Latest HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Concerned Subject, General Knowledge of Himachal Pradesh, Current Affairs, Everyday Science, Logical Reasoning, Social Science, General English & General Hindi
Question Bank HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam - English
The idea that reacher should teach and even use only those words and sentences which can be empirically verified to be true or false is mooted by which of the following philosophy?
A
Logical analysis
B
Logical empiricism
C
Logical positivism
D
Positive relativism
Question 2Single Answer
Which one of the following thinkers is not related to the movement of logical analysis, logical positivism and logical empiricism ?
A
Henry Bergson
B
Bertrand Russel
C
A. J. Ayer
D
L. Wittgenstein
Question 3Single Answer
Monitorial system of class administration was practised by :
A
Buddhist Education
B
Vedantic Education
C
Islamic Education
D
Vedic Education
Question 4Single Answer
A teacher applies his/her understanding of philosophy to slove the problem of truancy among students. This may be called his/her :
A
Philosophy of Education
B
Philosophy in Education
C
Philosophy for Education
D
Philosophy and Education
Question 5Single Answer
'No ifs and buts' but categorial and imperative form of truth should be the guiding principle of life for students - has been the dictum of :
A
Kant
B
Hume
C
Hegel
D
Moore
Question 6Single Answer
Teacher with pragmatic orientation will hesitate to rely on the :
A
Voice of inner soul
B
Routine practice
C
Felt needs
D
End results
Question 7Single Answer
Which of the following will not be in conformity with the tenets of realistic School of Education?
A
Traits are inherited by the child
B
Learning is a behavioural event
C
Teacher's support is helpful in Learner's growth
D
Learner has to be left on his/her own fate
Question 8Single Answer
In the following list of existentialist thinkers, the idea of god was accepted by whom?
A
Kierkgaard
B
Sartre
C
Karl Jaspers
D
Martin Buber
Question 9Single Answer
Assertion (A) : A vedantic teacher may not mind consuming material goods. Reason (R) : Maya is deceptive and hence cannot be relied upon.
Which of the following option is correct.
A
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason.
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason.
C
Both (A) and (R) are not true.
D
(R) is true but cannot be the reason for (A).
Question 10Single Answer
Match the item of List-I with that of List-II and select the appropriate code. List-I List-II
(a) Gandhiji (i) Integral Education
(b) Tagore (ii) Naturalistic Education
(c) Aurobindo (iii) Negative Education
(d) Vivekananda (iv) Basic Education
(v) Man Making Education
(vi) Instinctive Education
Which sequence is correct?
A
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (vi) (ii) (v)
B
(iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
C
(iv) (ii) (i) (v)
D
(v) (vi) (i) (iii)
Question 11Single Answer
The modern sociologist is more concerned with :
A
Study of the social development of man and institutions
B
Study of the impact of science and industrial revolution on social and economic conditons
C
Study of the social life of its members
D
Study of the contemporary societies and the current problems
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following is not the aspects of child development?
A
Physical development
B
Social development
C
Cognitive development
D
Maturity
Question 13Single Answer
Development can be described as growth in
A
cognitive state
B
physical state
C
social state
D
All of the above
Question 14Single Answer
Which of the following is not correct about meaning of development?
A
It is a series of changes as a result of maturity
B
It is a series of changes as a result of experience
C
It is a mere progressive series of changes
D
None of the above
Question 15Single Answer
Development sequence starts with ...... and ends with ......
A
ovum-sperm, zygote
B
ovum - sperm, blastocyst
C
blastocyst, zygote
D
ovum - sperm, fertilisation
Question 16Single Answer
The feeling of shame and pride develops in ........ stage.
A
infancy
B
childhood
C
adolescence
D
adulthood
Question 17Single Answer
The major difference about the concept of development between JE Anderson and E Hurlock is that Anderson considers it as ......... and Hurlock considers it as ...
A
growth and behavioural changes, processes for maturing an organism
B
growth and behavioural changes, growth and changes relating to maturity
C
growth and changes relating to maturity processes for maturing an organism
D
None of the above
Question 18Single Answer
Which of the given statement is partially correct about the characteristics of development?
