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Question Bank

Gujarat Police SI Motor Transport Exam - English

Duration: 180 ยท Questions: 210 ยท Max Marks: 210 ยท Language: 1

View Gujarat Police Sub Inspector (Motor Transport) 2026 Exam Page

Reasoning & Data Interpretation

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
12
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
13
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
14
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
15
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
16
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.

(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
17
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
18
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
19
What is the value of x  ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
20
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years  ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
21
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
22
What is the value of a two-digit number ? 
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
23
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
24
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
25
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.                 
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
26
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
27
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I รขโ‚ฌโ€น Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
28
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II             (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II             (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II > Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
29
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II            (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II            (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation 
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II > Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
30
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
  1. A.Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Quantitative Aptitude

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
11
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
12
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
13
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
14
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
15
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
16
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
17
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
18
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
19
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
20
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
21
Chemistry but not in Physics.
  1. A.318
  2. B.198
  3. C.213 
  4. D.206
22
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
  1. A.558   
  2. B.718
  3. C.628  
  4. D.None of these
23
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
  1. A.20%  
  2. B.25%
  3. C.30%  
  4. D.40%
24
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
  1. A.19%  
  2. B.31%
  3. C.44%
  4. D.None of these
25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
  1. A.38% 
  2. B.48%
  3. C.51%  
  4. D.None of these
26
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
  1. A.4%
  2. B.3%
  3. C.1%  
  4. D.None of these
27
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A รกยดโ€“ (A รกยดโ€” B) equal to ?
  1. A.Complement of A 
  2. B.Complement of B
  3. C.B   
  4. D.A
28
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
  1. A.10%    
  2. B.15%
  3. C.20%  
  4. D.25%
29
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
  1. A.25%   
  2. B.100%
  3. C.75%   
  4. D.0%
30
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
  1. A.15 
  2. B.25
  3. C.40 
  4. D.75

Constitution, Current Affairs, Gujarati & English Comprehension

1
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
2
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
3
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A. presented , stay
  2. B.introduced , keep
  3. C.announce , make
  4. D.created , let
  5. E.proclaimed , hold
4
Assets
  1. A.liabilities
  2. B.responsibilities
  3. C.estates
  4. D.profits
5
Affidavit
  1. A. Affirmation
  2. B.Slander
  3. C.Oath
  4. D.Testimony
6
"เชถเชพเช‚เชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชตเชพเชคเชšเซ€เชค
  2. B. เช†เช•เซเชฐเชฎเชฃ
  3. C. เช–เซ‡เชกเซ‚เชค
  4. D. เชงเชฎเชพเชงเชฎ
7
"เชตเซเชฏเช•เซเชคเชฟ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เชตเชฟเชฒเซ‹เชฎ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชธเช‚เช—เช เชจ
  2. B. เชตเซเชฏเชตเชธเซเชฅเชพ
  3. C. เชธเช‚เชตเชฟเชฆเชพเชจ
  4. D. เช…เชจเชตเชฐเชค
8
"เชตเชฟเช•เชพเชธ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เช…เชญเชฟเชตเซƒเชฆเซเชงเชฟ
  2. B. เชตเชฟเช˜เชŸเชจ
  3. C. เชตเชฟเชฆเซเชฏเชพ
  4. D. เช†เช•เชฐเซเชทเชฃ
9
"เชธเซเชฅเชพเชจ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซเช‚ เชตเชฟเชฐเซ‹เชงเซ€ เชถเชฌเซเชฆ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เชงเซ‚เชช
  2. B. เชฆเซ‚เชฐ
  3. C. เชœเช—เซเชฏเชพ
  4. D. เช†เชตเซ‡เชถ
10
"เชฎเช‚เชœเชฟเชฒ" เชถเชฌเซเชฆเชจเซ‹ เชตเซเชฏเชพเชชเชพเชฐเชฟเช• เช…เชฐเซเชฅ เชถเซเช‚ เช›เซ‡ ?
