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Latest Gujarat Police SI Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning & Data Interpretation Aptitude, Reasoning & Data Interpretation, Quantitative Aptitude, The Constitution of India and Public Administration, History, Geography, and Cultural Heritage, Current Affairs and General Knowledge, Environment, Science and Technology, Economics
Question Bank Gujarat Police SI Paper-1 Exam - English
Reasoning & Data Interpretation
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 12 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 13 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 14 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 15 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 16 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 17 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 18 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 19 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 20 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69
Q 22 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 23 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 24 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 25 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Reasoning & Data Interpretation Aptitude
Q 26 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 27 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 28 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 29 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 30 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 31 :
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 32 :
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 33 :
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 34 :
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 35 :
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 36 :
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 37 :
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ​ Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 38 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 39 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 40 :
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
A.Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 41 :
Is x an integer ?
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 42 :
Out of the four teams A, B, C and D which team is not likely to win as per the opinion poll ?
(I) As per the opinion poll, chances of team C’s winning are more than that of team A.
​(II) As per the opinion poll team C’s chances of winning are less than that of team B but not less than that of team D, whose chances of winning are more than that of team A.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 43 :
A, B and C are positive integers. Is their product an even number ?
(I) A is an even number.
(II) The product of A and B is an even number and that of A and C is also an even number.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 44 :
What was Mr. Srinivasula’s combined income for the year 1994-1999 ? In 1994, he made Rs.10,00,000.
(I) His average yearly income for the years 1994-1999 was Rs.12,00,000.
​(II) In 1999, his income was Rs.20,00,000.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement(I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 45 :
A, B, C and D made their project presentation, one on each day, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day did ‘C’ make his presentation ?
(1) The first presentation was made on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by ‘D’s presentation.
​(2) ‘A’ did not make his presentation on 25th and one of them made his presentation, between A’s and B’s.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 46 :
How many houses on the street are painted blue ?
(1) Houses on the east side with number 122 through 182 are painted blue.
(2) Houses on the west and east sides have consecutive odd and even number respectively.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 47 :
Is Mr. ‘Y’ entitled to get promotion in the month of September 2002 ?
(1) As per his office rules, the only condition for promotion is completion of 12 years of service in a particular grade on 31st December of every year.
(2) Mr. ‘Y’ has been working in this office for the last 12 years.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 48 :
What is the distance Between D1 and D2​ ? It is given that a man who can row x km/hr in still water, takes z hrs to row from D1 to D2 and back to D1, in a stream which flows at y km/hr.
(1) Value of (x2- y2) is known.
(2) (x ÷ z) is known.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 49 :
Is ababab divisible by 222 where a and b are two digits ?
(1) a + b = 5. (2) b is an even number
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 50 :
Is (X2 + Y2 + Z2) even? [X, Y, Z are integers]
(1) X, Y, Z are consecutive. (2) X2 + Z2 is even.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
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Quantitative Aptitude
Q 51 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 52 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 53 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 54 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 55 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 56 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 57 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 58 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 59 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 60 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 61 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 62 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 63 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 64 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 65 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 66 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 67 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 68 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 69 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 70 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 71 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 72 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 73 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 74 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 75 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 76 :
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A.1
B.10
C.Infinite
D.None
Q 77 :
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A.12345
B.1331
C.1234
D.1213
Q 78 :
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A.1
B.3
C.7
D.9
Q 79 :
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Q 80 :
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Q 81 :
Which of the following is composite ?
A.
17
B.19
C.21
D.23
Q 82 :
What is √0.0009 ?
A.0.003
B.0.03
C.0.3
D.0.09
Q 83 :
What is √1156 ?
A.32
B.34
C.36
D.38
Q 84 :
What is √2025 ?
A.35
B.40
C.45
D.50
Q 85 :
What is (51^2) ?
A.2601
B.2501
C.2551
D.2651
Q 86 :
7 8 18 57 ?