A
Each phase of development has its own variable
B
Development is a process that is continuous predictable and has individual differences
C
Each phase of development is with its own characteristic behaviour
D
Development is affected by cultural changes to a certain extent
Question 19Single Answer
Consider the statement about development in human beings
I. Upto adolescence.
II. Upto adulthood.
III. Throughout life.
Which of the statement(s) given above is correct?
A
Only I
B
Only II
C
Only III
D
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
Consider the given statement(s)
I. Mental development states that sensation is a gateway of knowledge.
II. Motor development accounts for the strength and speed.
III. Change in the individual behaviour due to maturation is learning.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A
Only I
B
Only Il
C
Only III
D
All of these
Question 21Single Answer
Choose the incorrect matching with the help of given codes
I. Physical nervous system and development endocrine glands
II. Adolescence love for exploration.
III. Early childhood : sensitive language development period.
A
Codes
l is incorrect matching
B
Both I, II are incorrect matching
C
Both II, III are incorrect matching
D
None of the above
Question 22Single Answer
Early childhood period is
A
sensitive to language development
B
crucial for maturity level
C
meant for learning through the forced behaviour
D
is complex in terms of growth and development cognitively
Question 23Single Answer
The age group 6 to 11 years falls under
A
early childhood
B
pre-natal age
C
later childhood
D
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
Consider the following statement(s)
I. Physical health and mental abilities are influencer of emotional development.
II. Fulfilling social expectations comes under social development.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A
Only I
B
Only II
C
Neither I nor II
D
Both I and II
Question 25Single Answer
In which of the following stages do children become active members of their peer group?
A
Adolescence
B
Adulthood
C
Early childhood
D
Childhood
Question 26Single Answer
Which of the following statements is not correct about development?
A
Each phase of the development has hazards
B
Development is not aided by stimulation
C
Development is affected by cultural changes
D
Each phase of the development has characteristic behavior
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following statements is not true about development?
A
Development is the product of interaction
B
Development follows an orderly sequence
C
Development is individualised process
D
Development proceeds from specific to general
Question 28Single Answer
Which one of the following statements best sums up the relationship between development and learning?
A
Development is independent of learning
B
Learning trails behind development
C
Learning and development are synonymous terms
D
Learning and development are inter-related in a complex manner
Question 29Single Answer
Which of the following development tasks is not appropriate to the late childhood?
A
Learning physical skills necessary for ordinary games
B
Achieving a masculine or feminine social role
C
Achieving personal independence
D
Learning to get along with age-mates
Question 30Single Answer
The meaning of development is
A
progressive series of changes
B
progressive series of changes as a result of motivation
C
progressive series of changes as a result of motivation and experience
D
series of changes as a result of maturation and experience
Question 31Single Answer
The best method to study growth and development of the child is
A
psychoanalytic method
B
comparative method
C
development method
D
statistical method
Question 32Single Answer
Which is the main objective of research?
A
To review the literature
B
To summarize what is already known
C
To get an academic degree
D
To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Question 33Single Answer
Sampling error decreases with the
A
decrease in sample size
B
increase in sample size
C
process of randomization
D
process of analysis
Question 34Single Answer
The principles of fundamental research are used in
A
action research
B
applied research
C
philosophical research
D
historical research
Question 35Single Answer
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
A
Passive audience
B
Active audience
C
Positive audience
D
Negative audience
Question 36Single Answer
Classroom communication can be described as
A
Exploration
B
Institutionalisation
C
Unsignified narration
D
Discourse
Question 37Single Answer
Ideological codes shape our collective
A
Productions
B
Perceptions
C
Consumptions
D
Creations
Question 38Single Answer
In communication, myths have power, but are
A
Uncultural.
B
Insignificant.
C
imprecise.
D
Unpreferred.