  1. A. เช—เซ‹เชฒ
  2. B. เชงเชฌเซเชฌเซ
  3. C. เชธเชพเช‚เชœ
  4. D. เช‰เชฆเซเชฆเซ‡เชถ
11
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1915
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.The Government of India Act, 1935
12
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
13
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.None of the above
14
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
  1. A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
15
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
  1. A.Privy Council
  2. B.Supreme Court
  3. C.High Court
  4. D.Federal Court
16
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
  1. A.Original jurisdiction only
  2. B.Appellate jurisdiction only
  3. C.Advisory jurisdiction only
  4. D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
17
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
  1. A.14 and 7
  2. B.11 and 7
  3. C.15 and 9
  4. D.None of the above
18
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
  1. A.Government of India Act, 1919
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
  4. D.None of the above
19
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
  1. A.3 June, 1947
  2. B.4 July, 1947
  3. C.15 July, 1947
  4. D.18 July, 1947
20
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
  1. A.Simon Commission
  2. B.Cripps Mission
  3. C.Cabinet Mission Plan
  4. D.The Mountbatten plan
21
Which platform was launched by the Gujarat government in partnership with Meta to provide citizen services through WhatsApp?
  1. A.Jan Seva Connect
  2. B.Gujarat Digital Mitra
  3. C.Smart Gujarat Portal
  4. D.WhatsApp Governance Services
22
How many citizen-centric services were initially made available through the Gujarat governmentโ€“Meta initiative?
  1. A.20
  2. B.15
  3. C.10
  4. D.25
23
Which city remained the administrative center of major government announcements in Gujarat during May 2026?
  1. A.Gandhinagar
  2. B.Rajkot
  3. C.Vadodara
  4. D.Surat
24
Which sector received a major boost through new state-level policy initiatives in May 2026?
  1. A.Fisheries
  2. B.Education Infrastructure
  3. C.Aviation
  4. D.Mining
25
What amount was approved by the Gujarat government for new schools and educational infrastructure?
  1. A.โ‚น150 crore
  2. B.โ‚น330 crore
  3. C.โ‚น220 crore
  4. D.โ‚น500 crore
26
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
  1. A.July 1, 2026
  2. B.June 30, 2026
  3. C.July 2, 2026
  4. D.June 29, 2026
27
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
  1. A.Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
  2. B.Chandrayaan-4
  3. C.Gaganyaan crewed mission
  4. D.Mars Orbiter Mission-2
28
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
  1. A.Gukesh D
  2. B.Praggnanandhaa R
  3. C.Harshavardhan G.B.
  4. D.Arjun Erigaisi
29
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
  1. A.Merger with SBI
  2. B.Merger into a single power financing entity
  3. C.Merger with NTPC
  4. D.Merger with IREDA
30
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
  1. A.Lakhpati Didi App
  2. B.Digital India Rural Scheme
  3. C.PM Kisan Drone Yojana
  4. D.SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book

Subject Specific Question (Motor Transport)

1
Which curve is generated by a point on the circumference of a circle rolling along a straight line?
  1. A.Cycloid
  2. B.Ellipse
  3. C.Parabola
  4. D.Hyperbola
2
Which conic section is obtained when a plane cuts a cone parallel to one of its generators?
  1. A.Circle
  2. B.Parabola
  3. C.Ellipse
  4. D.Hyperbola
3
The eccentricity of a parabola is equal to?
  1. A.Zero
  2. B.0.5
  3. C.Greater than 1
  4. D.1
4
The eccentricity of an ellipse is?
  1. A.Less than 1
  2. B.Equal to 1
  3. C.Greater than 1
  4. D.Infinite
5
The eccentricity of a hyperbola is?
  1. A.Greater than 1
  2. B.Less than 1
  3. C.Equal to 1
  4. D.Zero
6
A helix is generated when a point moves around a cylinder while simultaneously moving?