A.244
B.174
C.186
D.none of these
Q 87 :
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A.25 years
B.27 years
C.26 years
D.24 years
Q 88 :
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
A.2
B.-1
C.1
D.-2
Q 89 :
How many factors does 100 have ?
A.6
B.7
C.8
D.9
Q 90 :
If x = a – b, y = b – c, z = c – a, then the numerical value of the algebraic expression x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz will be
A.a + b + c
B.Zero
C.4 (a + b + c)
D.3 abc
Q 91 :
Which number is divisible by 13 ?
A.819
B.845
C.871
D.899
Q 92 :
A number leaves remainder 3 when divided by 5. What remainder when divided by 10 ?
A.3 or 8
B.3
C.8
D.Cannot determine
Q 93 :
What is the unit digit of (9^{101}) ?
A.1
B.3
C.7
D.9
Q 94 :
How many prime numbers are between 10 and 20 ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Q 95 :
Which of the following pair is co-prime ?
A.8 and 12
B.9 and 15
C.14 and 25
D.21 and 35
Q 96 :
(43)2 + 841 = (?)2 + 1465
A.41
B.35
C.38
D.33
Q 97 :
269 – 122 – 33 = X * 2
A.51
B.41
C.21
D.49
Q 98 :
What is the remainder when 2100 is divided by 3 ?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Q 99 :
Which of the following is composite ?
A.17
B.19
C.21
D.23
The Constitution of India and Public Administration
Q 100 :
V.A. Graicunas theory on span of management/ control was based on :
A.Flat organisational structure
B.Mathematical calculation
C.Empirical Studies
D.Rule of Thumb
Q 101 :
Who stated, "Administration is now so vast an area that a philosophy of administration comes to bring a Philosophy of life" ?
A.H.A. Simon
B.Marshal E. Dimock
C.Piffner
D.L.D. White
Q 102 :
Which of the following is viewed as an alternative to market and hierarchy in public policy and management literature ?
A.Professionalism
B.Networks
C.Collegiality
D.Procedural mode
Q 103 :
The book "The Frontiers of Public Administration" written by John M. Gaus was co-authored by which of the following ?
A.L.D. White and Luther Gulick
B.M.E. Dimock and P.A. Appleby
C.Luther Gulick and FM Marx
D.L.D. White and M.E. Dimock
Q 104 :
Who among the following, made distinction between obedience and acceptance of Authority ?
A.Chester I Barnard
B.Herbert A Simon
C.Max Weber
D.J.D. Mooney
Q 105 :
The public-choice school sets a concept of :
A.Bureaucratic administration
B.Hierarchical administration
C.Democratic administration
D.Oligarchic administration
Q 106 :
The aim of Napoleonic code introduced in 1804 during the regime of Napoleon Bonaparte was to :
A.Abolish Bureaucracy
B.Strengthen Bureaucracy
C.Reform Bureaucracy
D.Further Bureaucratic despotism
Q 107 :
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of participative management ?
A.Hierarchical structures
B.Vertical communication
C.Directionless activities
D.Cross-functional linkages
Q 108 :
Michael Crozier's "The Bureaucratic Phenomenon" was a study of the bureaucracy of :
A.England
B.Germany
C.Italy
D.France
Q 109 :
"Zone of Indifference" as a concept is attributed to .
A.Herbert Simon
B.Rensis Likert
C.Chester Barnard
D.M.P. Follett
Q 110 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 111 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 112 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 113 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 114 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A.Privy Council
B.Supreme Court
C.High Court
D.Federal Court
Q 115 :
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A.Original jurisdiction only
B.Appellate jurisdiction only
C.Advisory jurisdiction only
D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Q 116 :
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A.14 and 7
B.11 and 7
C.15 and 9
D.None of the above
Q 117 :
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A.Government of India Act, 1919
B.Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D.None of the above
Q 118 :
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A.3 June, 1947
B.4 July, 1947
C.15 July, 1947
D.18 July, 1947
Q 119 :
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A.Simon Commission
B.Cripps Mission
C.Cabinet Mission Plan
D.The Mountbatten plan
Q 120 :
In which year Mayor's Courts were introduced in three Presidency Towns in India ?
