How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 8Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 11Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 14Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 15Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 16Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 17Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 18Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 19Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 22Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 23Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 25Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 28Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 29Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 30Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 31Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 33Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 34Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 35Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 36Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 37Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 38Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 39Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 40Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 41Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 42Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 43Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 44Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 45Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 46Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 48Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 49Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 50Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
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Quantitative Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 52Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 53Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 54Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 55Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 56Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 57Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 58Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 59Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 60Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Constitution, Current Affairs, Gujarati & English Comprehension
Question 61Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 62Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 63Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 64Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 65Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 66Single Answer
"શાંતિ" શબ્દનો અર્થ શું છે ?
A
વાતચીત
B
આક્રમણ
C
ખેડૂત
D
ધમાધમ
Question 67Single Answer
"વ્યક્તિ" શબ્દનો વિલોમ શબ્દ શું છે ?
A
સંગઠન
B
વ્યવસ્થા
C
સંવિદાન
D
અનવરત
Question 68Single Answer
"વિકાસ" શબ્દનું અર્થ શું છે ?
A
અભિવૃદ્ધિ
B
વિઘટન
C
વિદ્યા
D
આકર્ષણ
Question 69Single Answer
"સ્થાન" શબ્દનું વિરોધી શબ્દ શું છે ?
A
ધૂપ
B
દૂર
C
જગ્યા
D
આવેશ
Question 70Single Answer
"મંજિલ" શબ્દનો વ્યાપારિક અર્થ શું છે ?
A
ગોલ
B
ધબ્બુ
C
સાંજ
D
ઉદ્દેશ
Question 71Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 72Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 73Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above
Question 74Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 75Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court
Question 76Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 77Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above
Question 78Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above
Question 79Single Answer
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947
Question 80Single Answer
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A
Simon Commission
B
Cripps Mission
C
Cabinet Mission Plan
D
The Mountbatten plan
Question 81Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 82Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Question 83Single Answer
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B
Atal Tunnel
C
Noida International Airport
D
Chenab Bridge
Question 84Single Answer
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A
Increased tariffs
B
Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C
Complete trade halt
D
New sanctions
Question 85Single Answer
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?
A
4.0% of GDP
B
5.0% of GDP
C
4.5% of GDP
D
4.3% of GDP
Question 86Single Answer
Which scheme was launched by Gujarat government in April 2026 for youth employment?
A
Gujarat Rozgar Yojana
B
Mukhyamantri Yuva Swavalamban Yojana
C
Skill Gujarat Mission
D
Startup Gujarat
Question 87Single Answer
Which department introduced digital governance reforms in April 2026?
A
Finance Department
B
Health Department
C
Education Department
D
IT Department
Question 88Single Answer
Who is the Chief Minister of Gujarat in April 2026?
A
Narendra Modi
B
Vijay Rupani
C
Bhupendra Patel
D
Amit Shah
Question 89Single Answer
Which initiative promotes smart governance in Gujarat?
A
Make in India
B
Smart India
C
Startup India
D
Digital Gujarat
Question 90Single Answer
Which policy focuses on renewable energy in Gujarat?
A
Renewable Mission
B
Energy Policy
C
Green Gujarat Policy
D
Solar Policy
Civil
Question 91Single Answer
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l
Question 92Single Answer
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4
Question 93Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5
Question 94Single Answer
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30
Question 95Single Answer
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8
Question 96Single Answer
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 97Single Answer
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4
Question 98Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 99Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Question 100Single Answer
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l
Question 101Single Answer
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963
Question 102Single Answer
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 103Single Answer
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Question 105Single Answer
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A
440 kg/cm2
B
175 kg/cm2
C
100kg/cm2
D
75kg/cm2
Question 106Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4
Question 107Single Answer
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 108Single Answer
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate
Question 109Single Answer
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement
Question 110Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5
Question 111Single Answer
What is the primary focus of kinematics in dynamics?
A
Forces causing motion
B
Motion without forces
C
Energy conservation
D
Momentum transfer
Question 112Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of evaluating bearing capacity in foundation design?