Question 39Single Answer
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
A
Samachar
B
API
C
Hindustan Samachar
D
Samachar Bharati
Question 40Single Answer
Organisational communication can also be equated with
A
intra-personal communication
B
inter-personal communication
C
group communication
D
mass communication
Question 41Single Answer
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
A
Contradictory
B
Contrary
C
Sub-contrary
D
Sub-alternation
Question 42Single Answer
Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak. Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
A
Archana
B
Bulbul
C
Ananya
D
Krishna
Question 43Single Answer
A stipulative definition may be said to be
A
Always true
B
Always false
C
Sometimes true, sometimes false
D
Neither true nor false
Question 44Single Answer
Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
A
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2006
B
Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2003
C
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2002
D
Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Question 45Single Answer
When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
A
Circular argument
B
Inductive argument
C
Deductive argument
D
Analogical argument
Question 46Single Answer
A workshop is
A
a conference for discussion on a topic.
B
a meeting for discussion on a topic.
C
a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
D
a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Question 47Single Answer
A working hypothesis is
A
a proven hypothesis for an argument.
B
not required to be tested.
C
a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
D
a scientific theory.
Question 48Single Answer
Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type of argument is contained in the above passage?
A
Deductive
B
Astrological
C
Analogical
D
Mathematical
Question 49Single Answer
Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
All saints are religious. (major)
Some honest persons are saints.(minor)Codes:
A
Codes:
All saints are hones.
B
Some saints are honest.
C
Some honest persons are religious.
D
All religious persons are honest.
Question 50Single Answer
In the process of communication, which one of the following is in chronological order?
A
Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
B
Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
C
Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
D
Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Important Questions Package
HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy HPRCA TGT Non Medical Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in HPRCA TGT Non Medical question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
2.
HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam - Hindi
Description : 2000 Question with Answer.
₹151[₹500]
3.
HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
4.
HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer.
₹151[₹500]
5.
HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
6.
HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
7.
HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
8.
HPRCA TGT Non Medical Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
Concerned Subject
Question 51Single Answer
Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
A
Dr. Annie Besant
B
James Augustus Hicky
C
Lord Cripson
D
A.O. Hume
Question 52Single Answer
Fine arts and aesthetics are given top priority in the curriculum by :
A
Naturalism
B
Existentialism
C
Idealism
D
Pragmatism
Question 53Single Answer
Which of the following schools of philosophy integrates students' capacities, interests, habits with social participation ?
A
Pragmatism
B
Realism
C
Naturalism
D
Idealism
Question 54Single Answer
Epistemology is the branch of philosophy which deals with the theories of :
A
Realitty
B
Existence
C
Knowledge
D
Values
Question 55Single Answer
'Internal criticism' is a required step in :
A
Experimental Research
B
Historical Research
C
Descriptive Research
D
Philosophical Research
Question 56Single Answer
A common feature of Hinduism, Buddism and Jainism is belief about :
A
the unreality of the world
B
the existence of God
C
the soul
D
karma and rebirth
Question 57Single Answer
Which of the following is not the purpose of educational philosophy ?
A
To professionalize the job of teaching
B
To increase the teachers love of and control over the students
C
To critically examine assumptions behind educational practice
D
To clarify values and aims in teaching.
Question 58Single Answer
Of Froebel's idealism it can be said that :
A
education is not a process of unflodment
B
learning unites knowledge, feelings and doing
C
education cannot be a process of self realination
D
the notion of self activity is limited to manual activity is limited to manual activity
Question 59Single Answer
The study of philosophy should be considered important for prospective teachers because:
A
Philosophy gives a broader perspective of educational issues and concepts.
B
Philosophy helps in making a wise person.
C
Philosophy brings clarity in educational concepts.
D
Philosophy provides a frameworkfor viewing educational problems in true prospective.
Question 60Single Answer
Match the following : List-I List-II (Characteristic) (Philosophy)
I. Learning by doing 1. Naturalism
II. Eduction through Environment 2. Idealism
III. Realizatiion of truth, beauty and 3. Pragmatism
goodness
IV. "World as it is here and now" 4. Realism
5. Existentialism
A
Code :
I II III IV
3 1 2 4
B
1 4 2 3
C
1 3 2 4
D
3 2 4 5
Question 61Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 62Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 63Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 64Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 65Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 66Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 67Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 68Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 69Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 71Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 72Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 73Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 74Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 75Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 76Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 77Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 78Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 79Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 80Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Question 81Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 82Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 83Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 84Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 85Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 86Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 87Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 88Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 89Single Answer
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A
[ML–2 T–2]
B
[ML–2 T–1]
C
[ML–1 T–1]
D
[ML–1 T–2]
Question 90Single Answer
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A
[M0L–1T]
B
[MLT–1]
C
[M0 L–1T0]
D
[ML0 T2]
Question 91Single Answer
'Farad' is the unit of
A
resistance
B
conductance
C
capacitance
D
inductance
Question 92Single Answer
S.I. unit of surface tension is
A
degree/cm
B
N/m
C
N/m²
D
Nm
Question 93Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimension ?
