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HPSC Food Safety Officer Exam - English

Duration: 120 Β· Questions: 200 Β· Max Marks: 200 Β· Language: 1

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Reasoning

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
12
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
13
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
14
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
15
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
16
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
17
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
18
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
19
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
20
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
21
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
22
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
23
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet  following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
  1. A.P                 
  2. B.Q            
  3. C.B              
  4. D.K              
  5. E.None of these
24
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than Four
25
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
26
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
27
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
28
How many such pairs of letters are  there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
29
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
30
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
31
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
32
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
33
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
34
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
35
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
36
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
37
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.X
  3. C.A
  4. D.E
  5. E.K
38
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
39
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
40
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
  1. A.CAKNCA
  2. B.CADMNO
  3. C.CAKNIT
  4. D.JAKINS

Quantitative Aptitude

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
11
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
12
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
13
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
14
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
15
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
16
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
17
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
18
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
19
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
20
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
21
16.928 + 24.7582  5.015 =?
  1. A.20   
  2. B.24
  3. C.22
  4. D.26
22
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/4
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
  4. D.5/8
23
Which is greater ?
  1. A.11/13
  2. B.12/15
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
24
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
  1. A.0
  2. B.1
  3. C.Same
  4. D.Prime
25
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
  1. A.
    10
  2. B.100
  3. C.1000
  4. D.10000
26
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
  1. A.1
  2. B.10
  3. C.Infinite
  4. D.None

     
27
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
  1. A.12345
  2. B.1331
  3. C.1234
  4. D.1213
28
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
  1. A.1
  2. B.3
  3. C.7
  4. D.9

     
29
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
  1. A.4
  2. B.8
  3. C.16
  4. D.32
30
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
  1. A.3
  2. B.4
  3. C.5
  4. D.6
     
31
Which of the following is composite ?
  1. A.
    17
  2. B.19
  3. C.21
  4. D.23
32
What is √0.0009 ?
  1. A.0.003
  2. B.0.03
  3. C.0.3
  4. D.0.09
     
33
What is √1156 ?
  1. A.32
  2. B.34
  3. C.36
  4. D.38
34
What is √2025 ?
  1. A.35
  2. B.40
  3. C.45
  4. D.50
35
What is (51^2) ?

  1. A.2601
  2. B.2501
  3. C.2551
  4. D.2651
     
36
7 8 18 57 ?
  1. A.244 
  2. B.174
  3. C.186   
  4. D.none of these
37
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
  1. A.25 years 
  2. B.27 years
  3. C.26 years
  4. D.24 years
38
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
  1. A.2 
  2. B.-1
  3. C.1 
  4. D.-2
39
How many factors does 100 have ?
  1. A.6
  2. B.7
  3. C.8
  4. D.9
40
If x = a – b, y = b – c, z = c – a, then the numerical value of the algebraic expression x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz will be
  1. A.a + b + c    
  2. B.Zero
  3. C.4 (a + b + c) 
  4. D.3 abc

