How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 8Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 9Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 10Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 11Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 12Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 13Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 14Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 15Single Answer
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
A
Leeds and Manchester
B
Bristol and Manchester
C
Carlisle and Leeds
D
Chester and Leeds
Question 16Single Answer
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
A
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B
Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C
Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D
None of these
Question 17Single Answer
What is Urbanization?
A
Migration of population from rural to urban area
B
Migration of people from urban to rural
C
Migration of people from one country to another
D
Migration of population from one state to another one
Question 18Single Answer
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
A
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C
a and b both
D
None of these
Question 19Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 20Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 21Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 22Single Answer
The earlist manuscripts were written on
A
palm leaves
B
paper
C
wood
D
stones
Question 23Single Answer
What does BC and AD stands for?
A
Anno Domini and Before Common
B
Before Christ and Anno Domini
C
Anno Domini and Before Christ
D
None of the above
Question 24Single Answer
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of a manuscript?
(A) It is written on a hard surface such as a stone or a metal.
(B) It is an old book written by hand.
(C) It is written on palm leaf or on specially prepared bark of the birch tree.
A
Only A
B
B and C
C
Only B
D
All of these
Question 25Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is false?
A
History is about changes that over time, about finding out how things were in the past and how things have changed
B
In the histories narrated by British historians about India, the rule of each Governor-General was important
C
James Mill divided Indian History into three periods Hindu, Muslim and Christian
D
The British in India believed that surveys were important for effective administration
Question 26Single Answer
Which is the criteria to decide that a particular date is important in history?
A
They are the date of birth of a king or emperor
B
A particular event or set of events has occurred on or around that date
C
It is the date of coronation of a king
D
All of the above
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following are incorrect statements?
(A) The archaeological evidence is obtained by the systematic examination of building monumentas and work of art.
(B) The credit for excavating the Pre-Aryan past goes to Sir William Jones.
(C) The Asiatic Society of Bengal established on 1786.
(D) James Mill is known as the 'Father of Indian Archaeology'.
A
A and B
B
C and D
C
B and D
D
B, C and D
Question 28Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 29Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 30Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 31Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 33Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 34Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 35Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 37Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 38Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 40Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 41Single Answer
What was the growth rate of H.P. in economic sector in Fiscal Year 2012-13 ?
A
5.7%
B
5.9%
C
6.1%
D
6.0%
Question 42Single Answer
What was the annual growth rate in primary sector in H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
9.6%
B
12.5%
C
14.9%
D
15.3%
Question 43Single Answer
As per Economic Survey of 2012-13, what was the contribution of ag culture sector in the revenue of H.P. ?
A
8.32
B
10.87%
C
12.25
D
14.42%
Question 44Single Answer
As per Economic Survey of the year 2015-16, what percentage downfall was recorded in primary sector in H.P. in comparison with 2014-15 ?
A
-1.3%
B
-1.7%
C
-1.9%
D
-2.3%
Question 45Single Answer
What was the estimated growth rate of H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
3.5%
B
5.9%
C
6.2%
D
6.6%
Question 46Single Answer
What was per capita income (at current prices) of H.P. during 2012-13 ?
A
Rs. 75185
B
Rs. 78210
C
Rs. 80370
D
Rs. 83899
Question 47Single Answer
What was the economic growth rate of H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
5.5%
B
5.9%
C
6.7%
D
6.2%
Question 48Single Answer
First State, 'nance Commission of H.P. was set up in
A
1993
B
1994
C
1995
D
1996
Question 49Single Answer
During the year 2012-13, in which sector of economy in H.P. highest growth was recorded in domestic product ?
A
Primary Sector
B
Scoial Service Sector
C
Transport and Trade
D
Finance & Real Estate
Question 50Single Answer
What was per capita income of H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
Rs. 55,472
B
Rs. 75,380
C
Rs. 85,792
D
Rs. 95,582
Important Questions Package
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy HPRCA TGT Medical Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in HPRCA TGT Medical question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - Hindi
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
3.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - Hindi
Description : 3000 Question with Answer
₹181[₹500]
4.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - Hindi
Description : 4000 Question with Answer
₹201[₹500]
5.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
6.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
7.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - English
Description : 3000 Question with Answer
₹181[₹500]
8.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - English
Description : 4000 Question with Answer
₹201[₹500]
9.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
10.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
11.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
12.
