Child Psychology and Development, Pedagogy, Teaching Learning processes
Question 1Single Answer
Development refers primarily to:
A
Increase in height only
B
Qualitative and quantitative changes in an individual
C
Memorization of information
D
Physical growth only
Question 2Single Answer
Growth is mainly associated with:
A
Emotional maturity only
B
Moral reasoning only
C
Quantitative changes
D
Socialization only
Question 3Single Answer
Development is considered:
A
A sudden process
B
Independent of learning
C
Limited to childhood
D
A continuous process
Question 4Single Answer
Which statement correctly describes development?
A
All children develop at exactly the same rate
B
Development stops after adolescence
C
Development involves different interrelated dimensions
D
Development is entirely determined by heredity
Question 5Single Answer
Learning is best described as:
A
A relatively lasting change in behaviour or knowledge due to experience
B
Increase in body weight
C
A genetically fixed process
D
Physical maturation alone
Question 6Single Answer
Development and learning are:
A
Completely unrelated
B
Opposite processes
C
Closely interconnected
D
Relevant only in adulthood
Question 7Single Answer
Maturation refers to changes mainly resulting from:
A
Classroom examinations
B
Punishment
C
Natural biological growth
D
Rote learning
Question 8Single Answer
A child's ability to learn a skill depends partly on:
A
Number of textbooks
B
School uniform
C
Developmental readiness
D
Marks obtained by friends
Question 9Single Answer
Which is an example of qualitative development?
A
Improvement in reasoning ability
B
Increase in weight
C
Increase in height
D
Increase in shoe size
Question 10Single Answer
Cognitive development deals mainly with changes in:
A
Height and weight
B
Thinking and reasoning
C
Hair colour
D
Muscle size
Question 11Single Answer
Social development mainly involves:
A
Increase in body size
B
Interactions and relationships with others
C
Tooth development
D
Handwriting speed only
Question 12Single Answer
Emotional development involves the ability to:
A
Understand and regulate emotions
B
Increase physical strength
C
Memorize multiplication tables only
D
Write rapidly
Question 13Single Answer
The development of a child is influenced by:
A
Heredity alone
B
Interaction of heredity and environment
C
Environment alone
D
Chance alone
Question 14Single Answer
Learning can promote development by:
A
Eliminating curiosity
B
Preventing exploration
C
Discouraging interaction
D
Providing meaningful experiences
Question 15Single Answer
Which statement about developmental stages is correct?
A
Every child enters each stage on the same date
B
Development follows a broadly predictable sequence
C
Development is completely random
D
Development has no relationship with maturation
Question 16Single Answer
Development is multidimensional because it includes:
A
Only physical changes
B
Physical, cognitive, social and emotional changes
C
Only academic achievement
D
Only language development
Question 17Single Answer
The concept of readiness implies that:
A
A learner should have the necessary developmental preparation for a task
B
Every child must learn everything at the same age
C
Teaching should always precede maturation
D
Children should never face challenging tasks
Question 18Single Answer
Which factor generally supports healthy development?
A
Continuous humiliation
B
Rich learning opportunities
C
Complete social isolation
D
Lack of stimulation
Question 19Single Answer
Development from simple abilities toward complex abilities illustrates that development is:
A
Random
B
Reversible
C
Sequential
D
Unrelated to experience
Question 20Single Answer
Learning differs from maturation because learning primarily occurs through:
A
Experience and practice
B
Genetic inheritance only
C
Biological ageing only
D
Physical growth alone
Question 21Single Answer
A teacher should understand child development mainly to:
A
label slow learners permanently
B
Compare children constantly
C
Match teaching with learners' developmental needs
D
teach every child identically
Question 22Single Answer
Which is NOT a major domain of development?
