Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 2Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 3Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 4Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 5Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 6Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 7Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 8Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 9Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 10Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 11Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Deep-seated
A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious
Question 12Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Vibrant
A
Drab
B
Gaudy
C
Jazzy
D
Vivid
Question 13Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
To scowl
A
To glower
B
To smirk
C
To Grimace
D
To grin
Question 14Single Answer
Passage :
In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error .
I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Question 15Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Atheist
A
Skeptic
B
Pagan
C
Disciple
D
Agnostic
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Abdicate
A
Forgo
B
Usurp
C
Waive
D
Cede
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.
Mandarin Chinese is spoken by people.
A
Little
B
Few
C
Many
D
Big
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. Passage Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.
A person who is good at foreign languages is known as-
A
Virtuoso
B
Linguist
C
Ventriloquist
D
Scholar
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Astringe
A
Liberate
B
Constringe
C
Circumscribe
D
Tauten
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.
The ………..of gurudakshina is very ancient.
A
habit
B
approach
C
perception
D
concept
Question 21Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.
are regional variations of a language.
A
English
B
Mandarin Chinese
C
Home language
D
Dialects
Question 22Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.
It is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition.
A
unique
B
rare
C
different
D
particular
Question 23Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.
English also included French words the Norman Conquest.
A
After
B
Prior
C
Before
D
During
Question 24Single Answer
Select the wrongly spelt words .
A
career
B
callous
C
calander
D
carriage
Question 25Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
To spurn
A
To Accept
B
To flout
C
To Scorn
D
To rebuff
Question 26Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 27Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 28Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 29Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 30Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 31Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 32Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 33Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 34Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 35Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 36Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 37Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Question 38Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID
Question 39Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 40Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A
Two
B
One
C
None
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following letter are based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and last letters of all of the words are interchanged and then the words thus formed are arranged alphabetically form left to right, which of the following will be second from the left?
A
SAT
B
DEN
C
ROD
D
PIN
E
FUN
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on the five three lettered words given below:
SHE AND TWO WIT GUM
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words)
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged in alphabetical order (within the word) how many words will remain unchanged?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words each alphabet is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed have the consonants changed to vowels?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
Five
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many such pairs of the letters are there in the word highlighted in bold, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the first alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in English alphabetical series, how many meaningful English words will be formed?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
Five
Important Questions Package
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General Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in the dictionary from left to right, which of the following would be fourth from the left?
A
RAT
B
ONE
C
BUT
D
AND
E
SAW
Question 52Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, only the consonants are changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and the vowels are retained, in how many words thus formed will the vowels appear twice or more times? (same or different vowels)
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 53Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of the words, all the alphabets are arranged in English alphabetical order within the word, how many words will NOT begin with a vowel?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 54Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between second letter of the word which is second from the right and the third letter of the word which is third from the left of given words?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
Five
Question 55Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 56Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 57Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 58Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 59Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 60Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 61Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 62Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 63Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 64Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 65Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 66Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 67Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 68Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 69Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 70Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 71Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 72Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 73Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 74Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 75Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 76Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 77Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 78Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 79Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 80Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 81Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 82Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 83Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 84Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 85Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Civil Engineering
Question 86Single Answer
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm
Question 87Single Answer
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
A
B
C
1
D
Question 88Single Answer
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Question 89Single Answer
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L
Question 90Single Answer
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part
Question 91Single Answer
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m
Question 92Single Answer
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10
Question 93Single Answer
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration
Question 94Single Answer
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25
Question 95Single Answer
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity
Question 96Single Answer
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60
Question 97Single Answer
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
A
0.5 m2
B
1.0 m2
C
3 m2
D
0.75 m2
Question 98Single Answer
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm
Question 99Single Answer
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Question 100Single Answer
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
A
121o25'
B
148o25'
C
58o25'
D
211o25'
Question 101Single Answer
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe
Question 102Single Answer
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May
Question 104Single Answer
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value
Question 105Single Answer
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
A
2.5 m2
B
0.55 m2
C
1.10 m2
D
0.25 m2
Question 106Single Answer
Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .
A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?
A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law
Question 108Single Answer
The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as
A
Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D
Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?
A
C4AF
B
C3S
C
C3A
D
C2A
Question 110Single Answer
According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :
A
0.0002 m
B
0.005 m
C
0.0001 m
D
0.01 m
Question 111Single Answer
Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.
bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B
saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
Question 113Single Answer
Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .
A
Plate bearing test
B
Triaxial test
C
CBR test
D
Direct shear test
Question 114Single Answer
In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm2 units) :
A
1.2
B
1.8
C
1.68
D
1.92
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?
A
Lucknow plan
B
Delhi plan
C
Bombay plan
D
Nagpur plan
Question 116Single Answer
The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .
A
Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
B
Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
C
Both statement 1 and 2 are true
D
Both statement 1 and 2 are false
Question 117Single Answer
A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :
A
2
B
3
C
5
D
4
Question 118Single Answer
The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :
A
aeolian soils
B
alluvial soils
C
lacustrine soils
D
marine soils
Question 119Single Answer
What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?
A
0.155 m
B
0.225 m
C
0.100 m
D
0.552 m
Question 120Single Answer
The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).
A
T : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Eccentricity error
B
T : Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error
P : Vertical collimation error
C
T : Eccentricity error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Vertical collimation error, Eccentricity error
D
T : Centering error
P : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error
Question 121Single Answer
According to IS 800 : 2007, identify the property which is considered as a mechanical property of structural steel, important in design .
A
Unit mass
B
Maximum percent elongation on a standard gauge length
C
Co - efficient of thermal expansion
D
Poisson ration
Question 122Single Answer
Which of the following methods is NOT used for measuring air content in fresh concrete ?
A
Blaine air permeability method
B
Gravimetric method
C
Pressure method
D
Volumetric method
Question 123Single Answer
Which of the following methods is NOT used for the calculation of depreciation of a structure ?
A
Straight line method
B
Quantity survey method
C
Geometric projection method
D
Declining balance method
Question 124Single Answer
The failure of an over reinforced concrete beam is due to :
A
compression failure
B
mid failure
C
shear failure
D
tension failure
Question 125Single Answer
In which type of estimate is 'Court yard' NOT considered ?
A
Unit rate estimate
B
Plinth area estimate
C
Lump sum estimate
D
Cub rate estimate
Question 126Single Answer
Match the items in List 1 (name of quantities) with those in List 2 (unit of quantities in the SI system). Use codes in List for matching .
List 1 List 2
M. Dynamic viscosity 1. N/m
N. Kinematic viscosity 2. N.m
O. Surface tension 3. N.s/m2
P. Energy 4. m2/s
A
M-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
B
M-3, N-4, O-1, P-2
C
M-4, N-3, O-1, P-2
D
M-2, N-4, O-1, P-3
Question 127Single Answer
A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments .
Moment due to dead load = 50 kNm
Moment due to live load = 50 kNm
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is :
A
120 kNm
B
180 kNm
C
144 kNm
D
150 kNm
Question 128Single Answer
In a workshop shade, trusses are spaced at 4 m centre to centre. The purlins are spaced at 1.4 m centre to centre along the slope of 300. The (Dead Load + Live load) is 3 kNm2 and the wind load in 5 kNm2. The vertical and the inclined point loads, respectively, will be :
A
14.54 kN and 28 kN
B
17.8 kN and 48 kN
C
20 kN and 24 kN
D
18 kN and 21 kN
Question 129Single Answer
What will be the percentage of passing aggregate for the grading zone 1 of sieve size 1.18 mm ?
A
100%
B
10% - 20%
C
7% - 25%
D
30% - 70%
Question 130Single Answer
The annual or periodical payment for repayment of the capital amount invested on a property for a specified period is known as :
A
depreciation
B
obsolescence
C
amortization
D
annuity
Question 131Single Answer
Among the following river training works, which are aligned either parallel or at an angle to the banks, identify the one having a difference in alignment when compared to others :
A
Flood walls
B
Guide banks
C
Groynes
D
Levees
Question 132Single Answer
The test commonly to determine the grade of bitumen in terms of its hardness is :
A
the penetration test
B
the ductility test
C
the softening point test
D
the flash and fire point test
Question 133Single Answer
A level section has formation width of 10 m, side slope of 1 : 2 (vertical : horizontal) and central height of 2 m. Determine the quantity of earthwork required for a 1 km length of formation (in m3) .
A
24,000
B
20,000
C
18,000
D
28,000
Question 134Single Answer
Which type of odour characteristic is NOT used for classifying odour of a given water sample as per IS 3025 (part-5) 1983 ?
A
Degree of sweetness
B
Degree of turbidity
C
Degree of pungency
D
Degree of smokiness
Question 135Single Answer
The liquid limit and plastic limit of clay materials is 45% and 25% respectively, what is the activity of clay materials if 20% by weight of particles of size less than 2 microns ?
A
0
B
2
C
3
D
1
Question 136Single Answer
Among the following corrections applied for tape measurement, identify the correction which is NOT always negative in sign :
A
Sag
B
Slope of taype
C
Pull
D
Wrong alignment
Question 137Single Answer
A village has a population of 200 with as average rate of water demand as 100 litre per capita per day. A rapid sand filter having an average filtration rate of 100 litre/hour/m2 is to be designed for water treatment. The area of rapid sand filter required is : (Take the ratio of maximum demand to average demand as 1.5.)