  1. A.Radially
  2. B.Along a diameter
  3. C.Perpendicular to its axis
  4. D.Parallel to its axis
7
The curve traced by the end of a taut string unwound from a circle is called?
  1. A.Cycloid
  2. B.Spiral
  3. C.Epicycloid
  4. D.Involute
8
An epicycloid is generated when a circle rolls?
  1. A.Inside another circle
  2. B.Outside another circle
  3. C.Along a straight line
  4. D.Along an ellipse
9
A hypocycloid is generated when a circle rolls?
  1. A.Outside another circle
  2. B.On a parabola
  3. C.Along a straight line
  4. D.Inside another circle
10
The horizontal plane of projection is abbreviated as?
  1. A.VP
  2. B.AP
  3. C.PP
  4. D.HP
11
The vertical plane of projection is abbreviated as?
  1. A.VP
  2. B.HP
  3. C.GP
  4. D.CP
12
The intersection of HP and VP is known as?
  1. A.Projector
  2. B.Ground plane
  3. C.Profile line
  4. D.Reference line XY
13
In first-angle projection, the object is assumed to be placed in which quadrant?
  1. A.Fourth quadrant
  2. B.Second quadrant
  3. C.Third quadrant
  4. D.First quadrant
14
In third-angle projection, the object is assumed to be placed in which quadrant?
  1. A.First quadrant
  2. B.Second quadrant
  3. C.Fourth quadrant
  4. D.Third quadrant
15
A point situated above HP and in front of VP lies in which quadrant?
  1. A.First
  2. B.Second
  3. C.Third
  4. D.Fourth
16
A point below HP and behind VP lies in which quadrant?
  1. A.Third
  2. B.Second
  3. C.First
  4. D.Fourth
17
If a line is parallel to HP, its true length is visible in which view?
  1. A.Top view
  2. B.Front view
  3. C.Side view only
  4. D.Auxiliary view only
18
If a line is parallel to VP, its true length is obtained in?
  1. A.Top view
  2. B.Front view
  3. C.Bottom view
  4. D.Plan only
19
A line perpendicular to HP appears as what in top view?
  1. A.True length
  2. B.Inclined line
  3. C.Circle
  4. D.Point
20
A line perpendicular to VP appears as a point in?
  1. A.Top view
  2. B.Side view
  3. C.Front view
  4. D.Auxiliary view
21
When a plane surface is parallel to HP, its true shape is seen in?
  1. A.Front view
  2. B.Perspective view
  3. C.Side view
  4. D.Top view
22
When a plane surface is parallel to VP, its true shape appears in?
  1. A.Bottom view
  2. B.Top view
  3. C.Front view
  4. D.Plan only
23
Orthographic projection uses projectors that are?
  1. A.Parallel and perpendicular to projection plane
  2. B.Diverging
  3. C.Converging
  4. D.Curved
24
In first-angle projection, the top view is generally drawn?
  1. A.Above front view
  2. B.Left of front view
  3. C.Below front view
  4. D.On the front view
25
In third-angle projection, the top view is generally placed?
  1. A.Below front view
  2. B.Above front view
  3. C.Behind front view
  4. D.At 45ยฐ to front view
26
In first-angle projection, the right-side view is placed on which side of the front view?
  1. A.Right side
  2. B.Below
  3. C.Above
  4. D.Left side
27
Hidden edges in engineering drawing are represented by?
  1. A.Thick continuous lines
  2. B.Thin continuous lines
  3. C.Chain thick lines
  4. D.Dashed lines
28
Centre lines are generally represented by?
  1. A.Thick continuous lines
  2. B.Zigzag lines
  3. C.Freehand lines
  4. D.Chain thin lines
29
Which projection represents a three-dimensional object in a single view?
  1. A.Orthographic projection
  2. B.Sectional elevation
  3. C.First-angle projection
  4. D.Isometric projection
30
The angle between any two isometric axes is?