A
Ensure soil can support loads without failure
B
Minimize construction cost
C
Increase settlement
D
Enhance aesthetic appeal
Question 113Single Answer
Which bearing capacity theory is commonly used for shallow foundations?
A
Terzaghi’s theory
B
Rankine’s theory
C
Coulomb’s theory
D
Taylor’s theory
Question 114Single Answer
What field test is commonly used to estimate bearing capacity?
A
Standard Penetration Test (SPT)
B
Proctor test
C
Consolidation test
D
Triaxial test
Question 115Single Answer
What is the factor of safety for allowable bearing capacity?
A
2.5 to 3
B
1.5 to 2
C
4 to 5
D
1 to 1.5
Question 116Single Answer
What is immediate settlement in foundation design?
A
Elastic settlement occurring instantly
B
Settlement due to consolidation
C
Settlement due to shear failure
D
Settlement due to compaction
Question 117Single Answer
What is the allowable settlement for isolated footings on clay?
A
75 mm
B
50 mm
C
25 mm
D
100 mm
Question 118Single Answer
What is the allowable settlement for isolated footings on sand?
A
50 mm
B
75 mm
C
25 mm
D
100 mm
Question 119Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of proportioning shallow foundations?
A
Ensure uniform load distribution and stability
B
Minimize material usage
C
Increase settlement
D
Enhance aesthetic appeal
Question 120Single Answer
What is an isolated footing used for?
A
Support single column loads
B
Support multiple columns
C
Distribute load over large area
D
Support bridge piers
Question 121Single Answer
What is a combined footing used for?
A
Support two or more closely spaced columns
B
Support single column
C
Distribute load over weak soil
D
Support machine loads
Question 122Single Answer
What is a raft foundation used for?
A
Distribute load over large area in weak soils
B
Support single column
C
Minimize construction cost
D
Support deep foundations
Question 123Single Answer
What is a common type of pile foundation?
A
Driven precast pile
B
Spread footing
C
Strip footing
D
Mat foundation
Question 124Single Answer
What is the primary function of a pile foundation?
A
Transfer load to deeper, stronger soil
B
Distribute load over surface soil
C
Reduce settlement in firm soil
D
Increase soil permeability
Question 125Single Answer
What is the static formula for pile capacity based on?
A
Skin friction and end bearing
B
Soil permeability
C
Consolidation settlement
D
Shear strength only
Question 126Single Answer
What is a common dynamic formula for pile capacity?
A
Engineering News formula
B
Terzaghi’s formula
C
Meyerhof’s formula
D
Skempton’s formula
Question 127Single Answer
What is the formula for pile capacity using the Engineering News formula?
A
Q_u = (W h) / (s + C)
B
Q_u = (W h) / s
C
Q_u = (W h) / C
D
Q_u = (W h) / (s - C)
Question 128Single Answer
What is the primary consideration in pile group design?
A
Group efficiency and settlement
B
Individual pile capacity only
C
Soil permeability
D
Construction cost
Question 129Single Answer
What is the efficiency of a pile group?
A
Ratio of group capacity to sum of individual capacities
B
Ratio of individual capacity to group capacity
C
Ratio of settlement to load
D
Ratio of skin friction to end bearing
Question 130Single Answer
What is the purpose of a pile load test?
A
Verify pile capacity and settlement
B
Measure soil permeability
C
Calculate consolidation
D
Assess slope stability
Question 131Single Answer
What is the primary property of a fluid?
A
Inability to resist shear stress
B
High compressive strength
C
Fixed shape
D
High rigidity
Question 132Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a fluid?
A
Ratio of fluid density to water density
B
Ratio of fluid viscosity to water viscosity
C
Ratio of fluid pressure to water pressure
D
Ratio of fluid volume to water volume
Question 133Single Answer
What is the total pressure force on a vertical plane surface submerged in a fluid?
A
F = p g h_c A
B
F = p g A
C
F = p h_c A
D
F = p g h_c / A
Question 134Single Answer
Where is the center of pressure located for a vertical plane surface?