A
Physical
B
Cognitive
C
Commercial
D
Socio-emotional
Question 23Single Answer
Developmental changes are generally:
A
Completely isolated from one another
B
Interrelated
C
Restricted to physical growth
D
Unaffected by learning
Question 24Single Answer
The most appropriate teaching approach considers:
A
Only chronological age
B
Only textbook completion
C
Only examination marks
D
Learners' developmental level and prior knowledge
Question 25Single Answer
Learning is most effective when new experiences are:
A
Connected with the learner's existing understanding
B
Completely unrelated to prior knowledge
C
Always beyond the learner's capacity
D
Based entirely on memorization
Question 26Single Answer
Development generally proceeds from:
A
Specific responses to general responses only
B
General responses to specific responses
C
Complex to simple in every case
D
Unpredictable responses to fixed responses
Question 27Single Answer
The cephalocaudal principle means development proceeds from:
A
Outside toward the centre
B
Feet toward the head
C
Fingers toward the trunk
D
Head toward the feet
Question 28Single Answer
The proximodistal principle means development proceeds from:
A
Right side toward the left side
B
Extremities toward the centre
C
Feet toward the head
D
Centre of the body toward the extremities
Question 29Single Answer
Which principle explains why children differ in their rate of development?
A
Principle of imitation
B
Principle of uniformity
C
Principle of punishment
D
Principle of individual differences
Question 30Single Answer
Development is continuous means that:
A
Development stops at puberty
B
Development occurs only in infancy
C
Changes occur throughout life
D
Development occurs only during schooling
General Awareness including Himachal Pradesh, Current Affairs & Environment Studies
Question 31Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of FinanceΒ Β Β Β Β
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 32Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of FinanceΒ
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 33Single Answer
What is family ?
A
Family is the primary group of the society
B
Family is the secondary group of the society
C
It is the periphery of the social structure
D
None of the above
Question 34Single Answer
Family according to Biesenz and Biesenz
A
family is a group defined by sex relationship
B
it is the periphery of the social structure
C
a women with a child and a man to look after them
D
The family is a social institution
Question 35Single Answer
Which is not the characteristic of family ?
A
Universality
B
Sense of responsbility
C
Social control
D
All of the above
Question 36Single Answer
One of the characteristic of family is
A
nuclear position in the society
B
system of nomenclature
C
Both (1) and (2)
D
None of the above
Question 37Single Answer
What are the functions of the family ?
A
Emotional bonding
B
Protection
C
Economic support
D
All of the above
Question 38Single Answer
"It is a complex of many variables, which surrounds man as well as the living organisms."
The given statement refers to which of the following ?
A
Atmosphere
B
Knowledge
C
Environment
D
None of these
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrect regarding objectives of environmental studies ?
A
To enable children to have basic knowledge of various numerals, alphabets and the basic things we see everyday around us
B
To develop habit of performing task in a systematic manner and learn to carry out any activity with precision
C
Develop the habit of cramming in children for their lengthy task which help them in teaching-learning process
D
To make them understand simple graphs, maps, flowcharts and statistical tables.
Question 40Single Answer
Which environment includes the following means of transportation, agricultural fields, mills, economic activities, division of labour lifestyle ?
A
Physical environment
B
Social environment
C
Psychological environment
D
Natural environment
Question 41Single Answer
Consider the following statements
I. It is a inter disciplinary field based on men and environment relationships.
II. It is different from normal environment as each individiual has its own environment in which he/she lives.
III. Its subject matter includes types of environment, human attitude towards environment, efforts of culture etc.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct regarding psychological environment ?
A
I and II
B
Only II
C
I and II
D
All of these
Question 42Single Answer
Consider the following statements
I. It promotes the exploitation of natural resources.
II. It ensures that different form of nature remain favourable towards us.
III. It enables children to understand different facts of environment briefly.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct regarding the study of environment ?
A
Only I
B
Only III
C
I and III
D
II and III
Question 43Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 44Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 45Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 46Single Answer
QUESTION : Formation of Himachal Pradesh took place in which year?
A
1947
B
1971
C
1956
D
1948
Question 47Single Answer
Which style is most commonly associated with ancient Himachal temple architecture?
A
Dravidian
B
Mughal
C
Vesara
D
Nagara
Question 48Single Answer
The shikhara in temple architecture refers to?