General English

1
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
2
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
3
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
  1. A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
4
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
  1. A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
  2. B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
  3. C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
  4. D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
5
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
  1. A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
  2. B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
  3. C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
  4. D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them. 
6
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
  1. A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
  2. B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
  3. C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
  4. D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
7
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
  1. A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
  2. B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
  3. C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
  4. D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
8
We shall invite Suresh.
  1. A.Suresh would be invited by us
  2. B.Suresh would have been invited by us
  3. C.Suresh will be invited by us
  4. D.Suresh will have been invited by us
9
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
  1. A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
  2. B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
  3. C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
  4. D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
10
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow. 
  1. A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
  2. B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
  3. C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
  4. D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
11
Why did break the vase?
  1. A.why is the vase broken by him
  2. B.why was the vase broken by him
  3. C.why had been the vase broken by him
  4. D.why has been the vase broken by him
12
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
  1. A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
  2. B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
  3. C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
  4. D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
13
The baby really enjoys that music.
  1. A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
  2. B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
  3. C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
  4. D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
14
The weather disrupted the final match.
  1. A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
  2. B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
  3. C.The final match was disrupted by the weather. 
  4. D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
15
The management committee is required to publish a report every year. 
  1. A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
  2. B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
  3. C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
  4. D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
16
Preeti ran the race in record time.
  1. A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
  2. B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
  3. C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
  4. D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
17
I shall have written the full thesis by December
  1. A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
  2. B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
  3. C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
  4. D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
18
One must keep one’s promises.
  1. A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
  2. B.One’s promises had to be kept.
  3. C.Promises must be kept.
  4. D.Promises have to be kept by one.
19
I read the story in one night.
  1. A.The story had been read by me in one night.
  2. B.The story has been read by me in one night
  3. C.n one night the story has been read by me.
  4. D.the story was read by me in one night
20
We must take care of the old.
  1. A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
  2. B.The old must be taken care of by us. 
  3. C.Those who are old need care by us
  4. D.The old should be taken care of by us.
21
My father generously donated money to the church.
  1. A.Money is generously being donated to te church by my father.
  2. B.Money has been generously donated to the church by my father.
  3. C.Money had been generously donated to the church by my father.
  4. D.Money was generously donated to the church by my father.
22
We will send you your laboratory reports as soon as they are ready
  1. A.you would be sent your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
  2. B.Your laboratory reports will be sent to you as soon as they are ready.
  3. C.You would be send your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
  4. D.Your laboratory reports should be sent to you as soon as they will be ready.
23
I saw the master conducting the orchestra.
  1. A.I saw that the orchestra was being conducted by the master.
  2. B.I saw the orchestra being conducted by te master
  3. C.The master was seen conducting the orchestra by me.
  4. D.The master was conducting the orchestra and I saw that.
24
The dog is being fed by us.
  1. A.We fed the dog.
  2. B.We have had been feeding the dog.
  3. C.We are feeding the dog 
  4. D.We had been feeding the dog
25
When did Rohit return my bike?
  1. A.When was my bike returned by Rohit?
  2. B.When was it that Rohit returned my bike?
  3. C.Rohit returned my bike when?
  4. D.When did my bike come back from Rohit?
26
They are going to watch a drama tomorrow.
  1. A.A drama is going to be watched by them tomorrow.
  2. B.A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.
  3. C.A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.
  4. D.A drama was going to be watched by them tomorrow.
      Tomorrow the drama is going to be watched by them.
27
The event manager is making all the reservations.
  1. A.All the reservations would be made by the event manager.
  2. B.All the reservations are being made by the event manager.
  3. C.All the reservations would have been made by the event manager.
  4. D.All the reservations will have been made by the event manager.
28
The Marathas surrendered their fort to the Mughals after the war.
  1. A.After the war the Marathas had to surrender their fort to the Mughals.
  2. B.The Mughals after the war took fort surrendered by the Marathas.
  3. C.Their fort was surrendered by the Marathas to the Mughals after the war
  4. D.the Marathas after the war surrendered their fort to the Mughals.
29
Mother filled dark filtered coffee in the cup.
  1. A.The cup was filled with dark filtered coffee by mother.
  2. B.Mother filled in the cup coffee which was dark and filtered coffee.
  3. C.The cup was being by mother with dark filtered coffee.
  4. D.The filtered coffee which was dark was filled into the cup by mother.
30
The most useful gift of my wedding was given to me by my aunt.
  1. A.My aunt gave me the most useful gift of my wedding.
  2. B.My aunt had given me the most useful gift of my wedding.
  3. C.The gift which has been most useful has been given to me by my aunt.
  4. D.My aunt has given me the most useful gift of my wedding.
31
The painting had not been painted by the famous painter. 
  1. A.The panting had never been painted the painting.
  2. B.The painter who was famous not had painted the painting.
  3. C.The famous painter had not painted te painting
  4. D.The famous painter could not have painted the painting.
32
The Kangaroo carried her baby in her pouch.
  1. A.The baby is carried by the kangaroo in er pouch.
  2. B.The is being carried by the kangaroo in her pouch
  3. C.The baby had been carried by the kangaroo in her pouch.
  4. D.The baby was carried by the kangaroo in her pouch.
33
The painters painted the entire building.
  1. A.The entire building had been painted by the painters.
  2. B.The painters had an entire building painted.
  3. C.The entire building was painted by the painters.
  4. D.The entire building has been painted by the painters.
34
The office boy vacuums and dusts the office every morning.
  1. A.Every morning the office had been vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.
  2. B.Every morning the office is vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.
  3. C.Every morning the office has been vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.
  4. D.Every morning the office has been vacuumed
35
I will wash the car every Sunday. 
  1. A.The car would be washed by me every Sunday.
  2. B.The car will be washed by me every Sunday.
  3. C.Every Sunday the car would be washed by me.
  4. D.The car will have been washed by me every Sunday.
36
The owners remodelled car to help it sell
  1. A.The car was remodelled by the owners to help it sell
  2. B.The car is being remodelled by the owners to help it sell.
  3. C.The car was remodelled by the owners to help it being sold.
  4. D.The car is being remodeled by the owners to help it being sold.
37
The seawater eventually corroded the pillars of the bridge.
  1. A.Eventually the pillars of the bridge are being corroded by the seawater.
  2. B. Eventually the pillars of the bridge have been corroded by the seawater.
  3. C.The pillars of the bridge were eventually corroded by the seawater.
  4. D.The pillars of the bridge have been eventually corroded by the seawater
38
The teacher will give you instructions.
  1. A.Instructions would be given to you by the teacher.
  2. B.Instructions will have been given to you by the teacher.
  3. C.Instructions will be given to you by the teacher.
  4. D.Instructions were given to you by the teacher.
39
It is impossible to do this job.
  1. A.This job is impossible to be done.
  2. B.This job cannot be done with.
  3. C.No one can do this job.
  4. D.This job cannot be done by anyone.
40
Abhinav Bindra won the gold medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.
  1. A.Gold medal was won by Abhinav Bindra at the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.
  2. B.In 2008 at the Beijing Olympic Games Abhinav Bindra had won the Gold medal.
  3. C.At the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games Abhinav Bindra won the Gold medal.
  4. D.Abhinav Bindra must have won at the Beijing Olympics Games which were conducted in 2008.