A
Below the centroid
B
At the centroid
C
Above the centroid
D
At the surface
Question 135Single Answer
What is the force on a curved surface submerged in a fluid?
A
Sum of horizontal and vertical components
B
Horizontal component only
C
Vertical component only
D
No force
Question 136Single Answer
What is fluid kinematics concerned with?
A
Motion of fluid without considering forces
B
Forces causing fluid motion
C
Fluid properties at rest
D
Energy transfer in fluids
Question 137Single Answer
What is a streamline in fluid flow?
A
Path traced by a fluid particle tangent to velocity
B
Path perpendicular to velocity
C
Path of constant pressure
D
Path of constant density
Question 138Single Answer
What is the condition for irrotational flow?
A
Zero vorticity
B
Constant velocity
C
Zero velocity
D
Constant pressure
Question 139Single Answer
What is the velocity potential in fluid flow?
A
Scalar function whose gradient gives velocity
B
Vector function of pressure
C
Scalar function of density
D
Vector function of vorticity
Question 140Single Answer
What is the stream function used for?
A
Represent two-dimensional incompressible flow
B
Calculate pressure distribution
C
Measure vorticity
D
Determine fluid density
Question 141Single Answer
What is a flownet?
A
Grid of streamlines and equipotential lines
B
Grid of pressure lines
C
Grid of velocity lines
D
Grid of density lines
Question 142Single Answer
What is the property of a flownet?
A
Streamlines and equipotential lines are perpendicular
B
Streamlines are parallel
C
Equipotential lines are parallel
D
Streamlines and equipotential lines are parallel
Question 143Single Answer
What is a source in fluid flow?
A
Point where fluid flows radially outward
B
Point where fluid converges
C
Point of zero velocity
D
Point of constant pressure
Question 144Single Answer
What is a sink in fluid flow?
A
Point where fluid flows radially inward
B
Point where fluid flows outward
C
Point of zero vorticity
D
Point of constant velocity
Question 145Single Answer
What is flow separation in fluid flow?
A
Fluid detaching from a surface due to adverse pressure gradient
B
Fluid merging with a surface
C
Fluid maintaining constant velocity
D
Fluid becoming turbulent
Question 146Single Answer
What is a free vortex?
A
Rotational flow with constant angular velocity
B
Irrotational flow with velocity inversely proportional to radius
C
Flow with no vorticity
D
Flow with constant pressure
Question 147Single Answer
What is a forced vortex?
A
Rotational flow with constant angular velocity
B
Irrotational flow with constant velocity
C
Flow with no vorticity
D
Flow with constant pressure
Question 148Single Answer
What is fluid dynamics concerned with?
A
Forces and energy causing fluid motion
B
Fluid motion without forces
C
Fluid properties at rest
D
Fluid density only
Question 149Single Answer
What is the control volume approach used for?
A
Apply conservation laws to a fixed region
B
Measure fluid density
C
Calculate fluid viscosity
D
Determine fluid temperature
Question 150Single Answer
What is the momentum equation based on?
A
Newton second law
B
Newton first law
C
Newton third law
D
Bernoulli principle
Question 151Single Answer
What is runoff in hydrology defined as?
A
Water that infiltrates into the ground
B
Water that flows over the surface into streams
C
Water stored in reservoirs
D
Water evaporated from the surface
Question 152Single Answer
Which factor most significantly affects runoff estimation?
A
Soil permeability
B
Air temperature
C
Wind speed
D
Cloud cover
Question 153Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of runoff estimation in hydrology?
A
Determine groundwater recharge
B
Design hydraulic structures
C
Measure evaporation rates
D
Calculate soil moisture
Question 154Single Answer
Which method is commonly used for runoff estimation in small catchments?
A
Rational method
B
Unit hydrograph method
C
SCS curve number method
D
Muskingum method
Question 155Single Answer
What is the primary source of runoff in a catchment?
A
Groundwater flow
B
Precipitation
C
Evapotranspiration
D
Infiltration
Question 156Single Answer
Which soil type produces the highest runoff?
