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Latest GSSSB Work Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Comprehension, Questions and Its Applications related to Technical Qualification
Question Bank GSSSB Work Assistant Exam - English
Reasoning & Data Interpretation
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 12 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 13 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 14 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 15 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 16 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 17 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 18 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 19 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 20 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69
Q 22 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 23 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 24 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 25 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 26 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 27 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 28 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 29 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 30 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 31 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 32 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 33 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 34 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 35 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 36 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 37 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 38 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 39 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 40 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 41 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 42 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 43 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 44 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 45 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 46 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 47 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 48 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 49 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 50 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
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GSSSB Work Assistant Exam Question Bank Book - English
Constitution of India, Current Affairs & Comprehension
Q 61 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 62 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 63 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 72 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 73 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 74 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 75 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A.Privy Council
B.Supreme Court
C.High Court
D.Federal Court
Q 76 :
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A.Original jurisdiction only
B.Appellate jurisdiction only
C.Advisory jurisdiction only
D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Q 77 :
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A.14 and 7
B.11 and 7
C.15 and 9
D.None of the above
Q 78 :
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A.Government of India Act, 1919
B.Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D.None of the above
Q 79 :
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A.3 June, 1947
B.4 July, 1947
C.15 July, 1947
D.18 July, 1947
Q 80 :
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A.Simon Commission
B.Cripps Mission
C.Cabinet Mission Plan
D.The Mountbatten plan
Q 81 :
Which country adopted the euro as its official currency on January 1, 2026, becoming the 21st member of the eurozone?
A.Romania
B.Bulgaria
C.Croatia
D.Sweden
Q 82 :
Which Pacific island nation was among the first to welcome the New Year 2026 due to its time zone?
A.Fiji
B.Tonga
C.Kiribati
D.Samoa
Q 83 :
In which city did fireworks explode over the Sydney Harbour Bridge to mark the arrival of 2026, despite heightened security?
A.Melbourne
B.Brisbane
C.Sydney
D.Perth
Q 84 :
Which iconic building in Dubai hosted a major fireworks display for New Year's 2026 celebrations?
A.Emirates Towers
B.Burj Khalifa
C.Burj Al Arab
D.Etihad Towers
Q 85 :
What major event began on January 1, 2026, in the sporting world, particularly in tennis?
A.French Open
B.Wimbledon
C.Australian Open
D.US Open
Q 86 :
Which city projected a video mapping light show onto the Arc de Triomphe for New Year's 2026?
A.Rome
B.Paris
C.Berlin
D.Madrid
Q 87 :
On January 1, 2026, which river in Bangkok saw fireworks displays for New Year celebrations?
A.Mekong River
B.Chao Phraya River
C.Irrawaddy River
D.Yangtze River
Q 88 :
Which European country began its presidency of the Council of the European Union on January 1, 2026?
A.Cyprus
B.Hungary
C.Poland
D.Denmark
Q 89 :
What is the common name for the full moon that peaked around early January 2026?
A.Snow Moon
B.Wolf Moon
C.Harvest Moon
D.Blue Moon
Q 90 :
Which global event concluded its extended period on January 6, 2026?
A.Paris Olympics
B.2025 Jubilee
C.COP30
D.FIFA World Cup
Questions and Its Applications related to Technical Qualification
Q 91 :
Which is not a type of shallow foundation?
A.Pad footing
B.Raft
C.Pile
D.Strip
Q 92 :
The OMC in compaction means?
A.Optimum moisture content
B.Original moisture content
C.Over moisture content
D.Optimum mix content
Q 93 :
In expansive soil, foundation design includes?
A.Only sand cushion
B.Shallow footings
C.No special measure
D.Under-reamed piles
Q 94 :
The standard penetration test (SPT) gives?
A.Liquid limit
B.Bearing capacity directly
C.N value for soil strength
D.Plasticity index
Q 95 :
Mat foundation is also called?
A.Raft foundation
B.Isolated footing
C.Combined footing
D.Pile cap
Q 96 :
The shear strength of soil increases with?
A.Increase in normal stress
B.Decrease in water content
C.Both A and B
D.Only density
Q 97 :
Which foundation avoids differential settlement in weak soil?
A.Isolated footing
B.Pad footing
C.Strip footing
D.Raft foundation
Q 98 :
The field CBR is determined by?
A.Plate load test
B.Dynamic cone penetrometer
C.SPT
D.Vane shear
Q 99 :
In cohesive soil, bearing capacity depends mainly on?
A.Cohesion
B.Friction angle
C.Density
D.Grain size
Q 100 :
As per IS 1904, foundations should be designed considering?
A.Soil type, load and settlement
B.Only load
C.Only depth
D.No settlement limit
Q 101 :
The main purpose of damp proofing in buildings is to?
