Which one of the following organ break fats to produce cholesterol?
A
liver
B
lungs
C
kidney
D
pancreas
Question 2Single Answer
Insulim was discovered by?
A
F. Banting
B
Freaderick Sanger
C
Janer
D
Robert coach
Question 3Single Answer
Digestion of protein starts from-
A
small intestine
B
large intestine
C
mouth
D
stomach
Question 4Single Answer
Bile is produced by-
A
liver
B
kidney
C
Pancreas
D
appendix
Question 5Single Answer
Bile is stored in-
A
liver
B
Kidney
C
pancreas
D
gall bladder
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin E?
A
egg
B
fish
C
meat
D
fresh vegetable
Question 7Single Answer
The term used for bad breath from mouth is?
A
halitosis
B
pyorrhea
C
bromidrosis
D
hyperhidrosis
Question 8Single Answer
The amount of protein required by an Indian adult per days is?
A
1 gm/kg body wt.
B
2gm/kg body wt.
C
1.5gm /kg body wt
D
2.5gm /kg body w.t
Question 9Single Answer
The precursor of vitamin A-
A
carotene
B
retinol
C
calciferol
D
nicotinic acid
Question 10Single Answer
The daily requirement of vitamin D by an adult is-
A
2 microgram /day
B
2.5 microgram /day
C
3 microgram /day
D
4 microgram / day
Question 11Single Answer
Vitamin D deficiency in children causes-
A
osteoporosis
B
rickets
C
bone malignancies
D
osteomalacia
Question 12Single Answer
Vitamin which prevents haemorrhage is-
A
vitamin K
B
vitamin A
C
vitamin D
D
vitamin E
Question 13Single Answer
The vitamin which is essential for proper functioning of nervous system is-
A
vitamin K
B
vitamin A
C
vitamin D
D
vitamin E
Question 14Single Answer
Ber- Beri is caused due to the deficiney of-
A
vitamin B1
B
vitamin B2
C
vitamin B6
D
vitamin B12
Question 15Single Answer
The vitamin which is involved in fat, protein and carbohydrate metabolism is-
A
riboflavin
B
thiamine
C
niacin
D
folic acid
Question 16Single Answer
pellagra is caused due to the deficieny of-
A
niacin
B
ascorbic acid
C
riboflavin
D
pantothenic acid
Question 17Single Answer
The daily requirement of folic acid for an adult is-
A
50 microgram
B
100 microgram
C
300 microgram
D
200 microgram
Question 18Single Answer
Pernicious anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of-
A
vitamin B1
B
vitamin B2
C
vitamin B6
D
vitamin B12
Question 19Single Answer
Parkinson’s disease is due to the loss of one of the following neurotransmitters ?
A
Acetylcholine
B
Dopamine
C
Norepinephrine
D
Serotonin
Question 20Single Answer
According to RDA the normal daily requirement of protein in adult is-
A
1gm/ body w.t
B
2gm /body w.t
C
3gm /body w.t
D
1.5 gm/ body w.t
Question 21Single Answer
The nutritional deficiency conditions that need to be given top priority for remedial action in India today is-
A
xerophthalmia
B
rickets
C
beri- beri
D
impotency
Question 22Single Answer
According to the world Health Organization ( W H O ) the disease which cause the death of the largest number of people today is-
A
AIDS
B
tuberculosis
C
malaria
D
leprosy
Question 23Single Answer
Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of-
A
cumin seed
B
Khesri dal
C
black gram dal
D
maze
Question 24Single Answer
Which of the following protein deficiency disorder is found in children?
A
Kwashiorkor
B
rickets
C
weakness
D
hypertension
Question 25Single Answer
Which vitamin is necessary for visions in dimlight?
A
vitamin A
B
vitamin B
C
vitamin C
D
vitamin D
Question 26Single Answer
Name the person who introduced the term pH ?