  1. A.60ยฐ
  2. B.90ยฐ
  3. C.150ยฐ
  4. D.120ยฐ
31
In an isometric drawing, the two receding axes are normally drawn at what angle to the horizontal?
  1. A.15ยฐ
  2. B.30ยฐ
  3. C.45ยฐ
  4. D.60ยฐ
32
In an isometric projection, lengths measured along isometric axes are?
  1. A.Enlarged
  2. B.Reduced compared with true lengths
  3. C.Doubled
  4. D.Unchanged in every method
33
An isometric drawing made using true lengths is generally?
  1. A.Smaller than isometric projection
  2. B.Two-dimensional
  3. C.Equal to perspective projection
  4. D.Larger than isometric projection
34
A circle lying on an isometric plane appears as?
  1. A.Circle
  2. B.Parabola
  3. C.Hyperbola
  4. D.Ellipse
35
Which method is commonly used to construct an approximate isometric ellipse?
  1. A.Three-point method
  2. B.Four-centre method
  3. C.Bowditch method
  4. D.Simpson method
36
A surface inclined to all three principal planes is called?
  1. A.Horizontal plane
  2. B.Vertical plane
  3. C.Oblique plane
  4. D.Profile plane
37
The side view of an object is projected on which plane?
  1. A.Profile plane
  2. B.Vertical plane
  3. C.Horizontal plane
  4. D.Auxiliary horizontal plane
38
Which view normally shows the length and height of an object?
  1. A.Top view
  2. B.Front view
  3. C.Bottom view
  4. D.Plan view
39
Which view normally shows length and width?
  1. A.Front view
  2. B.Elevation
  3. C.Rear view
  4. D.Top view
40
Which instrument is primarily used to draw horizontal and parallel lines manually on a drawing board?
  1. A.Compass
  2. B.Divider
  3. C.T-square
  4. D.Protractor
41
A free-body diagram represents a body isolated from its surroundings along with?
  1. A.Only its dimensions
  2. B.All external forces and moments
  3. C.Internal molecular forces only
  4. D.Material properties only
42
For equilibrium of a coplanar force system, the sum of horizontal forces must be?
  1. A.Zero
  2. B.Minimum
  3. C.Maximum
  4. D.Equal to weight
43
For a rigid body in plane equilibrium, the sum of moments about any point must be?
  1. A.Zero
  2. B.Unity
  3. C.Infinite
  4. D.Equal to mass
44
A particle is in equilibrium when the resultant force acting on it is?
  1. A.Zero
  2. B.Constant
  3. C.Vertical
  4. D.Horizontal
45
According to Lami's theorem, a body must be in equilibrium under how many concurrent coplanar forces?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Four
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Five
46
The moment of a force about a point is equal to the force multiplied by?
  1. A.Perpendicular distance
  2. B.Parallel distance
  3. C.Radius of gyration
  4. D.Area
47
The SI unit of moment of force is?
  1. A.N
  2. B.N/m
  3. C.J/s
  4. D.Nยทm
48
A couple consists of two equal and opposite forces whose lines of action are?
  1. A.Collinear
  2. B.Concurrent
  3. C.Perpendicular
  4. D.Parallel but separated
49
The resultant force of a pure couple is?
  1. A.Infinite
  2. B.Equal to one force
  3. C.Twice one force
  4. D.Zero
50
Varignon's theorem is related to?
  1. A.Friction
  2. B.Moments of forces
  3. C.Impact
  4. D.Elastic strain
51
Friction acts in a direction that?
  1. A.Promotes relative motion
  2. B.Is always vertical
  3. C.Opposes relative motion or its tendency
  4. D.Is always normal to the surface
52
Limiting friction is proportional to?
  1. A.Area of contact
  2. B.Normal reaction
  3. C.Velocity
  4. D.Volume
53
The ratio of limiting friction to normal reaction is known as?
  1. A.Angle of repose
  2. B.Efficiency
  3. C.Mechanical advantage
  4. D.Coefficient of friction
54
The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to?