A.Improve appearance
B.Increase strength
C.Reduce cost
D.Prevent entry of moisture from ground
Q 102 :
Which material is commonly used for damp proof course (DPc) at plinth level?
A.Cement mortar
B.Hot bitumen
C.Lime plaster
D.Sand
Q 103 :
The thickness of DPC in brick wall is usually?
A.2 mm
B.50 mm
C.12-20 mm
D.100 mm
Q 104 :
Bitumen felt is used for?
A.Termite proofing
B.Damp proofing horizontal surfaces
C.Fire proofing
D.Sound proofing
Q 105 :
Which treatment prevents rise of moisture through walls?
A.Damp proof course
B.Waterproofing
C.Termite barrier
D.Fire retardant
Q 106 :
Mastic asphalt is used for?
A.Flooring
B.Painting
C.Plastering
D.Damp proofing and waterproofing
Q 107 :
The most effective termite proofing method is?
A.Lime wash
B.Painting wood
C.Chemical barrier in soil
D.Cement plaster
Q 108 :
Which chemical is commonly used for pre-construction termite treatment?
A.Bitumen
B.Chlorpyrifos
C.Cement
D.Lime
Q 109 :
For waterproofing roofs, commonly used material is?
A.Lime mortar
B.Cement slurry
C.Brickbat coba
D.Sand
Q 110 :
Integral waterproofing compound is added to?
A.Paint
B.Concrete mix
C.Plaster only
D.Wood
Q 111 :
Fire proofing of buildings includes use of?
A.Combustible materials
B.Wood only
C.Non-combustible materials like concrete
D.Plastic
Q 112 :
Which paint is used for fire resistance?
A.Intumescent paint
B.Oil paint
C.Distemper
D.Cement paint
Q 113 :
Dampness in building causes?
A.Increased strength
B.Efflorescence and peeling
C.Better insulation
D.No effect
Q 114 :
The DPC should be provided at?
A.Window sill
B.Roof only
C.Plinth level and below ground
D.Door level
Q 115 :
Termite proofing in wood is done by?
A.Cement wash
B.Water
C.Applying creosote oil
D.Sand
Q 116 :
Which is a waterproofing method for basements?
A.Internal plaster
B.External membrane
C.Lime wash
D.Paint only
Q 117 :
Guniting is a method of?
A.Waterproofing
B.Fire proofing
C.Termite control
D.Sound proofing
Q 118 :
The main cause of dampness from ground is?
A.Leakage
B.Rain
C.Capillary action
D.Condensation
Q 119 :
Anti-termite treatment is mandatory as per?
A.Only for concrete
B.No code
C.Only for wood
D.NBC and local codes
Q 120 :
For fire proof doors, material used is?
A.Ordinary plywood
B.Mild steel or fire rated wood
C.Plastic
D.Glass only
Q 121 :
Silicone based sealants are used for?
A.Damp proofing
B.Waterproofing joints
C.Termite
D.Fire
Q 122 :
The horizontal DPC is provided at?
A.Ceiling
B.Roof
C.Floor
D.Plinth level
Q 123 :
Vertical DPC is provided in?
A.Columns
B.Roof
C.Floor
D.Walls near ground
Q 124 :
Which treatment is used for leaking roofs?
A.Distemper
B.Lime wash
C.Cement paint
D.Pressure grouting
Q 125 :
In termite proofing, soil treatment depth is usually?
A.50 cm
B.30 cm
C.1 m
D.No depth
Q 126 :
Fire resistance rating of building elements is given in?
A.Hours
B.Minutes only
C.Days
D.No rating
Q 127 :
Which material provides good fire resistance?
A.Plastic
B.Timber
C.Reinforced concrete
D.Aluminium
Q 128 :
Injection grouting is used for?
A.Termite
B.Waterproofing cracks
C.Fire
D.Sound
Q 129 :
The most common damp proofing material at plinth is?
A.Clay
B.Sand
C.1:4 cement mortar with water proofing compound
D.Lime
Q 130 :
Termites enter building through?
A.Roof
B.Air
C.Water
D.Soil contact
Q 131 :
For waterproofing terraces, IPS (Indian Patent Stone) with?
A.Only cement
B.Brickbat coba and lime
C.Paint
D.No treatment
Q 132 :
Anti-corrosion treatment for steel in buildings includes?
A.No treatment
B.Galvanizing or painting
C.Lime wash
D.Cement only
Q 133 :
Condensation causes dampness due to?
A.Leakage
B.Ground water
C.Rain
D.Temperature difference
Q 134 :
Which is not a waterproofing material?
A.Lime
B.Tar felt
C.Bitumen
D.Polymer membrane
Q 135 :
Pre-construction anti-termite treatment involves?
A.Only wood
B.After construction
C.Treating soil before slab casting
D.No treatment
Q 136 :
Fire proofing increases?