A
8.00 m2
B
14.50 m2
C
10.00 m2
D
12.50 m2
Question 138Single Answer
If the bearing of the side AB of a regular hexagon traverse ABCDFFA shown in the figure is 36o45', the bearing of the adjacent side BC of the traverse is :
A
216o15'
B
96o45'
C
83o15'
D
156o45'
Question 139Single Answer
Pigment volume concentration (PVC) of paint is defined as :
A
B
C
D
Question 140Single Answer
The Indian Roads Congress (IRC) was founded in the year :
A
1927
B
1934
C
1950
D
1982
Question 141Single Answer
In a leveling survey work, the first staff reading taken in a staff station after shifting the instrument and the last staff reading taken to a staff sation before the instrument in shifted are, respectively :
A
back sight and intermediate sight
B
intermediate sight and back sight
C
back sight and fore sight
D
fore sight and back sight
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following Indian Standard Codes provides conservatively imposed loads for buildings and structures ?
A
IS 875 (part 4) – 1987
B
IS 875 (part 1) – 1987
C
IS 875 (part 3) – 1987
D
IS 875 (part 2) – 1987
Question 143Single Answer
Activity of soil is ratio of the plasticity index to :
A
percentage of compressive strength
B
percentage by weight of clay fraction
C
liquidity index
D
percentage of sensitivity
Question 144Single Answer
Kor watering in irrigation is defined as :
A
the first watering which is given to seeds sown in the plot for germination
B
the first watering which is given to a crop when the crop is a few centimeters high
C
the first watering which is given to a crop before transplanting
D
the first watering which is given to a plot when the crop is transplanted
Question 145Single Answer
What is a SI unit for dynamic viscosity ?
A
Pascal second
B
Pascal
C
Stoke
D
Newton
Question 146Single Answer
Arrange the following building materials in the increasing order of density of materials .
Granite, Steel, River sand, Water
A
Water, River sand, Steel, Granite
B
River sand, Granite, Water, Steel
C
River sand, Water, Granite, Steel
D
Water, River sand, Granite, Steel
Question 147Single Answer
The bearing of a line AB is 150o15' and the angle ABC between line AB and BC is 110o30' as shown in the given figure . What is the bearing of line BC ?
A
440o45'
B
80o45'
C
79o15'
D
330o15'
Question 148Single Answer
Select the correct statement with respect to a slow sand filter :
A
The filtering medium has effective size 0.45 to 0.7 mm, uniformity coefficient 1.3 to 1.7, multiple graded layers of sand with bacteria and odour removal
B
The rate of filtration is in the range of 100 - 150 m3/m2/day
C
The effective size of sand particles shall be 0.15 to 0.3 mm, and their uniformity coefficient shall be preferably below 3
D
Backwashing daily or on alternate days is necessary for cleaning
Question 149Single Answer
What will be the carrying capacity of a horizontal rectangular channel 4 m wide, conveying a discharge of 1 cumecs per meter width of channel ?
A
4.000 m3/s
B
2.085 m3/s
C
1.000 m3/s
D
8.000 m3/s
Question 150Single Answer
Select the correct option with regard to the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to consolidation in soils :
S1: A soil is termed as normally consolidated, if the present effective orver burden pressure is less than maximum to which the soil was ever been subjected to in the past .
S2: The large the value of co - efficient of consolidation, the shorter it takes for full consolidation to occur .
A
S1 is true and S2 is false
B
Both S1 and S2 are false
C
Both S1 and S2 are true
D
S1 is false and S2 is true
Question 151Single Answer
A real fluid in which the shear stress is directly proportional to the velocity gradient is known as :
A
non - newtonian fluid
B
newtonian fluid
C
ideal fluid
D
plastic fluid
Question 152Single Answer
An airport runway fill needs 8,50,000 m3 of soil compacted to void ratio of 0.7. The required soil is to be taken from a borrow pit having an in situ void ratio of 0.8. If the transportation cost is Rs.10 per m3, estimated cost for the filling work is (in Rs.) :
A
82,00,000
B
90,00,000
C
50,00,000
D
85,00,000
Question 153Single Answer
If p is internal pressure, d is diameter and t is thickness of wall for a thin cylindrical shell, then the value of hoop stress will be :
A
pt/4d
B
pd/4t
C
pd/2t
D
td/4p
Question 154Single Answer
As per IS 800 : 2007, in the design of beams/plate girders, when the web of a member acting alone is inadequate, different types of stiffeners are provided. Match the type of stiffeners provided in List 1 with the requirement to be satisfied by them in List 2 .