A.1726
B.1772
C.1774
D.1781
Q 121 :
On whose recommendation amongst the following the Constituent Assembly was constituted ?
A.Cripps Mission
B.Webel Mission
C.Lord Mountbatten
D.Cabinet Mission Plan
Q 122 :
Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constitutent Assembly ?
A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B.Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C.Sr. B.N. Rau
D.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q 123 :
The first Constituent Assembly Meeting held on 9.12.46 was presided over by -
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Shri S.N. Sinha
C.Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
D.None of the above
Q 124 :
Who among the following was the President of Constituent Assembly ?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Sardar Patel
C.Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
D.Pt. J. Nehru
History, Geography, and Cultural Heritage
Q 125 :
Which Indus Valley site is famous for its dockyard?
A.Harappa
B.Mohenjo-daro
C.Lothal
D.Kalibangan
Q 126 :
The Great Bath, a remarkable structure of the Indus Valley Civilisation, was discovered at:
A.Harappa
B.Mohenjo-daro
C.Lothal
D.Dholavira
Q 127 :
The script of the Indus Valley Civilisation is:
A.Brahmi
B.Kharosthi
C.Pictographic and Undeciphered
D.Sanskrit
Q 128 :
Which metal was NOT known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
A.Copper
B.Bronze
C.Gold
D.Iron
Q 129 :
The figure of a deity, often identified as 'Pashupati Mahadeva', is depicted on seals found at Indus Valley sites. Which animals are typically shown surrounding the deity?
A.Lion, Horse, Bull, Elephant
B.Elephant, Tiger, Rhinoceros, Buffalo
C.Cow, Deer, Goat, Tiger
D.Horse, Bear, Wolf, Rhinoceros
Q 130 :
Which Indus Valley site in Gujarat is known for its unique water management system and a large inscription often referred to as a signboard?
A.Lothal
B.Surkotada
C.Rangpur
D.Dholavira
Q 131 :
Evidence of ploughed fields has been found at which Indus Valley site?
A.Mohenjo-daro
B.Chanhudaro
C.Kalibangan
D.Banawali
Q 132 :
The Indus Valley people primarily worshipped:
A.Forces of Nature
B.Trimurti (Brahma, Vishnu, Shiva)
C.Mother Goddess and Pashupati
D.Agni and Indra
Q 133 :
What was the most common building material used in Harappan cities?
A.Stone
B.Wood
C.Baked Bricks
D.Mud Bricks
Q 134 :
The famous bronze statue of the 'Dancing Girl' was excavated from:
A.Harappa
B.Lothal
C.Mohenjo-daro
D.Kalibangan
Q 135 :
The earliest Veda, containing hymns primarily dedicated to nature gods, is:
A.Samaveda
B.Yajurveda
C.Atharvaveda
D.Rigveda
Q 136 :
The term 'Sabha' and 'Samiti' in the Rigvedic period refer to:
A.Types of sacrifices
B.Two important rivers
C.Popular assemblies
D.Classes of priests
Q 137 :
Which statement best describes the economy of the Early Vedic (Rigvedic) period?
A.Primarily agricultural with extensive trade networks
B.Primarily pastoral and nomadic, with subsidiary agriculture
C.Urban-based trade and crafts dominated
D.Based solely on hunting and gathering
Q 138 :
The Upanishads are primarily texts dealing with:
A.Ritualistic procedures
B.Laws of social conduct
C.Philosophical and metaphysical speculation
D.Hymns and chants
Q 139 :
The Later Vedic period saw the shift of the geographical focus of Aryan culture from the Sapta Sindhu region to the:
A.Ganga-Yamuna Doab
B.Deccan Plateau
C.Malwa Plateau
D.Southern Peninsula
Q 140 :
What is the largest object in our solar system?