A.Safety during fire
B.Cost only
C.All of these
D.Weight
Q 137 :
Membrane waterproofing uses?
A.Bricks
B.Cement
C.Sand
D.PVC or APP sheets
Q 138 :
The DPC should not be?
A.Discontinuous
B.Continuous
C.Thick
D.Thin
Q 139 :
Which treatment is for basements below water table?
A.No treatment
B.Internal only
C.External tanking
D.Paint
Q 140 :
Wood preservative for termite is?
A.Oil
B.Water
C.Copper chrome arsenic
D.Cement
Q 141 :
Efflorescence is caused by?
A.No moisture
B.High strength
C.Soluble salts in bricks and water
D.Fire
Q 142 :
Which is a common integral waterproofing admixture?
A.Retarder
B.Accelerator
C.Superplasticizer with waterproofer
D.Air entrainer
Q 143 :
Fire load in building is?
A.Height
B.Weight
C.Calorific value of combustibles
D.Area
Q 144 :
For damp proofing in old buildings, method is?
A.Sand filling
B.No method
C.Only paint
D.Electro-osmosis or chemical injection
Q 145 :
Termite shield is?
A.Metal barrier at plinth
B.Plastic
C.Cement
D.Wood
Q 146 :
Building bye-laws are primarily framed to ensure?
A.Aesthetic beauty only
B.Health, safety and welfare of public
C.Cost reduction only
D.Faster construction
Q 147 :
As per National Building Code (NBc) of India, the minimum front open space for residential plots up to 500 mยฒ is generally?
A.3 m
B.1.5 m
C.5 m
D.7.5 m
Q 148 :
The maximum permissible ground coverage for residential buildings in low-rise category as per model bye-laws is often?
A.80%
B.30%
C.50-65%
D.20%
Q 149 :
Building bye-laws regulate which of the following?
A.Interior decoration
B.Only colour of building
C.Furniture layout
D.Height, setbacks, FAR and ventilation
Q 150 :
In NBC, Floor Area Ratio (FAR) is defined as?
A.Plot area / built-up area
B.Total built-up area / plot area
C.Height / width
D.Coverage / height
Q 151 :
The minimum width of internal staircase as per NBC for residential buildings is?
A.2.0 m
B.1.2 m
C.1.5 m
D.0.9 m
Q 152 :
Bye-laws require minimum open space around building for light and ventilation, called?
A.FAR
B.Setbacks or margins
C.Coverage
D.Height restriction
Q 153 :
As per NBC, the minimum height of habitable room in residential building is?
A.2.4 m
B.3.0 m
C.2.75 m
D.3.5 m
Q 154 :
The purpose of building bye-laws includes prevention of?
A.Only aesthetic issues
B.Overcrowding and fire hazards
C.Low cost
D.No prevention
Q 155 :
In residential plots, rear open space is generally?
A.5 m
B.1 m
C.No requirement
D.3 m minimum
Q 156 :
Bye-laws specify maximum height of building based on?
A.No limit
B.Owner's choice
C.Road width and zoning
D.Only plot size
Q 157 :
The minimum area for habitable room as per NBC is?
A.12 mยฒ
B.5 mยฒ
C.9.5 mยฒ
D.7 mยฒ
Q 158 :
Parking requirements in bye-laws are based on?
A.No requirement
B.Built-up area or number of dwellings
C.Only for commercial
D.Plot size only
Q 159 :
In NBC, ventilation shaft for bathrooms must have minimum area?
A.0.5 mยฒ
B.1.5 mยฒ
C.3 mยฒ
D.No shaft
Q 160 :
Bye-laws prohibit construction within?
A.Only roads
B.No prohibition
C.Specified distance from water bodies or monuments
D.Owner's land only
Q 161 :
The maximum permissible FSI/FAR for residential in many urban areas is?
A.Unlimited
B.0.5
C.5.0
D.1.8 to 2.5
Q 162 :
As per bye-laws, balcony projection is allowed up to?
A.1.1 m in front
B.2 m
C.No projection
D.3 m
Q 163 :
Bye-laws require minimum distance between two buildings for fire safety?
A.Based on height and occupancy
B.No distance
C.1 m always
D.10 m
Q 164 :
In residential bye-laws, kitchen must have?
A.Only window
B.No requirement
C.Chimney or exhaust for ventilation
D.No ventilation
Q 165 :
The NBC classifies buildings for bye-law application based on?
A.Colour
B.Occupancy and height
C.Material only
D.Owner
Q 166 :
Bye-laws mandate rainwater harvesting for plots above?
A.10 mยฒ
B.No mandate
C.100-300 mยฒ in many states
D.1000 mยฒ
Q 167 :
Minimum width of common passage in multi-family dwelling is?
5.015 =?