A
Arrhenius
B
Sorensen
C
Sidge Wick
D
Linus Pauling
Question 27Single Answer
The deficiency of vitamin D in children results in-
A
rickets
B
night blindness
C
osteomalacia
D
infertility
Question 28Single Answer
The ability of the human body to defend itself against a pathogenic agent ?
A
Resistance
B
Tolerance
C
Immunity
D
Adaptation
Question 29Single Answer
The deficiency of vitamin K results in-
A
bleeding disorder
B
night blindness
C
osteomalacia
D
infertility
Question 30Single Answer
The deficiency of vitamin B1 ( thiamine) results in-
A
Beri – Beri
B
night blindness
C
osteomalacia
D
infertility
Question 31Single Answer
The deficiency of vitamin C results in-
A
rickets
B
night blindness
C
scurvy
D
infertility
Question 32Single Answer
The deficiency of calcium in diet causes-
A
osteoporosis
B
night blindness
C
scurvy
D
infertility
Question 33Single Answer
The deficiency of vitamin folic acid results in-
A
megloblasticanaemia
B
night blindness
C
beri- beri
D
infertility
Question 34Single Answer
The factor which is responsible for absorption of vitamin B12?
A
intrinsic factor
B
acid factor
C
cholecystokinin
D
None of them
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following symptoms is not associated with pellagra?
A
delirium
B
dementia
C
diarrhea
D
dermatitis
Question 36Single Answer
The rich natural source of calcium is-
A
milk
B
egg
C
soft drink
D
chicken
Question 37Single Answer
The deficiency of iodine results in-
A
goiter
B
gout
C
arthritis
D
muscular dystrophy
Question 38Single Answer
The hormone insulin secreted by-
A
pancreas beta cells
B
pancreas alpha calls
C
pancreas gama cells
D
liver
Question 39Single Answer
The hormone glucagon secreted by-
A
pancreas beta cells
B
pancreas alpha calls
C
pancreas gama cells
D
liver
Question 40Single Answer
The type of diet that a nurse should suggest for a jaundice patient would be-
A
low carbohydrate diet
B
low vitamin diet
C
low fat diet
D
high fat diet
Question 41Single Answer
The type of diet that a nurse should suggest for a diabetic patient would be-
A
low carbohydrate diet
B
low vitamin diet
C
high carbohydrate diet
D
high fat diet
Question 42Single Answer
The type of diet that a nurse should suggest for a hypertensive patient would be -
A
low calorie diet
B
low sodium diet
C
low fat diet
D
all of the above
Question 43Single Answer
The type of diet that a nurse should suggest for nephritis patient-
A
high carbohydrate diet
B
low in protein and sodium diet
C
fluid restriction
D
all of the above
Question 44Single Answer
A high fibre diet suggested for constipation patient in based on the fact that-
A
it increase intestinal motility
B
it decrease intestinal motility
C
it works as a digestive enzyme
D
none of them
Question 45Single Answer
A nurse should suggest ------- diet for a tuberculosis patient.
A
low carbohydrate
B
low vitamin
C
low fatty
D
high protein
Question 46Single Answer
Outer coating of capsules is made up of-
A
starch
B
cellulose
C
polyprophylene
D
protein
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following mineral is essential for controlling heart beat?
A
sulphur
B
iodine
C
sodium
D
copper
Question 48Single Answer
Daily intake of protein , recommended for a moderate active woman is-
A
12gram
B
30gram
C
38gram
D
46gram
Question 49Single Answer
Which one of the following is responsible for blue baby syndrome?
A
nitrate
B
fluoride
C
chlorine
D
sodium
Question 50Single Answer
National institute of nutrition is situated in -
A
Hyderabad
B
Delhi
C
Jabalpur
D
Bangalore
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Staff Nurse
Question 51Single Answer
The total number of essential amino acid is-
A
8E, AA
B
12E, AA
C
17E, AA
D
5E, AA
Question 52Single Answer
Essential amino acids are amino acid which is-
A
not synthesized in the body
B
synthesized in the body
C
not essential for the body
D
none of them
Question 53Single Answer
Which of the following vitamin is deficient in Infant?