  1. A.Coefficient of friction
  2. B.Normal reaction
  3. C.Weight
  4. D.Mechanical advantage
55
The angle of repose is equal to the angle of?
  1. A.Friction
  2. B.Projection
  3. C.Twist
  4. D.Precession
56
Static friction is generally?
  1. A.Greater than limiting friction
  2. B.Independent of normal force
  3. C.Less than or equal to limiting friction
  4. D.Always zero
57
Kinetic friction is usually?
  1. A.Less than limiting friction
  2. B.Greater than limiting friction
  3. C.Equal to normal reaction
  4. D.Independent of surface condition
58
Rolling friction is generally how compared with sliding friction?
  1. A.Greater
  2. B.Infinite
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Smaller
59
Which device converts rotational input into large axial lifting force using screw threads?
  1. A.Flywheel
  2. B.Governor
  3. C.Screw jack
  4. D.Gear train
60
A screw jack is self-locking when its efficiency is generally?
  1. A.Greater than 100%
  2. B.Less than 50%
  3. C.Greater than 90%
  4. D.Exactly 100%
61
A wedge is primarily used to?
  1. A.Measure angular velocity
  2. B.Store rotational energy
  3. C.Lift or separate bodies using inclined surfaces
  4. D.Balance rotating masses
62
In a flat belt drive, power is transmitted primarily due to?
  1. A.Magnetic attraction
  2. B.Friction between belt and pulley
  3. C.Gravity
  4. D.Centrifugal force alone
63
In a belt drive, the side having greater tension is known as?
  1. A.Slack side
  2. B.Tight side
  3. C.Neutral side
  4. D.Idler side
64
Belt slip causes the velocity ratio to?
  1. A.Increase indefinitely
  2. B.Become zero in every case
  3. C.Remain exactly constant
  4. D.Depart from its theoretical value
65
Centrifugal tension in a belt becomes significant at?
  1. A.Very low belt speed
  2. B.Zero speed
  3. C.High belt speed
  4. D.Zero tension
66
A brake is a device used mainly to?
  1. A.Increase speed
  2. B.Generate power
  3. C.Store potential energy
  4. D.Absorb kinetic energy and retard motion
67
A clutch is used to?
  1. A.Permanently lock a machine
  2. B.Measure torque
  3. C.Connect and disconnect power transmission
  4. D.Reduce friction to zero
68
In a friction clutch, torque is transmitted by?
  1. A.Adhesion of gears
  2. B.Friction between contact surfaces
  3. C.Belt elasticity only
  4. D.Fluid pressure only
69
A band brake operates by friction between a rotating drum and?
  1. A.Flexible band
  2. B.Chain
  3. C.Gear tooth
  4. D.Spring only
70
During braking of a vehicle on a level road, the braking force acts?
  1. A.In the direction of motion
  2. B.Vertically upward only
  3. C.Opposite to the direction of motion
  4. D.Through the vehicle's roof
71
During acceleration of a rear-wheel-drive vehicle, the driving friction force on the driven wheels acts?
  1. A.Forward on the vehicle
  2. B.Backward on the vehicle
  3. C.Vertically downward
  4. D.Toward the axle centre only
72
A truss is ideally assumed to consist of straight members joined at?
  1. A.Rigid welded joints only
  2. B.Pin joints
  3. C.Sliding joints
  4. D.Screw joints only
73
Loads in an ideal pin-jointed truss are assumed to act at?
  1. A.Member midpoints
  2. B.Joints
  3. C.Random points
  4. D.Centroids of all members
74
Members of an ideal truss are primarily subjected to?
  1. A.Bending only
  2. B.Shear only
  3. C.Torsion only
  4. D.Axial tension or compression
75
The method of joints is used to determine?
  1. A.Fluid pressure
  2. B.Shaft speed
  3. C.Forces in truss members
  4. D.Beam deflection only
76
The method of sections is particularly convenient when?