A
Pillar base
B
Main hall
C
Tower above sanctum
D
Temple courtyard
Question 49Single Answer
Wooden architecture in temples is mainly seen in which region of Himachal?
A
Kinnaur
B
Kangra
C
Lahaul
D
Shimla hills
Question 50Single Answer
Pagoda-style temples in Himachal are influenced by?
A
Persian style
B
Chinese-Buddhist architecture
C
Greek style
D
Roman style
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General Awareness including Himachal Pradesh, Current Affairs & Environment Studies
Question 51Single Answer
Stone carvings in Himachal temples mainly depict?
A
Industrial scenes
B
Mythological stories
C
Modern events
D
Political leaders
Question 52Single Answer
Which material is commonly used in traditional Himachal temples?
A
Iron
B
Wood and stone
C
Glass
D
Steel
Question 53Single Answer
Temple roofs in snowy regions of Himachal are usually?
A
Sloping
B
Dome-shaped
C
Flat
D
Transparent
Question 54Single Answer
Carvings on Himachal temples are mainly done by?
A
Engineers
B
Sculptors
C
Farmers
D
Soldiers
Question 55Single Answer
The sanctum sanctorum of a temple is known as?
A
Garbhagriha
B
Mandapa
C
Shikhara
D
Prakara
Question 56Single Answer
What is the name of the next phase of Indiaβs semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat
Question 57Single Answer
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the βOliy Darajali Doβstlik Orderβ, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan
Question 58Single Answer
Where was the 2026 SCO Leadersβ Summit held?
A
Tashkent
B
Bishkek
C
Dushanbe
D
Astana
Question 59Single Answer
India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?
A
Strategic Partnership
B
Economic Partnership
C
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D
Defence Partnership
Question 60Single Answer
Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?
A
ONGC and IOCL
B
GAIL and NTPC
C
PNGRB and EESL
D
HPCL and BPCL
Botany & Zoology
Question 61Single Answer
Viruses are regarded as:
A
Prokaryotic cells
B
Eukaryotic cells
C
Acellular entities
D
Multicellular organisms
Question 62Single Answer
The genetic material in a virus may be:
A
DNA only
B
Either DNA or RNA
C
RNA only
D
Both DNA and RNA invariably
Question 63Single Answer
A virus that infects bacteria is called:
A
Bacteriophage
B
Viroid
C
Prion
D
Mycoplasma
Question 64Single Answer
The protein covering of a virus is known as:
A
Capsid
B
Capsule
C
Cell wall
D
Envelope
Question 65Single Answer
TMV contains:
A
Double-stranded DNA
B
Single-stranded RNA
C
Double-stranded RNA
D
Single-stranded DNA
Question 66Single Answer
Viroids consist primarily of:
A
Protein only
B
Naked DNA
C
Naked RNA
D
Lipid only
Question 67Single Answer
Prions are infectious:
A
DNA molecules
B
RNA molecules
C
Proteins
D
Bacteria
Question 68Single Answer
Mycoplasma differs from most bacteria because it lacks:
A
DNA
B
Ribosomes
C
Plasma membrane
D
Cell wall
Question 69Single Answer
Cyanobacteria were traditionally called:
A
Red algae
B
Golden algae
C
Brown algae
D
Blue-green algae
Question 70Single Answer
Heterocysts in cyanobacteria are mainly concerned with:
A
Photosynthesis
B
Respiration
C
Nitrogen fixation
D
Spore dispersal
Question 71Single Answer
Nostoc is a:
A
Cyanobacterium
B
Fungus
C
Bryophyte
D
Protozoan
Question 72Single Answer
Bacterial genetic material is generally located in the:
A
Nucleus
B
Nucleoid
C
Nucleolus
D
Golgi apparatus
Question 73Single Answer