A
Potential energy and Kinetic energy
B
Density and specific gravity
C
Focal length and height
D
Gravitational force and frictional force
Question 94Single Answer
Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure ?
A
Angular momentum
B
Stress
C
Strain
D
Work
Question 95Single Answer
The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for
A
Holm
B
Halogen
C
Henry
D
Hertz
Question 96Single Answer
Light year is a measure of
A
time
B
distance
C
total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year
D
average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year
Question 97Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a dimension less quantity ?
A
Strain
B
Relative density
C
Frequency
D
Angle
Question 98Single Answer
The dimensions of universal gas constant are
A
[L² M¹ T–2 K–1]
B
[L¹ M² T–2 K–1]
C
[L¹ M¹ T–2 K–1]
D
[L² M² T–2 K–1]
Question 99Single Answer
The dimensions of magnetic moment are
A
[L²A¹]
B
[L²A–1]
C
[L²/A³]
D
[LA²]
Question 100Single Answer
The dimensions of Wien's constant are
A
[ML0TK]
B
[M0LT0K]
C
[M0L0TK]
D
[MLTK]
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 102Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 103Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 104Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 106Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 107Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 108Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 109Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 110Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 111Single Answer
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A
Cyanohydrin
B
Dextran
C
Cyclohexane
D
Cyclonite
Question 112Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A
Phosphorus trichloride
B
Mercuric oxide
C
Graphite
D
Nitroglycerine
Question 113Single Answer
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A
Zinc and barium borosilicate
B
Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C
Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D
Pure silica and zinc oxide
Question 114Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A
Crystalline solid
B
Super cooled liquid
C
Condensed gas
D
Liquid crystal
Question 115Single Answer
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A
Ammonium nitrate
B
Ammonium sulphide
C
Ammonium phosphate
D
Ammonium sulphate
Question 116Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
A
Lithium
B
Sodium
C
Rubidium
D
Caesium
Question 117Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
A
It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
B
It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
C
It is used for disinfecting drinking water
D
It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Question 118Single Answer
Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
A
hard glass have Na in place of K
B
hard glass having K in place of Na
C
hard glass having both Na and K
D
None of the above
Question 119Single Answer
A complete fertilizer provides
A
N,P, K
B
S, K, N
C
S, B, K
D
N, S, P
Question 120Single Answer
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
A
sodium hydrogen phthalate
B
magnesium hydroxide
C
calcium hydroxide
D
manganese acetate
Question 121Single Answer
The following three aspects of intelligence are dealt by Sternberg's triarchic theory except
A
componential
B
social
C
experiential
D
contextual
Question 122Single Answer
Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences emphasizes
A
general intelligence
B
common abilities required in school
C
the unique abilities of each individual
D
conditioning skills in students
Question 123Single Answer
In order to avoid gender stereotyping in class, a teacher should
A
try to put both boys and girls in nontraditional roles.
B
appreciate students' good work by saying 'good girl' or 'good boy'.
C
discourage girls from taking part in wrestling.
D
encourage boys to take risk and be bold.
Question 124Single Answer
Schools should cater to Individual differences to
A
narrow the gap between individual students.
B
even out abilities and performance of students.
C
understand why students are able or unable to learn.
D
make individual students feel exclusive.
Question 125Single Answer
What kind of support can a school provide to address the individual differences in students ?
A
Follow a child-centered curriculum and provide multiple learning opportunities to students
B
Apply every possible measure to remove the individual differences in students
C
Refer slow learners to special schools
D
Follow same level of curriculum for all students
Question 126Single Answer
"Readiness for learning " refers to
A
general ability level of students
B
present cognitive level of students in the learning continuum
C
satisfying nature of the act of learning
D
Thorndike's Law of Readiness
Question 127Single Answer
Learning disabilities may occur due to all of the following except
A
Cerebral dysfunction
B
Emotional disturbance
C
Behavioural disturbance
D
Cultural factors
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following is appropriate for environment conducive to thinking and learning in children ?