HPRCA TGT Medical Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
General Knowledge
Question 51Single Answer
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A
July 1, 2026
B
June 30, 2026
C
July 2, 2026
D
June 29, 2026
Question 52Single Answer
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A
Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
Gaganyaan crewed mission
D
Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Question 53Single Answer
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A
Gukesh D
B
Praggnanandhaa R
C
Harshavardhan G.B.
D
Arjun Erigaisi
Question 54Single Answer
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A
Merger with SBI
B
Merger into a single power financing entity
C
Merger with NTPC
D
Merger with IREDA
Question 55Single Answer
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A
Lakhpati Didi App
B
Digital India Rural Scheme
C
PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D
SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
Question 56Single Answer
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
A
New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
B
Presidential elections were held
C
Parliament was dissolved
D
King was crowned
Question 57Single Answer
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
A
20% below average
B
39.8% below average
C
15% above average
D
Normal rainfall
Question 58Single Answer
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
A
Bengaluru
B
New Delhi
C
Mumbai
D
Hyderabad
Question 59Single Answer
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
A
Universal Health Coverage
B
Ayushman Bharat expansion only
C
TB-free India 2030
D
National Ambulance Services 2026
Question 60Single Answer
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?
A
Removal of all cesses
B
Single 12% slab
C
Primarily two tax slabs of 5% and 18%
D
Only state-level taxation
Concerned Subject
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 62Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 63Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 64Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 66Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 67Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 68Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 69Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 70Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 71Single Answer
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A
Cyanohydrin
B
Dextran
C
Cyclohexane
D
Cyclonite
Question 72Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A
Phosphorus trichloride
B
Mercuric oxide
C
Graphite
D
Nitroglycerine
Question 73Single Answer
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A
Zinc and barium borosilicate
B
Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C
Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D
Pure silica and zinc oxide
Question 74Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A
Crystalline solid
B
Super cooled liquid
C
Condensed gas
D
Liquid crystal
Question 75Single Answer
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A
Ammonium nitrate
B
Ammonium sulphide
C
Ammonium phosphate
D
Ammonium sulphate
Question 76Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
A
Lithium
B
Sodium
C
Rubidium
D
Caesium
Question 77Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
A
It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
B
It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
C
It is used for disinfecting drinking water
D
It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Question 78Single Answer
Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
A
hard glass have Na in place of K
B
hard glass having K in place of Na
C
hard glass having both Na and K
D
None of the above
Question 79Single Answer
A complete fertilizer provides
A
N,P, K
B
S, K, N
C
S, B, K
D
N, S, P
Question 80Single Answer
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
A
sodium hydrogen phthalate
B
magnesium hydroxide
C
calcium hydroxide
D
manganese acetate
Question 81Single Answer
Annealing of glass is done to.
A
make it brittle
B
make it opaque
C
make it transparent
D
None of the above
Question 82Single Answer
Petrochemicals are obtained from.
A
coal
B
petroleum
C
coal tar
D
All of these
Question 83Single Answer
The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is called as.
A
isothermotherapy
B
angiotherapy
C
physiotherapy
D
chemotherapy
Question 84Single Answer
Which of the following is a hypnotic drug ?
A
luminal
B
salol
C
catechol
D
chemisol
Question 85Single Answer
Teflon is a polymer of which of the following monomers ?
A
Tetrafluoroethylene
B
Vinyl chloride
C
Acetylene dichloride
D
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 86Single Answer
LPG used as domestic fuel chiefly contains–
A
Methane
B
Propane
C
Ethylene
D
Butane
E
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 87Single Answer
Glass is a.
A
liquid
B
colloid
C
non–crystalline amorphous solid
D
crystalline solid
Question 88Single Answer
Which one of the following acids is used for etching glass ?
A
H2SO4
B
HNO3
C
HF
D
HCI
Question 89Single Answer
What is the purpose of adding plasticizers in paint manufacturing process ?
A
They act as a film–forming constituent
B
They reduce the viscosity
C
They prevent the polymerization and condensation
D
They provide elasticity to the film and minimize its cracking
Question 90Single Answer
Which raw material is used in the preperation of soft glass ?