The principal structural component of bacterial cell wall is:
A
Peptidoglycan
B
Chitin
C
Cellulose
D
Lignin
Question 74Single Answer
Bacterial multiplication commonly occurs by:
A
Budding
B
Meiosis
C
Binary fission
D
Fragmentation only
Question 75Single Answer
Transfer of bacterial DNA through direct cell-to-cell contact is:
A
Transformation
B
Translation
C
Transduction
D
Conjugation
Question 76Single Answer
The plant body of most algae is called a:
A
Corm
B
Sporophyte
C
Rhizome
D
Thallus
Question 77Single Answer
Chlamydomonas is generally:
A
Filamentous
B
Unicellular and motile
C
Colonial only
D
Parasitic
Question 78Single Answer
Volvox is best described as:
A
Unicellular alga
B
Red alga
C
Brown alga
D
Colonial green alga
Question 79Single Answer
Spirogyra is characterized by:
A
Spiral chloroplasts
B
No chloroplasts
C
Cup-shaped chloroplasts
D
Star-shaped chloroplasts
Question 80Single Answer
Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra usually occurs by:
A
Budding
B
Zoospore formation
C
Binary fission
D
Conjugation
Question 81Single Answer
The major pigments of green algae include:
A
Phycoerythrin only
B
Chlorophyll a and c
C
Chlorophyll d only
D
Chlorophyll a and b
Question 82Single Answer
The major reserve food in green algae is:
A
Floridean starch
B
Starch
C
Laminarin
D
Glycogen
Question 83Single Answer
Brown algae belong to:
A
Phaeophyceae
B
Chlorophyceae
C
Rhodophyceae
D
Cyanophyceae
Question 84Single Answer
The characteristic brown pigment of brown algae is:
A
Phycoerythrin
B
Fucoxanthin
C
Chlorophyll b
D
Xanthophyll absent
Question 85Single Answer
Reserve food in brown algae commonly includes:
A
Starch only
B
Laminarin and mannitol
C
Glycogen
D
Floridean starch
Question 86Single Answer
Sargassum belongs to:
A
Green algae
B
Brown algae
C
Red algae
D
Cyanobacteria
Question 87Single Answer
Red algae are classified under:
A
Phaeophyceae
B
Rhodophyceae
C
Chlorophyceae
D
Bacillariophyceae
Question 88Single Answer
The red colour of Rhodophyceae is mainly due to:
A
Fucoxanthin
B
Carotene only
C
Chlorophyll b
D
Phycoerythrin
Question 89Single Answer
Floridean starch occurs in:
A
Red algae
B
Brown algae
C
Green algae
D
Cyanobacteria
Question 90Single Answer
Agar is commercially obtained mainly from:
A
Gelidium and Gracilaria
B
Chlamydomonas and Volvox
C
Spirogyra and Ulothrix
D
Sargassum and Fucus
Question 91Single Answer
Members of Kingdom Protista are primarily:
A
Prokaryotic
B
Multicellular only
C
Acellular
D
Eukaryotic
Question 92Single Answer
Most protists are:
A
Multicellular plants
B
Unicellular
C
Multicellular animals
D
Acellular
Question 93Single Answer
Amoeba moves with the help of:
A
Pseudopodia
B
Flagella
C
Cilia
D
Setae
Question 94Single Answer
Amoeba belongs traditionally to the class:
A
Ciliata
B
Sporozoa
C
Rhizopoda
D
Mastigophora
Question 95Single Answer
Euglena possesses:
A
Flagellum
B
Pseudopodia
C
Cilia only
D
Setae
Question 96Single Answer
Euglena shows:
A
Only autotrophic nutrition
B
Both autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition
C
Only heterotrophic nutrition
D
Saprophytic nutrition only
Question 97Single Answer
The photosynthetic pigment present in Euglena includes:
A
Fucoxanthin only
B
Chlorophyll c only
C
Phycoerythrin only
D
Chlorophyll a and b
Question 98Single Answer
Paramecium moves by:
A
Flagella
B
Cilia
C
Pseudopodia
D
Suckers
Question 99Single Answer
Paramecium belongs to class:
A
Mastigophora
B
Sporozoa
C
Rhizopoda
D
Ciliata
Question 100Single Answer