A.Earth
B.Moon
C.Sun
D.Jupiter
Q 141 :
Which motion of the Earth causes day and night?
A.Revolution
B.Rotation
C.Precession
D.Nutation
Q 142 :
What is the Earth's path around the Sun called?
A.Axis
B.Orbit
C.Equator
D.Meridian
Q 143 :
What is the standard time based on?
A.Local time
B.Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)
C.Solar time
D.Sidereal time
Q 144 :
What causes the seasons on Earth?
A.Earth's rotation
B.Earth's revolution and axial tilt
C.Solar flares
D.Lunar phases
Q 145 :
What is the Earth's innermost layer called?
A.Crust
B.Mantle
C.Core
D.Lithosphere
Q 146 :
Which of the following is a major landform?
A.Valley
B.Mountain
C.Plateau
D.All of the above
Q 147 :
What is the term for the average weather conditions in a region over a long period?
A.Weather
B.Climate
C.Meteorology
D.Hydrology
Q 148 :
What are large bodies of air with uniform temperature and humidity called?
A.Fronts
B.Air masses
C.Cyclones
D.Anticyclones
Q 149 :
What is the boundary between two air masses called?
A.Cyclone
B.Front
C.Anticyclone
D.Isotherm
Current Affairs and General Knowledge
Q 150 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 151 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 152 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 153 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 154 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 155 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 156 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 157 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 158 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 159 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 160 :
Which platform was launched by the Gujarat government in partnership with Meta to provide citizen services through WhatsApp?
A.Jan Seva Connect
B.Gujarat Digital Mitra
C.Smart Gujarat Portal
D.WhatsApp Governance Services
Q 161 :
How many citizen-centric services were initially made available through the Gujarat government–Meta initiative?
A.20
B.15
C.10
D.25
Q 162 :
Which city remained the administrative center of major government announcements in Gujarat during May 2026?
A.Gandhinagar
B.Rajkot
C.Vadodara
D.Surat
Q 163 :
Which sector received a major boost through new state-level policy initiatives in May 2026?
A.Fisheries
B.Education Infrastructure
C.Aviation
D.Mining
Q 164 :
What amount was approved by the Gujarat government for new schools and educational infrastructure?
A.₹150 crore
B.₹330 crore
C.₹220 crore
D.₹500 crore
Q 165 :
The ₹330 crore allocation was primarily aimed at improving which area?
A.Metro services
B.Industrial parks
C.Educational facilities
D.Tourism circuits
Q 166 :
Which mode was emphasized by Gujarat for easier public service delivery in May 2026?
A.SMS-based services
B.WhatsApp-based services
C.Postal services
D.Telephone helplines
Q 167 :
Gujarat's digital governance initiative focused mainly on which objective?
A.Export growth
B.Military modernization
C.Administrative convenience
D.Election reforms
Q 168 :
Which government body approved major education-related infrastructure projects in Gujarat?
A.High Court
B.Election Commission
C.State Cabinet
D.RBI
Q 169 :
Gujarat's May 2026 governance initiatives largely promoted which concept?
A.Digital governance
B.Offline administration
C.Privatization only
D.Border management
Q 170 :
Which sector was expected to benefit directly from the new educational infrastructure projects?
A.Healthcare
B.Defense
C.Railways
D.Students and schools
Q 171 :
The Gujarat government's digital service initiative aimed to reduce the need for what?
A.Digital payments
B.Physical office visits
C.School admissions
D.Tax filings
Q 172 :
Gujarat continued emphasizing which model for public administration in May 2026?
A.Cooperative governance only
B.Manual governance
C.E-Governance
D.Judicial governance
Q 173 :
The WhatsApp governance initiative was launched in collaboration with which company?
A.Google
B.Microsoft
C.Meta
D.Amazon
Q 174 :
The state's citizen-service expansion was mainly intended to improve what?