A
vitamin A
B
vitamin D
C
vitamin E
D
vitamin K
Question 54Single Answer
Wernick’s Korsakoff syndrome is the disease which is caused due to the deficiency of-
A
vitamin B1
B
vitamin B12
C
vitamin K
D
vitamin D
Question 55Single Answer
A mineral that is required for the formation of thyroxin-
A
iodine
B
sodium
C
potassium
D
calcium
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following food borne disease is caused by a protozoa
A
amoebiasis
B
dysentery
C
constipation
D
scabies
Question 57Single Answer
The amount of calories provided by 1gm of fat is-
A
3kcal
B
4kcal
C
9kcal
D
12kcal
Question 58Single Answer
The amount of calories provided by 1gm of alcohol is-
A
3cal.
B
4kcal
C
9kcal
D
12kcal
Question 59Single Answer
The amount of calories provided by 1gm of protein is -
A
3kcal
B
4kcal
C
7kcal
D
9kcal
Question 60Single Answer
Fat digestion occurs in which part of the intestine?
A
jejunum
B
duodenum
C
ilium
D
caecum
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following nutrients is essential for muscle building?
A
carbohydrate
B
protein
C
fat
D
vitamin
Question 62Single Answer
Which of the following is a source of instant energy?
A
carbohydrate
B
protein
C
rat
D
vitamin
Question 63Single Answer
The structural unit of protein is-
A
fatty acid
B
minerals
C
amino acid
D
none of them
Question 64Single Answer
The process of conversion of excess amount of glucose to glycogen is known as -
A
gluconeogenesis
B
glycogenesis
C
glycolysis
D
glycogenolysis
Question 65Single Answer
The normal blood cholesterol level is-
A
100-120mg/100ml
B
120-150mg/100ml
C
150-250mg/100ml
D
100-150mg/100ml
Question 66Single Answer
The richest source of protein in vegetarian diet plan is-
A
milk
B
leafy vegetables
C
pulses
D
soybeans
Question 67Single Answer
The other name of vitamin C is-
A
ascorbic acid
B
carotene
C
retinol
D
none of them
Question 68Single Answer
The cheapest source of protein is-
A
fish
B
ground nut
C
almond
D
chicken
Question 69Single Answer
The diet which should be provided for the anaemic child -
A
peas, chicken, green vegetables
B
rice, dal, chapatti
C
milk, paneer, curd
D
potato, milk, rice
Question 70Single Answer
The main – surgical of celiac disease is-
A
enlarged liver
B
enlarged abdomen
C
enlarged head
D
none of them
Question 71Single Answer
The non –surgical treatment of undescended testes includes-
A
Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
B
Progesterone
C
Androgen
D
Corticosteroid
Question 72Single Answer
The tentative cause of pneumococcal meningitis is-
A
middle ear infection
B
peritonitis
C
orchitis
D
nephritis
Question 73Single Answer
Which colour or light used for treatment of neonatal jaundice?
A
red light
B
white light
C
blue light
D
violet light
Question 74Single Answer
A test that is done on neonates to detect PKU is-
A
Guthrie test
B
mentoux test
C
phenistix test
D
tyrosine test
Question 75Single Answer
The common effect associated with downs syndrome is-
A
hydrocephalus
B
meningitis
C
tetany
D
congenital heart defect
Question 76Single Answer
A child with congenital megacolon is admitted for surgical correction, the enema should be-
A
oil enema
B
soap water enema
C
phosphate enema
D
isotonic saline enema
Question 77Single Answer
The bilirubin encephalopathy due to high concentration of indirect bilirubin on brain and basal ganglia in the neonatal period is-
A
Status epileptics
B
kernicterus
C
physiological jaundice
D
physiological
Question 78Single Answer
Thalassemia is-
A
cooley ‘s anaemia
B
aplastic anaemia
C
sickle cell anaemia
D
megloblasticanaemia
Question 79Single Answer
For the correction of club foot the splint used is-
A
Thomas splint
B
plain splint
C
Dennis Brown Splint
D
Straight Splint
Question 80Single Answer
Pertusis vaccine is contraindicated if the child has-
A
a history of convulsion
B
a history of juvenile diabetes
C
a history of jaundice
D
a history of tuberculosis
Question 81Single Answer
Passive immunity is transferred to neonate from mother as-
A
IGG
B
IGA
C
IGM
D
IGE
Question 82Single Answer
In Identical twin, where the foetuses share common chorion, the number of placenta is ?