The contractile vacuole of freshwater protozoans is mainly concerned with:
A
Digestion
B
Respiration
C
Osmoregulation
D
Reproduction
Question 101Single Answer
Plasmodium belongs to class:
A
Sporozoa
B
Ciliata
C
Rhizopoda
D
Flagellata
Question 102Single Answer
Plasmodium causes:
A
Kala-azar
B
Amoebiasis
C
Sleeping sickness
D
Malaria
Question 103Single Answer
Entamoeba histolytica causes:
A
Amoebic dysentery
B
Malaria
C
Filariasis
D
Typhoid
Question 104Single Answer
Trypanosoma is transmitted by:
A
Sand fly
B
Housefly
C
Tsetse fly
D
Flea
Question 105Single Answer
Trypanosoma causes:
A
Elephantiasis
B
Malaria
C
Sleeping sickness
D
Cholera
Question 106Single Answer
Binary fission is common in:
A
Amoeba
B
Taenia
C
Ascaris
D
Earthworm
Question 107Single Answer
Conjugation occurs in:
A
Amoeba only
B
Paramecium
C
Plasmodium only
D
Trypanosoma only
Question 108Single Answer
The macronucleus in Paramecium mainly controls:
A
Sexual reproduction only
B
Vegetative functions
C
Locomotion only
D
Encystment only
Question 109Single Answer
The micronucleus of Paramecium is mainly involved in:
A
Digestion
B
Reproduction
C
Osmoregulation
D
Locomotion
Question 110Single Answer
Locomotory organelles are absent in adult:
A
Plasmodium
B
Euglena
C
Paramecium
D
Amoeba
Question 111Single Answer
Poriferans are commonly called:
A
Flatworms
B
Sponges
C
Roundworms
D
Jellyfishes
Question 112Single Answer
Most sponges are:
A
Freshwater
B
Terrestrial
C
Marine
D
Parasitic
Question 113Single Answer
Poriferans possess a:
A
Cellular level of organization
B
Organ level of organization
C
Organ-system level
D
Tissue-organ level
Question 114Single Answer
Numerous small pores in a sponge body are called:
A
Ostia
B
Oscula
C
Setae
D
Nephridia
Question 115Single Answer
The large opening through which water leaves a sponge is the:
A
Ostium
B
Mouth
C
Osculum
D
Nephridiopore
Question 116Single Answer
The central cavity of a simple sponge is called:
A
Coelom
B
Haemocoel
C
Enteron
D
Spongocoel
Question 117Single Answer
Collar cells of sponges are called:
A
Cnidocytes
B
Choanocytes
C
Pinacocytes
D
Amoebocytes only
Question 118Single Answer
Choanocytes help mainly in:
A
Water-current generation and feeding
B
Sexual reproduction only
C
Spicule formation only
D
Excretion only
Question 119Single Answer
The skeleton of sponges may consist of:
A
Cartilage
B
Chitin only
C
Bone
D
Spicules or spongin
Question 120Single Answer
Calcium carbonate spicules occur in class:
A
Hexactinellida
B
Demospongiae
C
Calcarea
D
Hydrozoa
Chemistry
Question 121Single Answer
The modern periodic law is based primarily on?
A
mass number
B
neutron number
C
atomic mass
D
atomic number
Question 122Single Answer
Across a period, the effective nuclear charge generally?
A
increases
B
becomes zero
C
decreases
D
remains exactly constant
Question 123Single Answer
Across a period, atomic radius generally?
A
remains constant
B
increases
C
decreases
D
first becomes infinite
Question 124Single Answer
Down a group, atomic radius generally?
A
remains constant
B
increases
C
decreases
D
becomes zero
Question 125Single Answer
The first ionization enthalpy generally increases across a period because of?
A
increasing effective nuclear charge
B
increasing shielding by a new shell
C
complete absence of electron-electron repulsion
D
decreasing nuclear charge
Question 126Single Answer
The first ionization enthalpy generally decreases down a group mainly because of?