General Awareness

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
6
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
7
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
8
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
9
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
10
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
11
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
  1. A.National Income Committee
  2. B.Planning Commission
  3. C.Reserve Bank Of India
  4. D.Central Statistical Organisation
12
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
  1. A.April 1951         
  2. B.April 1955
  3. C.April 1957         
  4. D.April 1978
13
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
  1. A.2008     
  2. B.2009
  3. C.2010     
  4. D.2012
14

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

  1. A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
  2. B.Raskhan
  3. C.Rich Khusrow
  4. D.Rich Hasan
15
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
  1. A.Muhammad Hasan
  2. B.Muhammad Hussain
  3. C.Muhammad Khusrow
  4. D.Muhammad Mine
16
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
  1. A.badminton
  2. B.basketball
  3. C.football
  4. D.archery
17
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
  1. A.water polo
  2. B.Rugby
  3. C.Polo
  4. D.baseball
18
What is considered the national game of India ?
  1. A.Field hockey
  2. B.cricket
  3. C.Chess
  4. D.Kabaddi
19
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
  1. A.1946
  2. B.1947
  3. C.1948
  4. D.1950
20
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
  1. A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  3. C.Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
21
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
  1. A.Mahatma Gandhi
  2. B.M.N. Roy
  3. C.Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
22
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
  1. A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  2. B.Swami Vivekananda
  3. C.Rabindranath Tagore
  4. D.Mahatma Gandhi
23
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
  1. A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
  2. B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
  3. C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
  4. D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
24
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
  1. A.BARC
  2. B.ISRO
  3. C.DRDO
  4. D.HAL
25
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
  1. A.1975
  2. B.1965
  3. C.1980
  4. D.1990
26
Which is the longest river in India?
  1. A.Yamuna
  2. B.Ganges
  3. C.Brahmaputra
  4. D.Godavari
27
The Western Ghats are also known as:
  1. A.Sahyadris
  2. B.Vindhyas
  3. C.Satpuras
  4. D.Aravallis
28
Which river is known as the β€˜Sorrow of Bihar’?
  1. A.Ganges
  2. B.Kosi
  3. C.Son
  4. D.Gandak
29
Which was the first Five Year Plan of India?
  1. A.1947-1952
  2. B.1951-1956
  3. C.1956-1961
  4. D.1961-1966
30
The objective of the First Five Year Plan was mainly to:
  1. A.Industrialize India
  2. B.Increase agricultural production
  3. C.Focus on infrastructure development
  4. D.Expand the services sector
31
Which sector was given priority during the Second Five Year Plan?
  1. A.Agriculture
  2. B.Heavy industries
  3. C.Education
  4. D.Infrastructure
32
Haryana was formed as a separate state on?
  1. A.1 November 1966
  2. B.15 August 1947
  3. C.26 January 1950
  4. D.1 November 1956
33
Haryana was carved out from which state?
  1. A.Punjab
  2. B.Uttar Pradesh
  3. C.Rajasthan
  4. D.Himachal Pradesh
34
The formation of Haryana took place under which Act?
  1. A.States Reorganisation Act, 1956
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
35
Haryana came into existence on the recommendation of which commission?
  1. A.Shah Commission
  2. B.Sarkaria Commission
  3. C.Kothari Commission
  4. D.Mandal Commission
36
Which date is celebrated as Haryana Day?
  1. A.2 October
  2. B.15 August
  3. C.26 January
  4. D.1 November
37
Haryana became the ___ state of India after its formation?
  1. A.15th
  2. B.17th
  3. C.16th
  4. D.18th
38
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
  1. A.Nistar
  2. B.Nipun
  3. C.INS Vikrant
  4. D.INS Arihant
39
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
  1. A.27 July 2026
  2. B.29 July 2026
  3. C.31 July 2026
  4. D.30 July 2026
40
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
  1. A.Yash Vir Singh
  2. B.Neeraj Chopra
  3. C.Kishore Jena
  4. D.Rohit Yadav