A
K2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
B
K2CO3, SiO2, PbCO3
C
Na2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
D
Na2CO3, SiO2, PbO
Question 91Single Answer
The following three aspects of intelligence are dealt by Sternberg's triarchic theory except
A
componential
B
social
C
experiential
D
contextual
Question 92Single Answer
Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences emphasizes
A
general intelligence
B
common abilities required in school
C
the unique abilities of each individual
D
conditioning skills in students
Question 93Single Answer
In order to avoid gender stereotyping in class, a teacher should
A
try to put both boys and girls in nontraditional roles.
B
appreciate students' good work by saying 'good girl' or 'good boy'.
C
discourage girls from taking part in wrestling.
D
encourage boys to take risk and be bold.
Question 94Single Answer
Schools should cater to Individual differences to
A
narrow the gap between individual students.
B
even out abilities and performance of students.
C
understand why students are able or unable to learn.
D
make individual students feel exclusive.
Question 95Single Answer
What kind of support can a school provide to address the individual differences in students ?
A
Follow a child-centered curriculum and provide multiple learning opportunities to students
B
Apply every possible measure to remove the individual differences in students
C
Refer slow learners to special schools
D
Follow same level of curriculum for all students
Question 96Single Answer
"Readiness for learning " refers to
A
general ability level of students
B
present cognitive level of students in the learning continuum
C
satisfying nature of the act of learning
D
Thorndike's Law of Readiness
Question 97Single Answer
Learning disabilities may occur due to all of the following except
A
Cerebral dysfunction
B
Emotional disturbance
C
Behavioural disturbance
D
Cultural factors
Question 98Single Answer
Which of the following is appropriate for environment conducive to thinking and learning in children ?
A
Passive listening for long periods of time
B
Home assignments given frequently
C
Individual tasks done by the learners
D
allowing students to take some decisions about what to learn and how to learn
Question 99Single Answer
The following are the steps in the process of problem solving except
A
Identification of a problem
B
Breaking down the problem into smaller parts
C
Explore possible strategies
D
Anticipate outcomes
Question 100Single Answer
Which of the following cognitive verbs are used to analyse the information given ?
A
Identify
B
Differentiate
C
Classify
D
Describe
Question 101Single Answer
Understanding Human Growth and Development enables a teacher to
A
gain control of learners' emotions while teaching.
B
be clear about teaching diverse learners.
C
tell students how they can improve their lives.
D
practice her teaching in an unbiased way.
Question 102Single Answer
Which one of the following is true about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child ?
A
The relative contributions of peers and genes are not additive.
B
Heredity and environment do not operate together.
C
Propensity is related to environment while actual development requires heredity.
D
Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each in the development of a child.
Question 103Single Answer
Socialization is
A
Rapport between teacher and taught
B
Process of modernization of society
C
Adaptation of social norms
D
Change in social norms
Question 104Single Answer
A teacher wishes to help her students to appreciate multiple views of a situation. She provides her students multiple opportunities to debate on this situation in different groups. According to Vygotsky's perspective, her students will _____ various views and develop multiple perspectives of the situation on their own.
A
internalize
B
construct
C
operationalize
D
rationalize
Question 105Single Answer
Sita has learned to eat rice and dal with her hand. When she is given dal and rice, she mixes rice and dal and starts eating. She has eating rice and dal into her schema for doing things.
A
Accommodated
B
Assimilated
C
Appropriated
D
Initiated
Question 106Single Answer
Theory of multiple intelligences implies the following except
A
intelligence is a distinct set of processing operations used by an individual to solve problems
B
disciplines should be presented in a numbers of ways
C
learning could be assessed through a variety of means
D
emotional intelligence is not related to IQ
Question 107Single Answer
A child of 16 years scores 75 in an IQ test; his mental age will be ____ years.
A
12
B
8
C
14
D
15
Question 108Single Answer
Which one of the following optimizes motivation to learn ?
A
Personal satisfaction in meeting targets
B
Extrinsic factor
C
Motivation to avoid failure
D
Tendency to choose very easy or difficult goals
Question 109Single Answer
Smallest unit of meaning in a language is
A
pragmatics
B
syntax
C
morpheme
D
phoneme
Question 110Single Answer
IQ scores are generally _____ correlated with academic performance.