A
Sandy soil
B
Loamy soil
C
Clayey soil
D
Gravelly soil
Question 157Single Answer
What is the effect of urbanization on runoff?
A
Decreases runoff
B
Increases runoff
C
No effect
D
Reduces infiltration
Question 158Single Answer
Which parameter is critical for the Rational method of runoff estimation?
A
Time of concentration
B
Base flow
C
Evaporation rate
D
Groundwater storage
Question 159Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of the SCS curve number method?
A
Estimate peak discharge
B
Calculate direct runoff
C
Measure base flow
D
Analyze evaporation
Question 160Single Answer
What is the effect of vegetation cover on runoff?
A
Increases runoff
B
Decreases runoff
C
No effect
D
Increases evaporation
Question 161Single Answer
Which factor is used to estimate runoff in the Rational method?
A
Runoff coefficient
B
Curve number
C
Base flow
D
Hydraulic conductivity
Question 162Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of runoff estimation in flood control?
A
Design irrigation systems
B
Predict flood magnitude
C
Measure groundwater recharge
D
Calculate evaporation
Question 163Single Answer
Which method is used for runoff estimation in large catchments?
A
Rational method
B
SCS curve number method
C
Unit hydrograph method
D
Muskingum method
Question 164Single Answer
What is the effect of increasing rainfall intensity on runoff?
A
Decreases runoff
B
Increases runoff
C
No effect
D
Reduces infiltration
Question 165Single Answer
Which soil condition leads to the lowest runoff?
A
Saturated soil
B
Dry sandy soil
C
Compacted clay
D
Urban pavement
Question 166Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of the runoff coefficient in the Rational method?
A
Quantify runoff proportion
B
Measure infiltration
C
Calculate base flow
D
Estimate evaporation
Question 167Single Answer
Which factor is critical for the SCS curve number method?
A
Time of concentration
B
Base flow
C
Curve number
D
Hydraulic gradient
Question 168Single Answer
What is the effect of increasing slope on runoff?
A
Decreases runoff
B
Increases runoff
C
No effect
D
Reduces infiltration
Question 169Single Answer
Which method is used for runoff estimation in ungauged catchments?
A
Rational method
B
Unit hydrograph method
C
SCS curve number method
D
Muskingum method
Question 170Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of runoff estimation in reservoir design?
A
Calculate evaporation
B
Determine inflow volume
C
Measure groundwater recharge
D
Analyze soil moisture
Question 171Single Answer
What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 172Single Answer
What is the primary structural behavior of a frame under vertical loads?
A
Axial deformation
B
Bending deformation
C
Shear deformation
D
Torsional deformation
Question 173Single Answer
How many plastic hinges are required for collapse in a portal frame with fixed supports?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 174Single Answer
What is the effect of a point load at the crown of a three-hinged arch?
A
Increases horizontal thrust
B
Decreases horizontal thrust
C
No horizontal thrust
D
Causes shear failure
Question 175Single Answer
What is the purpose of special positional reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame near joints?
A
Resist bending moment
B
Prevent shear failure
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Enhance aesthetic appeal
Question 176Single Answer
What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a two-hinged portal frame?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 177Single Answer
What is the collapse mechanism in a fixed beam under uniform load?
A
One plastic hinge
B
Two plastic hinges
C
Three plastic hinges
D
Four plastic hinges
Question 178Single Answer
What is the primary force in the tie of a tied arch?
A
Compression
B
Tension
C
Shear
D
Bending
Question 179Single Answer
What is the purpose of providing stirrups in a reinforced concrete frame?
A
Resist tensile forces
B
Resist shear forces
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Prevent cracking
Question 180Single Answer
What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a two-hinged portal frame?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 181Single Answer
What is the bending moment at the support of a fixed portal frame under uniform load?
A
Zero
B
Maximum
C
Equal to shear force
D
Indeterminate
Question 182Single Answer
What is the number of plastic hinges required for collapse in a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 183Single Answer
What is the effect of unsymmetrical loading on a three-hinged arch?