Professional Knowledge

1
The primary purpose of blanching in food processing is?
  1. A.To inactivate enzymes
  2. B.To improve colour
  3. C.To kill all microorganisms
  4. D.To reduce moisture
2
Blanching is most commonly carried out by?
  1. A.Cold storage
  2. B.Dry heat
  3. C.Microwave only
  4. D.Immersion in hot water or steam
3
Pasteurization is primarily aimed at?
  1. A.Destroying pathogenic microorganisms while preserving quality
  2. B.Achieving commercial sterility
  3. C.Complete enzyme inactivation
  4. D.Removing all water
4
The standard time-temperature combination for HTST pasteurization of milk is?
  1. A.63 Β°C for 30 minutes
  2. B.72 Β°C for 15 seconds
  3. C.100 Β°C for 30 seconds
  4. D.121 Β°C for 15 minutes
5
Sterilization in food processing refers to?
  1. A.Destruction of all microorganisms including spores
  2. B.Only vegetative cells destruction
  3. C.Only enzyme inactivation
  4. D.Only pathogen reduction
6
The typical process for achieving commercial sterility in low-acid canned foods is?
  1. A.Drying at 60 Β°C
  2. B.Pasteurization at 72 Β°C
  3. C.Blanching at 85 Β°C
  4. D.Retorting at 121 Β°C for 3–15 minutes (F0 = 3–12)
7
Water activity (aw) is defined as?
  1. A.Bound water only
  2. B.Total moisture content
  3. C.Free water percentage
  4. D.Ratio of vapour pressure of food to vapour pressure of pure water at same temperature
8
Most bacteria grow best at water activity range of?
  1. A.0.95–0.99
  2. B.0.60–0.75
  3. C.0.40–0.60
  4. D.Below 0.40
9
Moulds and yeasts can grow at lower water activity than most bacteria, typically down to?
  1. A.0.20
  2. B.0.95–0.99
  3. C.0.40
  4. D.0.61–0.80
10
The lowest water activity at which any microbial growth occurs is approximately?
  1. A.0.85
  2. B.0.75
  3. C.0.60–0.61
  4. D.0.95
11
High-Pressure Processing (HPP) is a?
  1. A.Irradiation method
  2. B.Thermal method
  3. C.Drying method
  4. D.Non-thermal preservation method
12
Typical pressure used in commercial High-Pressure Processing is?
  1. A.50 MPa
  2. B.100–200 MPa
  3. C.1000 MPa
  4. D.400–600 MPa
13
The main advantage of HPP is?
  1. A.Inactivation of microorganisms and enzymes with minimal effect on nutrients and sensory quality
  2. B.Complete colour change
  3. C.High energy consumption
  4. D.Only drying
14
Pulsed Electric Field (PEF) technology inactivates microbes by?
  1. A.Radiation
  2. B.Heat generation
  3. C.Pressure
  4. D.Electroporation of cell membranes
15
Cold Plasma is used for?
  1. A.Freezing
  2. B.Bulk sterilization
  3. C.Drying
  4. D.Surface decontamination of food without heat
16
Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) are?
  1. A.Only hygiene
  2. B.Only post-production checks
  3. C.No preventive
  4. D.Preventive measures to ensure food safety during production
17
Good Hygienic Practices (GHP) focus on?
  1. A.No hygiene
  2. B.Only equipment
  3. C.Personal hygiene, cleaning, pest control and waste disposal
  4. D.Only process
18
The main objective of GMP/GHP implementation is to?
  1. A.Increase cost
  2. B.Prevent contamination and cross-contamination
  3. C.Reduce quality
  4. D.No objective
19
Blanching is commonly applied before?