A
increased size and shielding
B
decreased number of shells
C
increased effective attraction without shielding
D
loss of all core electrons
Question 127Single Answer
Among alkali metals, the lowest first ionization enthalpy is expected toward the?
A
top of the group
B
bottom of the group
C
middle only
D
noble-gas end of the same period
Question 128Single Answer
A cation is usually smaller than its parent atom because?
A
electron gain increases shielding
B
neutrons expand the electron cloud
C
the nucleus loses protons
D
electron loss reduces repulsion and may remove the outer shell
Question 129Single Answer
An anion is usually larger than its parent atom because?
A
the principal quantum number always decreases
B
a proton is removed
C
the nuclear charge increases
D
added electron-electron repulsion expands the electron cloud
Question 130Single Answer
In an isoelectronic series, ionic radius decreases as?
A
nuclear charge increases
B
number of electrons increases
C
principal shell number increases
D
nuclear charge decreases
Question 131Single Answer
A physically acceptable wavefunction must be?
A
multivalued everywhere
B
single-valued, finite and continuous where the potential is finite
C
infinite at all boundaries
D
discontinuous at every point
Question 132Single Answer
The Born interpretation associates the square modulus of a wavefunction with?
A
nuclear charge
B
potential energy only
C
probability density
D
classical trajectory
Question 133Single Answer
An observable in quantum mechanics is represented by?
A
a Hermitian operator
B
a classical orbit
C
a non-Hermitian matrix only
D
an arbitrary complex number
Question 134Single Answer
Eigenvalues of a Hermitian operator are?
A
real
B
always negative
C
undefined
D
always imaginary
Question 135Single Answer
Two observables can have simultaneous exact eigenvalues when their operators?
A
are identical to zero
B
anticommute only
C
commute
D
are non-Hermitian
Question 136Single Answer
The commutator of position and its conjugate momentum is?
A
equal to the identity without an imaginary factor
B
undefined for all states
C
always zero
D
nonzero
Question 137Single Answer
The uncertainty principle reflects?
A
thermal expansion only
B
noncommutation of conjugate observables
C
classical friction
D
instrumental error only
Question 138Single Answer
The Hamiltonian operator represents?
A
linear momentum only
B
spin only
C
probability only
D
total energy
Question 139Single Answer
A stationary state is an eigenstate of?
A
the time-independent Hamiltonian
B
position only
C
parity only
D
temperature
Question 140Single Answer
Normalization of a wavefunction ensures that?
A
the wavefunction is real
B
total probability is unity
C
energy is zero
D
momentum is infinite
Question 141Single Answer
The suffix used for an aldehyde as the principal functional group is?
A
-oic acid
B
-al
C
-one
D
-ol
Question 142Single Answer
The suffix used for a ketone as the principal functional group is?
A
-one
B
-ol
C
-amine
D
-al
Question 143Single Answer
The prefix for an -OH group when it is not principal is?
A
hydroxy
B
formyl
C
oxo
D
amino
Question 144Single Answer
The prefix for a carbonyl group when it is not principal is?
A
amino
B
hydroxy
C
mercapto
D
oxo
Question 145Single Answer
In IUPAC nomenclature, the parent chain is selected primarily to include?
A
the alphabetically first substituent
B
the lowest molecular mass fragment
C
the principal functional group
D
the maximum number of methyl groups only
Question 146Single Answer
The stereodescriptors R and S specify?
A
ring fusion only
B
absolute configuration at a stereogenic center
C
alkene geometry only
D
relative configuration of sugars only
Question 147Single Answer
The E descriptor for an alkene indicates that higher-priority groups are?
A
both equatorial
B
both axial
C
on the same side
D
on opposite sides
Question 148Single Answer
The Z descriptor for an alkene indicates that higher-priority groups are?
A
both absent
B
necessarily trans to hydrogen
C
on opposite sides
D
on the same side
Question 149Single Answer
CIP priority is assigned first according to?
A
bond length
B
atomic number of the directly attached atom
C
alphabetical order
D
atomic mass of the whole molecule
Question 150Single Answer
For isotopes of the same element, higher CIP priority is generally given to?