A.Defense spending
B.Foreign trade
C.Convenience and accessibility
D.Tourism taxes
Environment, Science and Technology, Economics
Q 175 :
In case of indifference curve of two goods X and Y, as consumption of X increases :
A.MRSXY increases
B.MRSXY decreases
C.MRSXY remains the same
D.MRSXY increases but later on MRSXY decreases
Q 176 :
General Economic equilibrium is NOT related to which one of the following problems ?
A.Uniqueness problem
B.Existence problem
C.Stability problem
D.Moral hazard problem
Q 177 :
In the shoft-run production function, which on eof the following is CORRECT ?
A.Technology is assumed to change as labour input changes
B.Technology is assumed to change as capital stock changes
C.Technology is assumed to change positively until diminishing returns set in
D.Technology is assumedto be constant for a given production function relationship
Q 178 :
As output expands, LAC curve falls. This is due to :
A.Law of variable proportions
B.Law of diminishing returns
C.Economies of scale
D.Diseconomies of scale
Q 179 :
In a situtation of decision under uncertainty, if a consumer faces equal expected income from two alternatives, then she will take decision on the basis of :
A.Expected utility of both the alternatives
B.Probability of risk attached with each alternatives
C.Variation of risk attached with each alternatives
D.Mean of risk of each alternatives
Q 180 :
What type of relationship the Phillips curve postulates between the rae of unemployment and the rate of increase of money wages ?
A.Inverse
B.Direct
C.Direct and proportional
D.Inverse and proportional
Q 181 :
The concept of 'money illusion' was first given by whom ?
A.Milton Friedman
B.Irving Fisher
C.Robertson
D.J. M. Keynes
Q 182 :
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A.Water and gases
B.Rocks and minerals
C.Living organisms
D.Air and gases
Q 183 :
The lithosphere includes :
A.Only the Earth's crust
B.The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C.Only the Earth's mantle
D.The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Q 184 :
The process of soil formation is called :
A.Erosion
B.Weathering
C.Deposition
D.Lithification
Q 185 :
Which is the thinnest layer of the Earth ?
A.Crust
B.Mantle
C.Outer Core
D.Inner Core
Q 186 :
Which type of rocks are formed from magma ?
A.Sedimentary rocks
B.Metamorphic rocks
C.Igneous rocks
D.Fossil rocks
Q 187 :
The lithosphere is broken into pieces known as :
A.Tectonic plates
B.Continents
C.Sediments
D.Rocks
Q 188 :
The most abundant element in the Earth's crust is :
A.Oxygen
B.Silicon
C.Aluminum
D.Iron
Q 189 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 190 :
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A.BARC
B.ISRO
C.DRDO
D.HAL
Q 191 :
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A.1975
B.1965
C.1980
D.1990
Q 192 :
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A.INSAT-1A
B.Aryabhata
C.Rohini
D.Bhaskara
Q 193 :
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A.Dhruva
B.Kamini
C.Apsara
D.Kalpakkam
Q 194 :
Which Indian space mission successfully sent a probe to Mars in its first attempt?
A.Chandrayaan-1
B.Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission)
C.Chandrayaan-2
D.Gaganyaan
Q 195 :
What was India’s first nuclear test code-named?
A.Operation Shakti
B.Pokhran-I
C.Operation Smiling Buddha
D.Operation Parakram
Q 196 :
Who is considered the father of the Indian space program?
A.APJ Abdul Kalam
B.Homi Bhabha
C.Vikram Sarabhai
D.Satish Dhawan
Q 197 :
What is the term for the total value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders in a given period?
A.GNP
B.GDP
C.NNP
D.DPI
Q 198 :
What is the primary function of a central bank?
A.Lending to individuals
B.Regulating the money supply
C.Selling stocks
D.Managing retail stores
Q 199 :
What is fiscal policy?
A.Policy related to interest rates
B.Policy related to government spending and taxation
Quantity II
​ Quantity II
5.015 =?