A
least
B
perfectly
C
highly
D
moderately
Question 111Single Answer
Successful inclusion requires the following except
A
Involvement of parents
B
Capacity building
C
Sensitization
D
Segregation
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to encourage disadvantaged children to attend school regularly ?
A
A child collector employed by the school, must bring children from homes everyday
B
Paying 5 per day to attract children
C
Opening residential schools
D
Not allowing children to attend school may be made a legally punishable offence
Question 113Single Answer
The best way to avoid gender discrimination in a school may be
A
formation of a rule to shun gender discrimination in the school and enforce it strictly
B
selection of more boys than girls for a music competition
C
metacognition of their gender-biased behaviours by teachers
D
recruitment of equal number of male and female teachers
Question 114Single Answer
Adolescents may experience
A
feeling of self-actualization
B
feeling of satiation about life
C
anxiety and concern about themselves
D
feeling of fear about sins committed in childhood
Question 115Single Answer
Partial reinforcement
A
works best in training animals
B
is more effective than continuous reinforcement
C
is less effective than continuous remforcement
D
cannot be applied in actual classrooms
Question 116Single Answer
Plant viruses usually contain :
A
RNA
B
DNA
C
DNA and RNA
D
DNA or RNA
Question 117Single Answer
Viruses were discovered by :
A
Stanley
B
Ivanowski
C
Twort
D
Herelle
Question 118Single Answer
Which statement best defines viruses?
A
Acellular infectious agents that replicate only inside living host cells
B
Cellular microorganisms containing only DNA
C
Free-living microorganisms capable of independent metabolism
D
Cellular microorganisms containing only RNA
Question 119Single Answer
Which infectious agents consist essentially of small, naked RNA molecules without a protein coat?
A
Virions
B
Prions
C
Viroids
D
Bacteriophages
Question 120Single Answer
Coliphage f X 174 contains :
A
double stranded RNA
B
single stranded DNA
C
double stranded DNA
D
single stranded RNA
Question 121Single Answer
Viruses differ from living organisms in that, they :
A
can grow inside a living host
B
can multiply inside a living host
C
can undergo mutation inside a living host
D
are non-cellular
Question 122Single Answer
Virus which attacks E.coli is called :
A
bacteriophage
B
coliphage
C
phytophage
D
zoophage
Question 123Single Answer
Which characteristic distinguishes viruses from cellular organisms?
A
They possess ribosomes for protein synthesis
B
They have independent energy metabolism
C
They are acellular and depend on host cells for replication
D
They reproduce by binary fission
Question 124Single Answer
The genome of a temperate bacteriophage integrated into the bacterial chromosome is termed as?
A
Prophage
B
Episome
C
Plasmid
D
Capsomere
Question 125Single Answer
Virus was crystallized and isolated first by :
A
J.D. Ivanowski
B
F.C. Bawden
C
W.M. Stanley
D
K.M. Smith
Question 126Single Answer
Little leaf disease of brinjal is primarily associated with which pathogen?
A
Phytoplasma
B
Begomovirus
C
Fungus
D
Viroid
Question 127Single Answer
Which approximate size range includes many of the smallest known conventional virus particles?
A
20–30 nm
B
100–150 nm
C
500–700 nm
D
1–2 µm
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following is devoid of protein coat, with a constitution of RNA only ?
A
Tobacco mosaic virus
B
Poxvirus
C
Potato spindle tuber virus
D
None of the above
Question 129Single Answer
Genetic modification brought about by a virus in a bacteria is known as :
A
transformation
B
transduction
C
conjugation
D
candidiasis
Question 130Single Answer
Which property makes the classification of viruses as strictly living or non-living problematic?
A
They reproduce independently outside cells
B
They possess cellular organelles but lack DNA
C
They replicate in host cells but are metabolically inactive outside them
D
They perform independent respiration outside host cells
Question 131Single Answer
Influenza viruses contain which type of genetic material?
A
Double-stranded DNA
B
Single-stranded RNA
C
Single-stranded DNA
D
Double-stranded RNA
Question 132Single Answer
Edward Jenner is best known for pioneering vaccination against which disease?