  1. A.Irradiation
  2. B.Drying only
  3. C.Freezing and canning of vegetables
  4. D.No application
20
The time-temperature combination for LTLT pasteurization of milk is?
  1. A.121 Β°C for 15 minutes
  2. B.72 Β°C for 15 seconds
  3. C.63 Β°C for 30 minutes
  4. D.85 Β°C for 30 seconds
21
Commercial sterility means?
  1. A.No sterility
  2. B.Only pathogen destruction
  3. C.Destruction of all microorganisms capable of growing under normal storage conditions
  4. D.Only vegetative cells
22
Water activity below 0.60 generally inhibits?
  1. A.All microbial growth
  2. B.Only bacteria
  3. C.Only moulds
  4. D.No inhibition
23
Intermediate moisture foods have water activity in the range of?
  1. A.Below 0.60
  2. B.0.95–0.99
  3. C.0.60–0.85
  4. D.Above 0.99
24
High-Pressure Processing is also known as?
  1. A.Irradiation
  2. B.Pascalization
  3. C.Thermal processing
  4. D.Drying
25
The holding time in HPP is typically?
  1. A.1–5 minutes
  2. B.30 minutes
  3. C.1 hour
  4. D.No holding
26
Pulsed Electric Field (PEF) is effective against?
  1. A.No effect
  2. B.Bacterial spores
  3. C.Vegetative bacteria, yeasts and some enzymes
  4. D.Only moulds
27
Cold Plasma generates?
  1. A.Reactive oxygen and nitrogen species for microbial inactivation
  2. B.No species
  3. C.Only heat
  4. D.Only pressure
28
GMP includes?
  1. A.Proper plant layout, sanitation and pest control
  2. B.Only layout
  3. C.No sanitation
  4. D.No pest control
29
GHP is a prerequisite for?
  1. A.HACCP implementation
  2. B.No prerequisite
  3. C.Only GMP
  4. D.No HACCP
30
Cross-contamination can be prevented by?
  1. A.No prevention
  2. B.Proper zoning, colour coding and cleaning schedules
  3. C.Only cleaning
  4. D.No zoning
31
Blanching temperature for most vegetables is?
  1. A.85–100 Β°C
  2. B.50–60 Β°C
  3. C.121 Β°C
  4. D.Below 50 Β°C
32
The purpose of cooling after blanching is to?
  1. A.Only drying
  2. B.Increase cooking
  3. C.No cooling
  4. D.Stop enzyme activity and prevent overcooking
33
HTST pasteurization is preferred over LTLT because?
  1. A.It is slower
  2. B.It causes less flavour change and is more energy efficient
  3. C.No preference
  4. D.More flavour change
34
UHT processing of milk involves?
  1. A.72 Β°C for 15 seconds
  2. B.135–150 Β°C for 2–5 seconds
  3. C.63 Β°C for 30 minutes
  4. D.100 Β°C for 30 minutes
35
The F0 value in sterilization represents?
  1. A.Only temperature
  2. B.No value
  3. C.Equivalent time in minutes at 121.1 Β°C
  4. D.Only time
36
Water activity is measured using?
  1. A.Only thermometer
  2. B.No measurement
  3. C.Hygrometer / water activity meter
  4. D.Only pH meter
37
Foods with aw < 0.60 are microbiologically?
  1. A.Stable
  2. B.Unstable
  3. C.No stability
  4. D.Only chemical stable
38
High-Pressure Processing retains?
  1. A.Fresh-like quality and nutrients
  2. B.No fresh quality
  3. C.Only heat
  4. D.No retention
39
PEF is suitable for?
  1. A.No liquid
  2. B.Solid foods only
  3. C.Liquid foods (juices, milk)
  4. D.Only dry
40
Cold Plasma is effective for?
  1. A.Bulk treatment
  2. B.Surface treatment of fresh produce and packaging
  3. C.No surface
  4. D.Only packaging