicity
B
Infectivity
C
Virulence
D
Incubation
Question 174Single Answer
The interval between entry of an infectious agent and appearance of the first clinical manifestation is called what?
A
Generation time
B
Serial interval
C
Incubation period
D
Latent period
Question 175Single Answer
A person who harbours a pathogen without apparent clinical disease but can transmit infection is termed what?
A
Vector
B
Sentinel
C
Reservoir
D
Carrier
Question 176Single Answer
Which term denotes the natural habitat in which an infectious agent normally lives, grows and multiplies?
A
Vehicle
B
Vector
C
Reservoir
D
Fomite
Question 177Single Answer
Transmission of infection through contaminated food, water or blood is classified as what?
A
Vector transmission
B
Direct contact transmission
C
Vehicle-borne transmission
D
Droplet transmission
Question 178Single Answer
Which mode of transmission involves relatively large respiratory particles that usually travel only a short distance?
A
Airborne transmission
B
Droplet transmission
C
Vector-borne transmission
D
Transplacental transmission
Question 179Single Answer
Which intervention directly acts on the source or reservoir of a human communicable disease?
A
Increasing population density
B
Early diagnosis and treatment
C
Reducing ventilation
D
Delaying case detection
Question 180Single Answer
Which measure is most specifically intended to separate infected persons from susceptible individuals?
A
Quarantine
B
Screening
C
Surveillance
D
Isolation
Question 181Single Answer
Restriction of movement of apparently healthy persons exposed to a communicable disease is termed what?
A
Quarantine
B
Isolation
C
Segregation
D
Notification
Question 182Single Answer
Occurrence of disease cases clearly exceeding the normally expected level in a community is called what?
A
Epidemic
B
Endemicity
C
Sporadic occurrence
D
Secular trend
Question 183Single Answer
A disease constantly present at its usual frequency within a defined geographical area is described as what?
A
Pandemic
B
Eradicated
C
Exotic
D
Endemic
Question 184Single Answer
Which epidemiological measure is most useful for studying the risk of developing a new disease during a specified period?
A
Prevalence
B
Case fatality
C
Incidence
D
Proportional mortality
Question 185Single Answer
Which measure includes both existing and newly occurring cases at a specified point or period?
A
Incidence
B
Prevalence
C
Secondary attack rate
D
Mortality rate
Question 186Single Answer
Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in the size of individual cells without an increase in cell number?
A
Hyperplasia
B
Hypertrophy
C
Metaplasia
D
Dysplasia
Question 187Single Answer
Which adaptation represents an increase in the number of cells within a tissue or organ?
A
Hyperplasia
B
Atrophy
C
Hypertrophy
D
Metaplasia
Question 188Single Answer
Replacement of one mature differentiated cell type by another mature cell type is termed what?
A
Anaplasia
B
Metaplasia
C
Dysplasia
D
Neoplasia
Question 189Single Answer
Which morphological feature is most characteristic of reversible cellular injury?
A
Cellular swelling
B
Nuclear fragmentation
C
Nuclear dissolution
D
Plasma membrane rupture
Question 190Single Answer
Hydropic change primarily results from failure of which cellular mechanism?
A
DNA repair
B
Lysosomal enzyme synthesis
C
Energy-dependent ion pumps
D
Ribosomal assembly
Question 191Single Answer
Which nuclear alteration represents irreversible condensation of chromatin during cell death?
A
Karyolysis
B
Polyploidy
C
Karyorrhexis
D
Pyknosis
Question 192Single Answer
Fragmentation of a pyknotic nucleus is termed what?
A
Karyolysis
B
Anisokaryosis
C
Karyorrhexis
D
Hyperchromasia
Question 193Single Answer
Enzymatic dissolution and fading of a dead cell's nucleus is known as what?
A
Pyknosis
B
Karyorrhexis
C
Karyolysis
D
Mitosis
Question 194Single Answer
Coagulative necrosis is most characteristic of ischemic injury involving which organ?
A
Brain
B
Kidney
C
Pancreas
D
Spinal cord
Question 195Single Answer
Cerebral infarction typically produces which type of necrosis?
A
Liquefactive
B
Coagulative
C
Caseous
D
Fibrinoid
Question 196Single Answer
In the standard anatomical position, which statement correctly describes the forearms?
A
Pronated with palms posteriorly
B
Flexed with palms medially
C
Supinated with palms anteriorly
D
Internally rotated with palms laterally
Question 197Single Answer
Which anatomical plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
A
Coronal plane
B
Oblique plane
C
Transverse plane
D
Midsagittal plane
Question 198Single Answer
A structure located nearer to the median plane than another structure is described as what?
A
Lateral
B
Medial
C
Distal
D
Superficial
Question 199Single Answer
Which term describes a structure farther from the attachment of a limb?
A
Proximal
B
Deep
C
Distal
D
Cranial
Question 200Single Answer
Movement of a limb away from the median plane is termed what?
A
Adduction
B
Pronation
C
Flexion
D
Abduction
Question 201Single Answer
Which epithelial type is best adapted for rapid diffusion across pulmonary alveoli?
A
Simple squamous
B
Stratified squamous
C
Transitional
D
Pseudostratified columnar
Question 202Single Answer
Which connective tissue cell is primarily responsible for synthesizing collagen fibres?
A
Mast cell
B
Fibroblast
C
Macrophage
D
Plasma cell
Question 203Single Answer
Which organelle is principally responsible for oxidative phosphorylation?
A
Golgi apparatus
B
Centrosome
C
Lysosome
D
Mitochondrion
Question 204Single Answer
Which cell junction provides the strongest mechanical attachment between adjacent epithelial cells?
A
Desmosome
B
Gap junction
C
Tight junction
D
Hemidesmosome
Question 205Single Answer
Which membrane transport mechanism moves substances against their electrochemical gradient?
A
Simple diffusion
B
Facilitated diffusion
C
Active transport
D
Osmosis
Question 206Single Answer
The resting membrane potential of most excitable cells depends predominantly on permeability to which ion?
A
Calcium
B
Sodium
C
Potassium
D
Chloride
Question 207Single Answer
Depolarization of a typical neuronal action potential is primarily produced by what?
A
K⁺ influx
B
Na⁺ influx
C
Cl⁻ influx
D
Ca²⁺ efflux
Question 208Single Answer
Repolarization of a neuronal action potential is primarily associated with what?
A
Na⁺ influx
B
K⁺ efflux
C
Ca²⁺ influx
D
Cl⁻ efflux
Question 209Single Answer
Which mechanism is chiefly responsible for maintaining intracellular Na⁺ and K⁺ concentration gradients?
A
Na⁺/Ca²⁺ exchanger
B
Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase
C
Voltage-gated Na⁺ channel
D
K⁺ leak channel alone
Question 210Single Answer
Homeostasis refers most accurately to what?
A
Dynamic maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment