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Question for Gujarat Police Constable - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 180 ยท Questions: 200 ยท Max Marks: 200

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To boost your performance in Gujarat Police Constable exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in Gujarat Police Constable exams.

Latest Gujarat Police Constable Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, Comprehension in Gujarati language, The Constitution of India, Current Affairs, Science & Technology and General Knowledge, History, Cultural Heritage and Geography of Gujarat and Bharat

Question Bank Gujarat Police Constable Exam - English

Reasoning & Data Interpretation

Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 8 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
Q 9 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 10 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
Q 11 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
Q 12 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
Q 13 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 14 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
Q 15 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.Both CAT and OWN
  2. B.Both BRU and INK
  3. C.Only CAT
  4. D.Only INK
  5. E.Only LEG
Q 16 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.

(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 17 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 18 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 19 :
What is the value of x  ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 20 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years  ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 21 :
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 22 :
What is the value of a two-digit number ? 
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 23 :
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 24 :
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 25 :
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.                 
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 26 :
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 27 :
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I รขโ‚ฌโ€น Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 28 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II             (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II             (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II > Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 29 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II            (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II            (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation 
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II > Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 30 :
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
  1. A.Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 31 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
Q 32 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
Q 33 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
Q 34 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 35 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
Q 36 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
Q 37 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
Q 38 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
Q 39 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
Q 40 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
Q 41 :
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
Q 42 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
Q 43 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
Q 44 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
Q 45 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
Q 46 :
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
Q 47 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
Q 48 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
Q 49 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
Q 50 :
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
Q 51 :
16.928 + 24.7582  5.015 =?
  1. A.20   
  2. B.24
  3. C.22
  4. D.26
Q 52 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/4
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
  4. D.5/8
Q 53 :
Which is greater ?
  1. A.11/13
  2. B.12/15
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
Q 54 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
  1. A.0
  2. B.1
  3. C.Same
  4. D.Prime
Q 55 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
  1. A.
    10
  2. B.100
  3. C.1000
  4. D.10000
Q 56 :
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
  1. A.1
  2. B.10
  3. C.Infinite
  4. D.None

     
Q 57 :
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
  1. A.12345
  2. B.1331
  3. C.1234
  4. D.1213
Q 58 :
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
  1. A.1
  2. B.3
  3. C.7
  4. D.9

     
Q 59 :
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
  1. A.4
  2. B.8
  3. C.16
  4. D.32
Q 60 :
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
  1. A.3
  2. B.4
  3. C.5
  4. D.6
     

Comprehension in Gujarati language

Q 61 :
"เชถเชพเช‚เชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชตเชพเชคเชšเซ€เชค
  2. B. เช†เช•เซเชฐเชฎเชฃ
  3. C. เช–เซ‡เชกเซ‚เชค
  4. D. เชงเชฎเชพเชงเชฎ
Q 62 :
"เชตเซเชฏเช•เซเชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เชตเชฟเชฒเซ‹เชฎ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชธเช‚เช—เช เชจ
  2. B. เชตเซเชฏเชตเชธเซเชฅเชพ
  3. C. เชธเช‚เชตเชฟเชฆเชพเชจ
  4. D. เช…เชจเชตเชฐเชค
Q 63 :
"เชตเชฟเช•เชพเชธ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เช…เชญเชฟเชตเซƒเชฆเซเชงเชฟ
  2. B. เชตเชฟเช˜เชŸเชจ
  3. C. เชตเชฟเชฆเซเชฏเชพ
  4. D. เช†เช•เชฐเซเชทเชฃ
Q 64 :
"เชธเซเชฅเชพเชจ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เชตเชฟเชฐเซ‹เชงเซ€ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชงเซ‚เชช
  2. B. เชฆเซ‚เชฐ
  3. C. เชœเช—เซเชฏเชพ
  4. D. เช†เชตเซ‡เชถ
Q 65 :
"เชฎเช‚เชœเชฟเชฒ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เชตเซเชฏเชพเชชเชพเชฐเชฟเช• เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เช—เซ‹เชฒ
  2. B. เชงเชฌเซเชฌเซ
  3. C. เชธเชพเช‚เชœ
  4. D. เช‰เชฆเซเชฆเซ‡เชถ
Q 66 :
"เช–เซ‡เชกเซ‚เชค" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เชชเชฐเซเชฏเชพเชฏ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชฎเชพเชฒเซ€
  2. B. เชฆเชฐเชœเซ€
  3. C. เชฌเชจเชฟเชฏเชพเช‚
  4. D. เชชเซเชฐเชถเชพเชธเชจ
Q 67 :
"เชธเช‚เช—เช เชจ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชธเชฎเซ‚เชน
  2. B. เช›เซ‚เชŸ
  3. C. เชธเชพเชฎเชฐเซเชฅเซเชฏ
  4. D. เชธเชฎเชฏ
Q 68 :
"เชตเซเชฏเชพเชฏเชพเชฎ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เชชเชฐเซเชฏเชพเชฏ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชตเซเชฏเชตเชธเชพเชฏ
  2. B. เชถเชฟเช•เซเชทเชฃ
  3. C. เชธเชคเซเชธเช‚เช—
  4. D. เชชเซเชฐเชตเซƒเชคเซเชคเชฟ
Q 69 :
"เชฎเช‚เชฅเชจ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เช–เซ‹เชฐเชพเช•
  2. B. เช—เซ‹เชณเชพ
  3. C. เชธเช‚เชฏเซ‹เชœเชจ
  4. D. เช›เชกเชพเชจ
Q 70 :
"เช…เชญเชฟเช—เชฎ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เชชเชฐเซเชฏเชพเชฏ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชชเชพเชกเซ‹
  2. B. เชฎเซ€เชคเซเชฐ
  3. C. เชจเชœเซ€เช•
  4. D. เช†เช—เชฎ
Q 71 :
"เชธเชฎเชฏ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชธเชพเช‚เชœ
  2. B. เชธเช‚เช•เชฒเซเชช
  3. C. เชธเชพเชฎเชฏเชฟเช•
  4. D. เชธเชฎเชฏเช—เซเชฐเชน
Q 72 :
"เชชเซเชฐเช—เชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เชชเชฐเซเชฏเชพเชฏ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชธเชฎเซƒเชฆเซเชงเชฟ
  2. B. เชตเชฟเช•เชพเชธ
  3. C. เชชเซเชฐเชฏเชพเชธ
  4. D. เช…เชญเชฟเชตเซƒเชฆเซเชงเชฟ
Q 73 :
"เชชเชฅเชฟเช•" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เชชเชฐเซเชฏเชพเชฏ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชฏเชพเชคเซเชฐเซ€
  2. B. เช—เชพเชฏเช•
  3. C. เช•เซƒเชทเชฟเช•
  4. D. เชฎเชนเชพเชจ
Q 74 :
"เชถเช•เซเชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชธเซ‚เช•เซเชทเซเชฎเชคเชพ
  2. B. เช•เชพเชฐเซเชฏเช•เซเชทเชฎเชคเชพ
  3. C. เชธเชนเชพเชฏ
  4. D. เชชเซเชฐเชฌเชณเชคเชพ
Q 75 :
"เช‰เชคเซเชคเชฐ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชชเซ‚เชฐเซเชต
  2. B. เชฆเช•เซเชทเชฟเชฃ
  3. C. เชชเชถเซเชšเชฟเชฎ
  4. D. เช‰เชคเซเชคเชฐ
Q 76 :
เชธเชฟเช‚เชงเซ เช–เซ€เชฃเชจเซ€ เชธเช‚เชธเซเช•เซƒเชคเชฟ เชฎเซเช–เซเชฏเชคเซเชตเซ‡ เช† เชฆเชฐเชฎเชฟเชฏเชพเชจ เช…เชธเซเชคเชฟเชคเซเชตเชฎเชพเช‚ เช›เซ‡:
  1. A. เช†เชฏเชฐเซเชจ เชฏเซเช—
  2. B. เชชเชฅเซเชฅเชฐ เชฏเซเช—
  3. C. เช•เชพเช‚เชธเชพเชจเซ€ เช‰เช‚เชฎเชฐ
  4. D. เชฎเชงเซเชฏเชฏเซเช—เซ€เชจ เชตเชฏ
Q 77 :
เชจเซ€เชšเซ‡เชจเชพเชฎเชพเช‚เชฅเซ€ เช•เชฏเชพ เชธเชฟเช‚เชงเซ เชตเซ‡เชฒเซ€ เชถเชนเซ‡เชฐเซ‹เชจเซเช‚ เช…เช—เซเชฐเชฃเซ€ เชฒเช•เซเชทเชฃ เช›เซ‡?
  1. A. เช…เชจเชฟเชฏเชฎเชฟเชค เชถเซ‡เชฐเซ€ เชฒเซ‡เช†เช‰เชŸ
  2. B. เชธเซเชตเชšเซเช›เชคเชพ เชชเซเชฐเชฃเชพเชฒเซ€เชจเซ‹ เช…เชญเชพเชต
  3. C. เชชเซเชฐเชฎเชพเชฃเชญเซ‚เชค เช‡เช‚เชŸ เชฌเชพเช‚เชงเช•เชพเชฎ
  4. D. เชฒเชพเช•เชกเชพเชจเชพ เชฌเช‚เชงเชพเชฐเชฃเซ‹
Q 78 :
เช“เช• เชตเซƒเช•เซเชทเชจเซ€ เชถเชพเช–เชพเช“ เชถเซเช‚ เชฎเชณเชคเซ€ เชนเชคเซ€?
  1. A. เชธเชฐเชณ เชฆเซ‹เชฐเชกเชพเช“
  2. B. เช•เช‚เชŸเชพเชณเชพเชœเชจเช• เชถเชธเซเชคเซเชฐ
  3. C. เชฐเซ‡เชถเชฎเซ€ เช˜เซ‹เชกเชพเชจเซ€ เชฒเช—เชพเชฎ
  4. D. เชคเซ€เช•เซเชทเซเชฃ เชคเชฒเชตเชพเชฐเซ‹
Q 79 :
เชฒเซ‹เช•เซ‡เชŸเชจเซ€ เช…เช‚เชฆเชฐ เชถเซเช‚ เชนเชคเซเช‚?
  1. A. เชเช• เชจเชพเชจเซ€ เช•เซ€
  2. B. เชธเชพเชฐเชพเชนเชจเซ€ เชฎเชพเชคเชพเชจเซ€ เชคเชธเชตเซ€เชฐ
  3. C. เชคเซ‡เชจเซ€ เชฆเชพเชฆเซ€เชจเซเช‚ เชเช• เชจเชพเชจเซเช‚ เชšเชฟเชคเซเชฐ
  4. D. เชตเชพเชณเชจเซ‹ เชเช• เชฒเซ‹เช•
Q 80 :
เชธเชพเชฐเชพเชน เชฒเซ‹เช•เซ‡เชŸ เช•เซเชฏเชพเช‚เชฅเซ€ เช—เซเชฎเชพเชตเซเชฏเซ‹?
  1. A. เชถเชพเชณเชพเชฎเชพเช‚
  2. B. เช˜เชฐเซ‡
  3. C. เช‰เชฆเซเชฏเชพเชจเชฎเชพเช‚
  4. D. เชธเซเชŸเซ‹เชฐ เชชเชฐ

The Constitution of India

Q 81 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1915
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 82 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 83 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.None of the above
Q 84 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
  1. A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 85 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
  1. A.Privy Council
  2. B.Supreme Court
  3. C.High Court
  4. D.Federal Court
Q 86 :
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
  1. A.Original jurisdiction only
  2. B.Appellate jurisdiction only
  3. C.Advisory jurisdiction only
  4. D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Q 87 :
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
  1. A.14 and 7
  2. B.11 and 7
  3. C.15 and 9
  4. D.None of the above
Q 88 :
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
  1. A.Government of India Act, 1919
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
  4. D.None of the above
Q 89 :
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
  1. A.3 June, 1947
  2. B.4 July, 1947
  3. C.15 July, 1947
  4. D.18 July, 1947
Q 90 :
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
  1. A.Simon Commission
  2. B.Cripps Mission
  3. C.Cabinet Mission Plan
  4. D.The Mountbatten plan
Q 91 :
In which year Mayor's Courts were introduced in three Presidency Towns in India ?
  1. A.1726
  2. B.1772
  3. C.1774
  4. D.1781
Q 92 :
On whose recommendation amongst the following the Constituent Assembly was constituted ?
  1. A.Cripps Mission
  2. B.Webel Mission
  3. C.Lord Mountbatten
  4. D.Cabinet Mission Plan
Q 93 :
Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constitutent Assembly ?
  1. A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  2. B.Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
  3. C.Sr. B.N. Rau
  4. D.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q 94 :
The first Constituent Assembly Meeting held on 9.12.46 was presided over by -
  1. A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. B.Shri S.N. Sinha
  3. C.Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
  4. D.None of the above
Q 95 :
Who among the following was the President of Constituent Assembly ?
  1. A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. B.Sardar Patel
  3. C.Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
  4. D.Pt. J. Nehru
Q 96 :
Who was the first Prsident of Constituent Assembly of India ?
  1. A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  2. B.Dr. K. N. Katju
  3. C.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  4. D.C. Rajagopalachari
Q 97 :
The number of the members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution were
  1. A.7
  2. B.8
  3. C.1
  4. D.5
Q 98 :
Who among the following was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee ?
`
  1. A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  2. B.Motilal Nehru
  3. C.M.K. Gandhi
  4. D.Sardar Patel
Q 99 :
The members of the Constituent Assembly were -
  1. A.Elected directly by the people
  2. B.Nominated by the Indian National Congress
  3. C.Delegate of Indian princes
  4. D.Mainly elected by the provincial Asemblies
Q 100 :
When was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held ?
  1. A.8th December
  2. B.9th December
  3. C.10th December
  4. D.12th December
Q 101 :
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on -
  1. A.9th December, 1946
  2. B.15th August, 1947
  3. C.26th December, 1949
  4. D.10th December, 1948
Q 102 :
The task of making the Constitution was over on -
  1. A.26th November, 1949
  2. B.26th January, 1950
  3. C.15th August, 1947
  4. D.25th November, 1949
Q 103 :
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on -
  1. A.November 25, 1949
  2. B.November 29, 1949
  3. C.November 26, 1949
  4. D.November 27, 1949
Q 104 :
The Constitution of India, as framed by the Constituent Assembly, was finally adopted and enacted on -
  1. A.15th August, 1947
  2. B.26th November, 1949
  3. C.30th January, 1949
  4. D.26th January, 1950
Q 105 :
On which one of the following dates, the Constitution of India was adopted and finalized by the Constituent Assembly -
  1. A.26th January, 1950
  2. B.26th November, 1949
  3. C.26th November, 1950
  4. D.26th January, 1948
Q 106 :
Who adopted the constitution of India ?
  1. A.Governor General
  2. B.British Crown
  3. C.Constituent Assembly
  4. D.Indian Parliament
Q 107 :
On which date 'Law Day' is celebrated in India ?
  1. A.26th November
  2. B.28th October
  3. C.2nd October
  4. D.15th August
Q 108 :
 The original Constitution of India contains :
  1. A.Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Raja Ravi Verma
  2. B.Several paintings created by a group of painters led by S.H. Raza
  3. C.Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Jamini Roy
  4. D.Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Nandalal Bose
Q 109 :
Who was the Chairman of the first Commission on review of the Indian Constitution ?
  1. A.Justice Venkatachaliah
  2. B.Justice Hidayatullah
  3. C.Justice A.M. Ahmadi
  4. D.Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
Q 110 :
On which date the National Anthem was adopted by the constituent Assembly ?
  1. A.1st January 1950
  2. B.24th January 1950
  3. C.26th January 1950
  4. D.26th November 1949

Current Affairs, Science & Technology and General Knowledge

Q 111 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 112 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 113 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 114 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 115 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 116 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 117 :

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

  1. A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
  2. B.Raskhan
  3. C.Rich Khusrow
  4. D.Rich Hasan
Q 118 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
  1. A.badminton
  2. B.basketball
  3. C.football
  4. D.archery
Q 119 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
  1. A.1946
  2. B.1947
  3. C.1948
  4. D.1950
Q 120 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
  1. A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  2. B.Swami Vivekananda
  3. C.Rabindranath Tagore
  4. D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 121 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
  1. A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
  2. B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
  3. C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
  4. D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 122 :
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
  1. A.BARC
  2. B.ISRO
  3. C.DRDO
  4. D.HAL
Q 123 :
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
  1. A.1975
  2. B.1965
  3. C.1980
  4. D.1990
Q 124 :
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
  1. A.INSAT-1A
  2. B.Aryabhata
  3. C.Rohini
  4. D.Bhaskara
Q 125 :
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
  1. A.Dhruva
  2. B.Kamini
  3. C.Apsara
  4. D.Kalpakkam
Q 126 :
Which Indian space mission successfully sent a probe to Mars in its first attempt?
  1. A.Chandrayaan-1
  2. B.Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission)
  3. C.Chandrayaan-2
  4. D.Gaganyaan
Q 127 :
What was Indiaโ€™s first nuclear test code-named?
  1. A.Operation Shakti
  2. B.Pokhran-I
  3. C.Operation Smiling Buddha
  4. D.Operation Parakram
Q 128 :
Who is considered the father of the Indian space program?
  1. A.APJ Abdul Kalam
  2. B.Homi Bhabha
  3. C.Vikram Sarabhai
  4. D.Satish Dhawan
Q 129 :
What is the name of India's first supercomputer?
  1. A.Param 8000
  2. B.Vikram 2000
  3. C.Aditya
  4. D.Aryabhata
Q 130 :
The first Indian satellite to be placed in geosynchronous orbit is:
  1. A.GSAT-1
  2. B.Rohini
  3. C.INSAT-1A
  4. D.Aryabhata
Q 131 :
Which Indian space mission discovered water on the Moon?
  1. A.Chandrayaan-1
  2. B.Mangalyaan
  3. C.Astrosat
  4. D.Chandrayaan-2
Q 132 :
Which organization in India is responsible for developing defense technologies?
  1. A.ISRO
  2. B.DRDO
  3. C.BARC
  4. D.CSIR
Q 133 :
In which year did India launch its first Moon mission, Chandrayaan-1?
  1. A.2005
  2. B.2008
  3. C.2011
  4. D.2014
Q 134 :
Which Indian space mission aimed to land a rover on the Moonโ€™s surface?
  1. A.Chandrayaan-1
  2. B.Mangalyaan
  3. C.Chandrayaan-2
  4. D.Gaganyaan
Q 135 :
India's first indigenous aircraft carrier is named:
  1. A.INS Viraat
  2. B.INS Vikrant
  3. C.INS Shakti
  4. D.INS Sahyadri
Q 136 :
What campaign was launched by Rajasthan Chief Minister Bhajan Lal Sharma on May 26, 2026, for water conservation?
  1. A.Jal Shakti Mission
  2. B.Har Ghar Jal Campaign
  3. C.Vande Ganga Jal Sanrakshan Jan Abhiyan
  4. D.Amrit Jal Yojana
Q 137 :
The Vande Ganga Jal Sanrakshan Jan Abhiyan aims to increase Rajasthanโ€™s water holding capacity by what percentage before the monsoon?
  1. A.10%
  2. B.20%
  3. C.15%
  4. D.25%
Q 138 :
Where was the Vande Ganga Jal Sanrakshan Jan Abhiyan formally launched?
  1. A.Jaipur
  2. B.Bisalpur Dam area
  3. C.Udaipur
  4. D.Jodhpur
Q 139 :
Rajasthan possesses approximately what percentage of Indiaโ€™s surface water resources?
  1. A.4.2%
  2. B.2.5%
  3. C.1.2%
  4. D.5.8%
Q 140 :
Which Chief Minister launched the Vande Ganga Jal Sanrakshan Jan Abhiyan?
  1. A.Ashok Gehlot
  2. B.Vasundhara Raje
  3. C.Bhajan Lal Sharma
  4. D.Diya Kumari
Q 141 :
On which occasion was the Vande Ganga Jal Sanrakshan Jan Abhiyan launched?
  1. A.World Environment Day
  2. B.Akshaya Tritiya
  3. C.Ganga Dashami
  4. D.Rajasthan Day
Q 142 :
Which Union Minister announced the revival of the Jal Jeevan Mission in Rajasthan?
  1. A.Nitin Gadkari
  2. B.Dharmendra Pradhan
  3. C.Shivraj Singh Chouhan
  4. D.Gajendra Singh Shekhawat
Q 143 :
How much allocation was approved for the revival of the Jal Jeevan Mission in Rajasthan?
  1. A.โ‚น2,500 crore
  2. B.โ‚น3,800 crore
  3. C.โ‚น4,800 crore
  4. D.โ‚น6,000 crore
Q 144 :
The Jal Jeevan Mission primarily focuses on providing what?
  1. A.Rural roads
  2. B.Tap water connections
  3. C.Solar energy
  4. D.Employment opportunities
Q 145 :
Which state bird conservation initiative was announced in Rajasthan in May 2026?
  1. A.Godawan Diwas
  2. B.Sarus Conservation Mission
  3. C.Peacock Protection Scheme
  4. D.Desert Wildlife Campaign
Q 146 :
Godawan is the local name of which bird?
  1. A.Sarus Crane
  2. B.Great Indian Bustard
  3. C.Indian Peacock
  4. D.Demoiselle Crane
Q 147 :
Rajasthan will observe Godawan Diwas annually on which date?
  1. A.May 1
  2. B.May 11
  3. C.May 21
  4. D.May 31
Q 148 :
Which minister announced the annual observance of Godawan Diwas?
  1. A.Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
  2. B.Kirodi Lal Meena
  3. C.Madan Dilawar
  4. D.Sanjay Sharma
Q 149 :
Godawan Diwas was first celebrated in which district?
  1. A.Bikaner
  2. B.Jodhpur
  3. C.Jaisalmer
  4. D.Barmer
Q 150 :
Godawan is the state bird of which state?
  1. A.Gujarat
  2. B.Rajasthan
  3. C.Haryana
  4. D.Punjab

History, Cultural Heritage and Geography of Gujarat and Bharat

Q 151 :
Whats the capital city of Gujarat?
  1. A.Ahmedabad
  2. B.Surat
  3. C.Gandhinagar
  4. D.Vadodara
Q 152 :
Which national parkn Gujarats famous for Asiatic lions?
  1. A.Gir National Park
  2. B.Ranthambore National Park
  3. C.Kanha National Park
  4. D.Bandipur National Park
Q 153 :
Which river flows through the city of Ahmedabad?
  1. A.Sabarmati
  2. B.Tapi
  3. C.Narmada
  4. D.Mahi
Q 154 :
Whats the official language of Gujarat?
  1. A.Gujarati
  2. B.Hindi
  3. C.Marathi
  4. D.Konkani
Q 155 :
Which dance forms native to Gujarat?
  1. A.Garba
  2. B.Bhangra
  3. C.Lavani
  4. D.Kathakali
Q 156 :
Which festivals celebrated with great enthusiasmn Gujarat?
  1. A.Diwali
  2. B.Navratri
  3. C.Holi
  4. D.Pongal
Q 157 :
The White Desert, also known as the Great Rann of Kutch,s locatedn which district of Gujarat?
  1. A.Kutch
  2. B.Surat
  3. C.Rajkot
  4. D.Vadodara
Q 158 :
Whats the largest cityn Gujarat by population?
  1. A.Surat
  2. B.Ahmedabad
  3. C.Vadodara
  4. D.Rajkot
Q 159 :
Which citys known as the "Diamond City" of Gujarat?
  1. A.Surat
  2. B.Rajkot
  3. C.Bhavnagar
  4. D.Jamnagar
Q 160 :
Whats the main agricultural product of Gujarat?
  1. A.Rice
  2. B.Wheat
  3. C.Cotton
  4. D.Sugarcane
Q 161 :
Which Indus Valley site is famous for its dockyard?
  1. A.Harappa
  2. B.Mohenjo-daro
  3. C.Lothal
  4. D.Kalibangan
Q 162 :
The Great Bath, a remarkable structure of the Indus Valley Civilisation, was discovered at:
  1. A.Harappa
  2. B.Mohenjo-daro
  3. C.Lothal
  4. D.Dholavira
Q 163 :
The script of the Indus Valley Civilisation is:
  1. A.Brahmi
  2. B.Kharosthi
  3. C.Pictographic and Undeciphered
  4. D.Sanskrit
Q 164 :
Which metal was NOT known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
  1. A.Copper
  2. B.Bronze
  3. C.Gold
  4. D.Iron
Q 165 :
The figure of a deity, often identified as 'Pashupati Mahadeva', is depicted on seals found at Indus Valley sites. Which animals are typically shown surrounding the deity?
  1. A.Lion, Horse, Bull, Elephant
  2. B.Elephant, Tiger, Rhinoceros, Buffalo
  3. C.Cow, Deer, Goat, Tiger
  4. D.Horse, Bear, Wolf, Rhinoceros
Q 166 :
Which Indus Valley site in Gujarat is known for its unique water management system and a large inscription often referred to as a signboard?
  1. A.Lothal
  2. B.Surkotada
  3. C.Rangpur
  4. D.Dholavira
Q 167 :
Evidence of ploughed fields has been found at which Indus Valley site?
  1. A.Mohenjo-daro
  2. B.Chanhudaro
  3. C.Kalibangan
  4. D.Banawali
Q 168 :
The Indus Valley people primarily worshipped:
  1. A.Forces of Nature
  2. B.Trimurti (Brahma, Vishnu, Shiva)
  3. C.Mother Goddess and Pashupati
  4. D.Agni and Indra
Q 169 :
What was the most common building material used in Harappan cities?
  1. A.Stone
  2. B.Wood
  3. C.Baked Bricks
  4. D.Mud Bricks
Q 170 :
The famous bronze statue of the 'Dancing Girl' was excavated from:
  1. A.Harappa
  2. B.Lothal
  3. C.Mohenjo-daro
  4. D.Kalibangan
Q 171 :
The earliest Veda, containing hymns primarily dedicated to nature gods, is:
  1. A.Samaveda
  2. B.Yajurveda
  3. C.Atharvaveda
  4. D.Rigveda
Q 172 :
The term 'Sabha' and 'Samiti' in the Rigvedic period refer to:
  1. A.Types of sacrifices
  2. B.Two important rivers
  3. C.Popular assemblies
  4. D.Classes of priests
Q 173 :
Which statement best describes the economy of the Early Vedic (Rigvedic) period?
  1. A.Primarily agricultural with extensive trade networks
  2. B.Primarily pastoral and nomadic, with subsidiary agriculture
  3. C.Urban-based trade and crafts dominated
  4. D.Based solely on hunting and gathering
Q 174 :
The Upanishads are primarily texts dealing with:
  1. A.Ritualistic procedures
  2. B.Laws of social conduct
  3. C.Philosophical and metaphysical speculation
  4. D.Hymns and chants
Q 175 :