A
Smallpox
B
Chickenpox
C
Rabies
D
Poliomyelitis
Question 133Single Answer
Roux Sarcoma virus contains :
A
RNA
B
DNA
C
DNA and RNA
D
None of these
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following is a viral disease of potato ?
A
Early blight of potato
B
Late blight of potato
C
Leaf roll of potato
D
None of the above
Question 135Single Answer
The term Virus' has been derived from a Latin word meaning :
A
poison
B
secretion
C
cell
D
venom
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of DNA containing plant virus ?
A
Tobacco mosaic virus
B
Potato mosaic virus
C
Cauliflower mosaic virus
D
Tomato mosaic virus
Question 137Single Answer
Rabies is caused by :
A
viruses
B
slime moulds
C
fungi
D
bacterium
Question 138Single Answer
A clear area produced when bacteriophages lyse bacterial cells growing on a culture medium is called a?
A
Plaque
B
Colony
C
Streak
D
Capsule
Question 139Single Answer
An antiviral substance produced by many vertebrates in response to viral infection for resisting the multiplication of viruses is known as :
A
antivirin
B
antigen
C
virion
D
interferon
Question 140Single Answer
Viruses with two types of symmetry, i.e., icosahedral head and helical tail are called :
A
picornaviruses
B
binal viruses
C
riboviruses
D
none of these
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following is a Capsid ?
A
Protein part of virus
B
Nucleic part of virus
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of these
Question 142Single Answer
A stage in the replication of virus, when the cell wall of host is ruptured is known as :
A
lesion
B
lysis
C
autolysis
D
haemolysis
Question 143Single Answer
Which metabolic capability is absent in viruses?
A
Independent ATP-generating metabolism
B
Genetic mutation
C
Genome replication within a suitable host
D
Assembly of progeny virions inside host cells
Question 144Single Answer
The exception to the cell theory of Schleiden and Schwann are :
A
viruses
B
bacteria
C
algae
D
fungi
Question 145Single Answer
An extreme example of latency in which the DNA of the phage is integrated with the DNA of host cell chromosome is :
A
lysis
B
lysogeny
C
prophage
D
attenuated virus
Question 146Single Answer
What generally happens to contractile-vacuole activity when a freshwater Amoeba is transferred to a sufficiently hypertonic saline solution?
A
It increases rapidly
B
It remains unchanged
C
It decreases markedly or may cease
D
The vacuole divides repeatedly
Question 147Single Answer
What is the median adhesive pad located between the two terminal claws of a cockroach leg called?
A
Unguis
B
Arolium
C
Tibial spur
D
Cercus
Question 148Single Answer
The binomial system of Carolus Linnaeus was devoid of which of the following categories ?
A
Genus and species
B
Class and order
C
Phylum and family
D
Kingdom and class
Question 149Single Answer
The mouthparts of a cockroach are adapted primarily for which mode of feeding?
A
Biting and chewing
B
Piercing and sucking
C
Siphoning
D
Sponging
Question 150Single Answer
Which mosquito is the biological vector responsible for natural transmission of human malaria?
A
Male Culex
B
Female Culex
C
Female Aedes
D
Female Anopheles
Question 151Single Answer
Amniota group includes :
A
Aves and Reptiles
B
Pisces, Amphibia and Reptiles
C
Amphibia, Reptiles and Aves
D
Reptiles, Aves and Mammalia
Question 152Single Answer
Which combination correctly represents the principal mouthparts of a cockroach?
A
Labrum, mandibles, first maxillae, labium and hypopharynx
B
Labrum, antennae, tibia, labium and cerci
C
Mandibles, antennae, femur, maxillae and labium
D
Labrum, wings, mandibles, hypopharynx and tibia
Question 153Single Answer
In a typical winged insect, the two pairs of wings are borne on which thoracic segments?
A
Prothorax and mesothorax
B
Mesothorax and metathorax
C
Prothorax and metathorax
D
Prothorax and first abdominal segment
Question 154Single Answer
Which is true ?
A
Pisces, Reptiles and birds are poikilotherms
B
Pisces, Amphibians and Reptiles are Anamniota
C
Aves, Mammals and Reptiles are homeotherms
D
Reptiles, Aves and Mammais are Amniota
Question 155Single Answer
Which sequence correctly represents the general forward flow of haemolymph through the dorsal vessel of a cockroach?