(Use the Code in the lists for matching)
List 1 List 2
B. Intermediate transverse wed stiffener 1. Provide local reinforcement to wed under shear and bearing
C. Load carrying stiffiener 2. Improve the buckling strength of a slender Web due to shear
D. Bearing stiffener 3. Prevent local buckling of web due to concentrated loading
E. Diagonal stiffener 4. Prevent local crushing of web due to concentrated loading
A
B - 3, C - 2, D - 4, E - 1
B
B - 4, C - 3, D - 1, E - 2
C
B - 2, C - 3, D - 4, E - 1
D
B - 4, C - 3, D - 2, E - 1
Question 155Single Answer
A canal was designed for a full supply discharge of 60 cumee. The average supply discharge in the canal is 40 cumee. The capacity factor of the cannal is :
A
6.0
B
4.00
C
0.67
D
0.45
Question 156Single Answer
Sewers must be checked for minimum velocities at their minimum hourly flows which is equal to :
A
1/4 average daily flows
B
1/2 average daily flows
C
average daily flows
D
1/3 average daily flows
Question 157Single Answer
What is the permissible limit of organic mater present in water for mixing concrete as per IS 456 - 2000 ?
A
200 mg/ l
B
3000 mg/ l
C
2000 mg/ l
D
400 mg/ l
Question 158Single Answer
A horizontal pipeline AB of diameter d cpmveus water, flowing from A to B. The U - tube manometer with mercury as manometric liquid can be used for the measurement of :
A
difference in the total energy between two points A and B
B
difference in the pressure head between two points A and B
C
difference in the velocity between the points A and B
D
difference in the kinetic head at the two points A and
Question 159Single Answer
A cantilever of beam span l is fixed at one end, the other end resting freely on the middle of a simply supported cross-beam of the same span and section. If the cantilever beam is now loaded with a uniform load of w per unit length, find the reaction at the free end offered by the cross beam.
A
B
C
D
Question 160Single Answer
Select the INCORRECT obstacle in chaining in a chain survey:
A
Obstracle to ranging only
B
Obstracle to chanining only
C
Obstracle to plotting
D
Obstracle to chanining and ranging
Question 161Single Answer
The basis for classification of ordinary Portland cement (OPC) as grade 33, 43 and 53 as per IS 10262 is :
A
28 days compressive strength
B
fineness value and setting time
C
soundness value
D
setting time
Question 162Single Answer
The mass of a chunk of moist soil is 20 kg and its dry density is 1500 kg/m3. What is the void ratio of the soil if the specific gravity is 2.50 and density of water is 10000 kg/m3
A
66.67%
B
72.35%
C
44.45%
D
56.67%
Question 163Single Answer
The maximum effective slenderness ratio for the compression flange of a steel beam against lateral torsional bucking as per IS 800 - 2007 is :
A
400
B
180
C
250
D
300
Question 164Single Answer
As old building has a future life of 15 years. The rate of interest on capital is 7%. If the coefficient of annual sinking fund is 0.43, then what will be value of year's purchase?
A
4
B
3
C
2.36
D
2
Question 165Single Answer
The value used for the prevention of reversal of flow in a pipeline is :
A
an air value
B
a check
C
a scour value
D
a butterfly value
Question 166Single Answer
In earthquake resistant design, response reduction factor (R) for steel special moment resisting frame (SMF) design as per IS 800 : 2000 is :
A
1.5
B
5.0
C
1.0
D
2.5
Question 167Single Answer
In mix design for M25 concrete, the assumed standard deviation for estimation of target mean strength of concrete mix, as recommended by IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm2) :
A
5.0
B
4.5
C
3.5
D
4.0
Question 168Single Answer
Which of the following CANNOT be considered as a hard surface lining of cannal ?
A
Boulder lining
B
Soil cement lining
C
Asphaltic concrete lining
D
Plaster lining
Question 169Single Answer
The following radings were obtained during differential leveling.
Reduced Level (RL) of point A is 240.000 m. The fore sight and back sight between points A and TPI in 1.420 m and 2.024 m, respectively. Fore sight and back sight between points TP1 and TP2 is 2.100 m and 1.986 m, respectively. The back sight from B is 1.722 m. These are marked on the givenfigure. What is the RL at turning point – 2 (TP2)? All values are in meteres.
A
242.024
B
241.202
C
240.604
D
240.490
Question 170Single Answer
Which of the following actions is NOT a permanent adjustment in case of trasit theodolite ?
A
Axis of the telescope levewl adjusted to paralled to the line of collimation
B
Axis of the plate level adjusted to perpendicular to vertical axis
C
Bringing the vertical axis of the theorolite exactly over the station mark
D
Horizontal axis is perpendicular to vertical axis when the instrument is levelled
5.015 =?