The Later Vedic period saw the shift of the geographical focus of Aryan culture from the Sapta Sindhu region to the:
  1. A.Ganga-Yamuna Doab
  2. B.Deccan Plateau
  3. C.Malwa Plateau
  4. D.Southern Peninsula
Q 176 :
Which God lost his prominence from the Rigvedic to the Later Vedic period?
  1. A.Prajapati
  2. B.Vishnu
  3. C.Rudra (Shiva)
  4. D.Indra
Q 177 :
The term 'Gotra', which emerged prominently in the Later Vedic period, signifies:
  1. A.A unit of currency
  2. B.A territorial division
  3. C.Lineage or clan descending from a common ancestor
  4. D.A type of sacrifice
Q 178 :
The 'Gayatri Mantra' is contained in which Veda?
  1. A.Samaveda
  2. B.Yajurveda
  3. C.Atharvaveda
  4. D.Rigveda
Q 179 :
The concept of 'Ashramas' (stages of life - Brahmacharya, Grihastha, Vanaprastha, Sanyasa) fully developed during the:
  1. A.Early Rigvedic Period
  2. B.Later Vedic Period
  3. C.Mauryan Period
  4. D.Gupta Period
Q 180 :
According to Jain tradition, who was the first Tirthankara?
  1. A.Parshvanatha
  2. B.Mahavira
  3. C.Rishabhanatha (Adinatha)
  4. D.Neminatha
Q 181 :
What is the largest object in our solar system?
  1. A.Earth
  2. B.Moon
  3. C.Sun
  4. D.Jupiter
Q 182 :
Which motion of the Earth causes day and night?
  1. A.Revolution
  2. B.Rotation
  3. C.Precession
  4. D.Nutation
Q 183 :
What is the Earth's path around the Sun called?
  1. A.Axis
  2. B.Orbit
  3. C.Equator
  4. D.Meridian
Q 184 :
What is the standard time based on?
  1. A.Local time
  2. B.Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)
  3. C.Solar time
  4. D.Sidereal time
Q 185 :
What causes the seasons on Earth?
  1. A.Earth's rotation
  2. B.Earth's revolution and axial tilt
  3. C.Solar flares
  4. D.Lunar phases
Q 186 :
What is the Earth's innermost layer called?
  1. A.Crust
  2. B.Mantle
  3. C.Core
  4. D.Lithosphere
Q 187 :
Which of the following is a major landform?
  1. A.Valley
  2. B.Mountain
  3. C.Plateau
  4. D.All of the above
Q 188 :
What is the term for the average weather conditions in a region over a long period?
  1. A.Weather
  2. B.Climate
  3. C.Meteorology
  4. D.Hydrology
Q 189 :
What are large bodies of air with uniform temperature and humidity called?
  1. A.Fronts
  2. B.Air masses
  3. C.Cyclones
  4. D.Anticyclones
Q 190 :
What is the boundary between two air masses called?
  1. A.Cyclone
  2. B.Front
  3. C.Anticyclone
  4. D.Isotherm
Q 191 :
Which atmospheric disturbance is characterized by low pressure and strong winds?
  1. A.Anticyclone
  2. B.Cyclone
  3. C.Front
  4. D.Isotherm
Q 192 :
What is the long-term change in global or regional climate patterns called?
  1. A.Weather variation
  2. B.Climate change
  3. C.Atmospheric disturbance
  4. D.Hydrological cycle
Q 193 :
What is the term for the study of the physical, chemical, and biological aspects of the oceans?
  1. A.Geology
  2. B.Oceanography
  3. C.Meteorology
  4. D.Hydrology
Q 194 :
What is the term for the continuous movement of water on, above, and below the surface of the Earth?
  1. A.Water cycle
  2. B.Hydrological cycle
  3. C.Ocean currents
  4. D.Evaporation
Q 195 :
Which of the following is a hydrological disaster?
  1. A.Earthquake
  2. B.Flood
  3. C.Volcano
  4. D.Landslide
Q 196 :
What are resources found on the ocean floor called?
  1. A.Continental resources
  2. B.Marine resources
  3. C.Terrestrial resources
  4. D.Atmospheric resources
Q 197 :
What is the term for the Earth's solid outer layer?
  1. A.Atmosphere
  2. B.Lithosphere
  3. C.Hydrosphere
  4. D.Biosphere
Q 198 :
What is the term for the Earth's water bodies?
  1. A.Atmosphere
  2. B.Lithosphere
  3. C.Hydrosphere
  4. D.Biosphere
Q 199 :
What is the term for the Earth's gaseous layer?
  1. A.Atmosphere
  2. B.Lithosphere
  3. C.Hydrosphere
  4. D.Biosphere
Q 200 :
Which gas is essential for combustion?
  1. A.Nitrogen
  2. B.Oxygen
  3. C.Carbon dioxide
  4. D.Argon
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