A
Passive listening for long periods of time
B
Home assignments given frequently
C
Individual tasks done by the learners
D
allowing students to take some decisions about what to learn and how to learn
Question 129Single Answer
The following are the steps in the process of problem solving except
A
Identification of a problem
B
Breaking down the problem into smaller parts
C
Explore possible strategies
D
Anticipate outcomes
Question 130Single Answer
Which of the following cognitive verbs are used to analyse the information given ?
A
Identify
B
Differentiate
C
Classify
D
Describe
Question 131Single Answer
Understanding Human Growth and Development enables a teacher to
A
gain control of learners' emotions while teaching.
B
be clear about teaching diverse learners.
C
tell students how they can improve their lives.
D
practice her teaching in an unbiased way.
Question 132Single Answer
Which one of the following is true about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child ?
A
The relative contributions of peers and genes are not additive.
B
Heredity and environment do not operate together.
C
Propensity is related to environment while actual development requires heredity.
D
Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each in the development of a child.
Question 133Single Answer
Socialization is
A
Rapport between teacher and taught
B
Process of modernization of society
C
Adaptation of social norms
D
Change in social norms
Question 134Single Answer
A teacher wishes to help her students to appreciate multiple views of a situation. She provides her students multiple opportunities to debate on this situation in different groups. According to Vygotsky's perspective, her students will _____ various views and develop multiple perspectives of the situation on their own.
A
internalize
B
construct
C
operationalize
D
rationalize
Question 135Single Answer
Sita has learned to eat rice and dal with her hand. When she is given dal and rice, she mixes rice and dal and starts eating. She has eating rice and dal into her schema for doing things.
A
Accommodated
B
Assimilated
C
Appropriated
D
Initiated
Question 136Single Answer
Theory of multiple intelligences implies the following except
A
intelligence is a distinct set of processing operations used by an individual to solve problems
B
disciplines should be presented in a numbers of ways
C
learning could be assessed through a variety of means
D
emotional intelligence is not related to IQ
Question 137Single Answer
A child of 16 years scores 75 in an IQ test; his mental age will be ____ years.
A
12
B
8
C
14
D
15
Question 138Single Answer
Which one of the following optimizes motivation to learn ?
A
Personal satisfaction in meeting targets
B
Extrinsic factor
C
Motivation to avoid failure
D
Tendency to choose very easy or difficult goals
Question 139Single Answer
Smallest unit of meaning in a language is
A
pragmatics
B
syntax
C
morpheme
D
phoneme
Question 140Single Answer
IQ scores are generally _____ correlated with academic performance.
A
least
B
perfectly
C
highly
D
moderately
General Knowledge of Himachal Pradesh
Question 141Single Answer
What was the growth rate of H.P. in economic sector in Fiscal Year 2012-13 ?
A
5.7%
B
5.9%
C
6.1%
D
6.0%
Question 142Single Answer
What was the annual growth rate in primary sector in H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
9.6%
B
12.5%
C
14.9%
D
15.3%
Question 143Single Answer
As per Economic Survey of 2012-13, what was the contribution of ag culture sector in the revenue of H.P. ?
A
8.32
B
10.87%
C
12.25
D
14.42%
Question 144Single Answer
As per Economic Survey of the year 2015-16, what percentage downfall was recorded in primary sector in H.P. in comparison with 2014-15 ?
A
-1.3%
B
-1.7%
C
-1.9%
D
-2.3%
Question 145Single Answer
What was the estimated growth rate of H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
3.5%
B
5.9%
C
6.2%
D
6.6%
Question 146Single Answer
What was per capita income (at current prices) of H.P. during 2012-13 ?
A
Rs. 75185
B
Rs. 78210
C
Rs. 80370
D
Rs. 83899
Question 147Single Answer
What was the economic growth rate of H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
5.5%
B
5.9%
C
6.7%
D
6.2%
Question 148Single Answer
First State, 'nance Commission of H.P. was set up in
A
1993
B
1994
C
1995
D
1996
Question 149Single Answer
During the year 2012-13, in which sector of economy in H.P. highest growth was recorded in domestic product ?