  1. A.No load acts on the truss
  2. B.Every member is curved
  3. C.Forces in only a few selected truss members are required
  4. D.The truss has no joints
77
A zero-force member of a truss carries?
  1. A.No axial force for the specified loading condition
  2. B.Maximum bending moment
  3. C.Maximum shear force
  4. D.Pure torsion
78
A perfect plane truss having m members and j joints satisfies?
  1. A.m = j
  2. B.m = j + 3
  3. C.m = 3j - 2
  4. D.m = 2j - 3
79
A frame differs from an ideal truss because frame members may be subjected to?
  1. A.Axial forces only
  2. B.Axial force, shear and bending
  3. C.Tension only
  4. D.Compression only
80
The principle of virtual work is applicable to a system in?
  1. A.Turbulent flow only
  2. B.Equilibrium
  3. C.Plastic failure only
  4. D.Free fall only
81
For an ideal constrained system in equilibrium, total virtual work done by external forces is?
  1. A.Maximum
  2. B.Equal to kinetic energy
  3. C.Infinite
  4. D.Zero
82
A virtual displacement is a small imaginary displacement that is?
  1. A.Compatible with constraints
  2. B.Inconsistent with constraints
  3. C.Necessarily equal to actual displacement
  4. D.Always vertical
83
Kinematics deals with motion without considering?
  1. A.Displacement
  2. B.Causes of motion
  3. C.Velocity
  4. D.Acceleration
84
Dynamics deals with motion and?
  1. A.Colour of a body
  2. B.Drawing scale
  3. C.Forces causing or affecting it
  4. D.Surface finish only
85
For pure translation of a rigid body, all points have the same?
  1. A.Position
  2. B.Velocity at a given instant
  3. C.Radius from origin
  4. D.Angular displacement about one another
86
In pure rotation about a fixed axis, the linear velocity of a point is proportional to?
  1. A.Its distance from the axis
  2. B.Its mass
  3. C.Its density
  4. D.Its temperature
87
Angular velocity is the time rate of change of?
  1. A.Angular displacement
  2. B.Linear momentum
  3. C.Mass
  4. D.Work
88
The linear velocity of a point at radius r on a body rotating with angular velocity ฯ‰ is?
  1. A.ฯ‰/r
  2. B.rฯ‰
  3. C.r/ฯ‰
  4. D.rฯ‰ยฒ
89
The tangential acceleration of a point on a rotating body is related to angular acceleration by?
  1. A.rฮฑ
  2. B.r/ฮฑ
  3. C.ฮฑ/r
  4. D.rฮฑยฒ
90
The normal acceleration of a point in circular motion is directed?
  1. A.Tangentially
  2. B.Parallel to the axis
  3. C.Away from the centre always
  4. D.Toward the centre of curvature
91
The instantaneous centre of a rigid body in plane motion is a point having?
  1. A.Zero velocity at that instant
  2. B.Maximum velocity
  3. C.Maximum acceleration necessarily
  4. D.Infinite displacement
92
Newton's second law relates force to?
  1. A.Rate of change of momentum
  2. B.Displacement only
  3. C.Potential energy only
  4. D.Temperature rise
93
Linear momentum is equal to?
  1. A.Mass ร— velocity
  2. B.Mass ร— acceleration
  3. C.Force ร— velocity
  4. D.Torque ร— time
94
Angular momentum of a particle about a point depends on?
  1. A.Volume only
  2. B.Temperature only
  3. C.Its linear momentum and moment arm
  4. D.Pressure only
95
Impulse of a force equals the change in?
  1. A.Potential energy
  2. B.Angular displacement
  3. C.Mass
  4. D.Linear momentum
96
Angular impulse equals the change in?
  1. A.Linear displacement
  2. B.Mass moment only
  3. C.Angular momentum
  4. D.Velocity ratio
97
The area under a force-time graph represents?
  1. A.Work
  2. B.Power
  3. C.Impulse
  4. D.Torque
98
Work done by a constant force equals the product of force and?