A
No horizontal thrust
B
Increases horizontal thrust
C
Decreases horizontal thrust
D
Causes torsional failure
Question 184Single Answer
What is the role of bent-up bars in a reinforced concrete frame?
A
Resist tensile forces
B
Resist shear forces
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Prevent buckling
Question 185Single Answer
What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a planar frame with 3 members, 3 joints, and 6 reactions?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 186Single Answer
What is the primary load-carrying mechanism in a fixed arch?
A
Bending
B
Compression
C
Shear
D
Torsion
Question 187Single Answer
What is the collapse load of a propped cantilever beam compared to a simply supported beam?
A
Lower
B
Zero
C
Equal
D
Higher
Question 188Single Answer
What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a fixed beam with an internal hinge?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 189Single Answer
What is the horizontal thrust in a two-hinged arch under uniform load?
A
Zero
B
Maximum at supports
C
Equal to vertical load
D
Indeterminate
Question 190Single Answer
What is the purpose of shear reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame near supports?
A
Resist bending moment
B
Prevent shear cracks
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Enhance ductility
Question 191Single Answer
The main purpose of a plan in civil drawing is?
A
To show the elevation of a building
B
To show sectional details
C
To show the foundation details
D
To show the top view of a building
Question 192Single Answer
Scale used in civil engineering drawings is generally?
A
1:100
B
1:20
C
1:50
D
1:10
Question 193
A plan is drawn at a scale of 1:
Question 194Single Answer
This means?
A
1 unit on plan = 10 units in real
B
1 unit on plan = 25 units in real
C
1 unit on plan = 50 units in real
D
1 unit on plan = 100 units in real
Question 195Single Answer
Which line represents the center line in a plan?
A
Long dash and dot line
B
Chain thin line
C
Continuous thick line
D
Dotted line
Question 196Single Answer
Which type of line shows hidden details in a plan?
A
Thick line
B
Dashed line
C
Center line
D
Border line
Question 197Single Answer
Site plan shows?
A
Only internal details
B
Only elevation view
C
Layout of building and surroundings
D
Structural reinforcement
Question 198Single Answer
The front view of a building is called?
A
Section
B
Elevation
C
Plan
D
Layout
Question 199Single Answer
The drawing that shows the object cut through a plane is called?
A
Plan
B
Section
C
Elevation
D
Site plan
Question 200Single Answer
Which instrument is used for drawing circles and arcs?
A
Divider
B
Scale
C
Protractor
D
Compass
Question 201Single Answer
A plan is drawn using which projection?
A
Isometric
B
Oblique
C
Perspective
D
Orthographic
Question 202Single Answer
The horizontal projection of a building is known as?
A
Plan
B
Elevation
C
Section
D
Site plan
Question 203Single Answer
The north direction is generally shown on the plan to?
A
Identify wall thickness
B
Orient the plan correctly
C
Show sunlight direction
D
Represent foundation
Question 204Single Answer
In a civil drawing, the foundation plan shows?
A
Arrangement of foundations below ground
B
Details of upper floors
C
Only roof layout
D
Plumbing details
Question 205Single Answer
Which line type is used for dimension lines?
A
Thick continuous line
B
Dashed line
C
Thin continuous line
D
Chain line
Question 206Single Answer
The drawing which shows all floors in one view is called?
A
Site plan
B
Section
C
Elevation
D
Key plan
Question 207Single Answer
What does “RCC” stand for in civil drawings?
A
Reinforced Concrete Cement
B
Ready Concrete Compound
C
Reinforced Cement Concrete
D
Regular Cement Concrete
Question 208Single Answer
Which view shows the inside of the structure?
A
Section
B
Elevation
C
Plan
D
Key plan
Question 209Single Answer
The topmost horizontal member of a door frame is called?
A
Head
B
Sill
C
Jamb
D
Lintel
Question 210Single Answer
The line indicating the boundary of the property in a plan is shown by?