A
Primary Sector
B
Scoial Service Sector
C
Transport and Trade
D
Finance & Real Estate
Question 150Single Answer
What was per capita income of H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
Rs. 55,472
B
Rs. 75,380
C
Rs. 85,792
D
Rs. 95,582
Current Affairs
Question 151Single Answer
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat
Question 152Single Answer
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan
Question 153Single Answer
Where was the 2026 SCO Leaders’ Summit held?
A
Tashkent
B
Bishkek
C
Dushanbe
D
Astana
Question 154Single Answer
India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?
A
Strategic Partnership
B
Economic Partnership
C
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D
Defence Partnership
Question 155Single Answer
Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?
A
ONGC and IOCL
B
GAIL and NTPC
C
PNGRB and EESL
D
HPCL and BPCL
Question 156Single Answer
In which state was a National Centre of Excellence for Swimming established by the Sports Authority of India?
A
Kerala
B
Manipur
C
Assam
D
Odisha
Question 157Single Answer
What is the proposed special feature of Bihar’s new Mahila Vishwavidyalaya?
A
Only online education
B
All students and staff will be women
C
Only foreign students
D
It will focus only on engineering
Question 158Single Answer
How many PM Jan Dhan Yojana accounts had been opened as of 28 August 2026?
A
39.09 crore
B
59.09 crore
C
49.09 crore
D
69.09 crore
Question 159Single Answer
How much did India’s coconut product exports rise to in FY 2025–26?
A
₹4,349 crore
B
₹5,038 crore
C
₹7,038 crore
D
₹6,038 crore
Question 160Single Answer
Which company announced an investment of up to ₹18,268 crore in Jio Credit Limited?
A
Bank of America
B
Goldman Sachs
C
HSBC
D
Morgan Stanley
Everyday Science
Question 161Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 162Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 163Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 164Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 165Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 166Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
A
Cholesterol
B
Glycoplids
C
Proline
D
Phospholipids
Question 167Single Answer
The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
A
S–phase
B
G1–phase
C
G2–phase
D
M-phase
Question 168Single Answer
During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?
A
Phophase
B
Metaphase
C
Anaphase
D
Telophase
Question 169Single Answer
Lysosome arises from
A
endoplasmic reticulum
B
golgi apparatus
C
nucleus
D
mitochondria
Question 170Single Answer
The correct sequence of cell cycle is
A
S, G1, G2, M
B
S, M, G1, G2
C
G1, S, G2, M
D
M, G1, G2, S
Logical Reasoning
Question 171Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 172Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 173Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 174Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 175Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 176Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 177Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 178Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 179Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 180Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Social Science
Question 181Single Answer
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
A
Leeds and Manchester
B
Bristol and Manchester
C
Carlisle and Leeds
D
Chester and Leeds
Question 182Single Answer
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
A
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B
Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C
Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D
None of these
Question 183Single Answer
What is Urbanization?
A
Migration of population from rural to urban area
B
Migration of people from urban to rural
C
Migration of people from one country to another
D
Migration of population from one state to another one
Question 184Single Answer
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
A
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C
a and b both
D
None of these
Question 185Single Answer
Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay
A
i and ii
B
i, iv and ii
C
i, ii and iii
D
i, ii, iii and iv
Question 186Single Answer
In which year Delhi became the capital of British India?
A
1916
B
1913
C
1915
D
1911
Question 187Single Answer
When was Shahjahanabad built?
A
by ShahJahan in 1640
B
by ShahJahan in 1638
C
by ShahJahan in 1639
D
None of these
Question 188Single Answer
Before Delhi, which city was the capital of British India?
A
Calcutta
B
Madras
C
Bombay
D
Agra
Question 189Single Answer
What is Gulfaroshan?
A
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Patna during 16th century
B
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 18th century
C
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 11th century
D
All of these
Question 190Single Answer
Which period was referred as Delhi renaissance?
A
1857-1860
B
1860-1863
C
1865-1870
D
1830-1857
General English & General Hindi
Question 191Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 192Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 193Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 194Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 195Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 196Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 197Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 198Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 199Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 200Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
B and A
B, then
R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
B 
A