  1. A.Time only
  2. B.Acceleration only
  3. C.Mass
  4. D.Displacement component along the force
99
Kinetic energy of a translating rigid body depends on?
  1. A.Pressure and volume
  2. B.Mass and linear velocity
  3. C.Force and time only
  4. D.Temperature and density
100
Rotational kinetic energy depends on angular velocity and?
  1. A.Area
  2. B.Coefficient of friction only
  3. C.Mass moment of inertia
  4. D.Linear impulse
101
The work-energy principle states that net work done equals the change in?
  1. A.Momentum
  2. B.Acceleration
  3. C.Mass
  4. D.Kinetic energy
102
Mechanical energy remains conserved when only which forces perform work?
  1. A.Conservative forces
  2. B.Non-conservative forces
  3. C.Friction forces
  4. D.Impact forces
103
Gravitational potential energy is associated with?
  1. A.Angular acceleration
  2. B.Position in a gravitational field
  3. C.Friction coefficient
  4. D.Linear impulse
104
The coefficient of restitution is used in analysis of?
  1. A.Belt drives
  2. B.Impact and collision
  3. C.Screw threads
  4. D.Static trusses
105
For a perfectly elastic impact, the coefficient of restitution is?
  1. A.0
  2. B.0.5
  3. C.Greater than 2
  4. D.1
106
For a perfectly plastic direct impact, the coefficient of restitution is?
  1. A.2
  2. B.1
  3. C.0
  4. D.Infinite
107
Conservation of linear momentum applies to a system when the net external impulse is?
  1. A.Zero
  2. B.Maximum
  3. C.Equal to mass
  4. D.Equal to energy
108
Conservation of angular momentum about a point applies when the net external moment about that point is?
  1. A.Maximum
  2. B.Constant but non-zero
  3. C.Zero
  4. D.Equal to velocity
109
D'Alembert's principle converts a dynamic problem into an equivalent?
  1. A.Fluid problem
  2. B.Drawing problem
  3. C.Heat-transfer problem
  4. D.Static equilibrium problem using inertia forces
110
The mass moment of inertia indicates resistance to?
  1. A.Linear displacement
  2. B.Heat transfer
  3. C.Angular acceleration
  4. D.Pressure change
111
Radius of gyration relates mass moment of inertia to?
  1. A.Total force
  2. B.Total mass
  3. C.Total energy only
  4. D.Pressure
112
Lagrange's equations are especially useful for systems described using?
  1. A.Generalized coordinates
  2. B.Only Cartesian forces
  3. C.Only fluid pressure
  4. D.Only temperature coordinates
113
The number of independent generalized coordinates needed to describe a system equals its?
  1. A.Number of forces
  2. B.Number of supports
  3. C.Number of particles always
  4. D.Degrees of freedom
114
Lagrange's equation is commonly formulated using kinetic energy and?
  1. A.Density only
  2. B.Hardness only
  3. C.Potential energy or generalized forces
  4. D.Drawing scale
115
A holonomic constraint can be expressed as a relation involving generalized coordinates and possibly?
  1. A.Hardness
  2. B.Time
  3. C.Colour
  4. D.Impact strength
116
Normal stress is defined as normal force divided by?
  1. A.Length
  2. B.Cross-sectional area
  3. C.Volume
  4. D.Density
117
The SI unit of stress is?
  1. A.Pascal
  2. B.Newton
  3. C.Joule
  4. D.Watt
118
Normal strain is the ratio of change in length to?
  1. A.Applied load
  2. B.Cross-sectional area
  3. C.Volume
  4. D.Original length
119
Strain is a?
  1. A.Force quantity
  2. B.Dimensionless quantity
  3. C.Energy quantity
  4. D.Power quantity
120
Hooke's law is valid within the?
  1. A.Plastic range only
  2. B.Elastic limit
  3. C.Fracture region only
  4. D.Creep region only