A
One
B
Two
C
More than two
D
Two and fused
Question 83Single Answer
Projective vomiting is a characteristic feature of-
A
pyloric stenosis
B
intestinal perforation
C
diverticulum
D
intestinal obstruction
Question 84Single Answer
The organism responsible for causing Chicken pox is-
A
varicella
B
herpes simplex
C
giardia lamblia
D
helicobector pylori
Question 85Single Answer
Strict bed rest is provided to a child with diphtheria because it-
A
may prevent myocarditis
B
prevent lung collapse
C
may prevent joint stiffness
D
provides comfort
Question 86Single Answer
A congenital defect seen in new born due to the failure of oesophagus to develop as a continuous canal is-
A
trachea oesophageal fistula
B
diverticulum
C
anal atresia
D
Stomach ulcer
Question 87Single Answer
Autism can usually be diagnosed when the child is about-
A
1 month
B
2 month
C
2 years
D
14 years
Question 88Single Answer
Malrotation of colon is termed as-
A
Diverticulum
B
Colonic fistula
C
Anal ateresia
D
Volvulus
Question 89Single Answer
A bile or facial matter in vomiting indicates –
A
anal atresia
B
intestinal perforation
C
congenital megacolon
D
oesophageal fistula
Question 90Single Answer
Absence of rectum is-
A
anal atresia
B
anal fistula
C
rectal atresia
D
phimosis
Question 91Single Answer
Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in children below 4 years because-
A
it is a life threatening situation
B
bleeding is not controlled
C
tonsils are a part of the immune system
D
it’s not easy to remove
Question 92Single Answer
A condition in which a protein of lung or the whole lung fails to expand is-
A
emphysema
B
asthma
C
atelectasis
D
distress
Question 93Single Answer
drug of choice in rheumatic fever to control the inflammatory process is-
A
salicylates
B
steroids
C
metrogyI
D
diclofenac sodium
Question 94Single Answer
A defect charaterised by an increase of free fluid in the cranial is-
A
hydrocephalus
B
microcephalus
C
hydrocele
D
plural effusion
Question 95Single Answer
A condition In which Spinal cord and cord membrane protrude through the defect in the laminate protrude the defect in the laminate of the vertebral column is-
A
spina bifida occulta
B
myelomeningoele
C
spina bifida cystic
D
lordosis
Question 96Single Answer
Down syndrome is-
A
duplication of chromosome 21
B
duplication of chromosome 17
C
absence of two chromosomes
D
none of them
Question 97Single Answer
Inflammation of testes is called as-
A
bronchitis
B
orchitis
C
cystitis
D
cholecystitis
Question 98Single Answer
Oral preparation of iron medication is administered between meals along with fruit juices because-
A
vitamin C help for absorption of iron
B
it irritate the intestine
C
it forms acidity
D
it lowers the blood glucose
Question 99Single Answer
The most common form of childhood cancer is-
A
thalassemia
B
leukemia
C
hogdkin ‘s disease
D
paget’s disease
Question 100Single Answer
Liquid diet is advised for a child with otitis media because-
A
chewing difficulty
B
digestion problem
C
maintain fluid balance
D
none of them
Question 101Single Answer
A child with acute leukaemia is on chemotherapy including prednisone – the side effect of prednisone is
A
diarrhea
B
anorexia
C
vomiting
D
mood changes
Question 102Single Answer
The earliest clinical sign in idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome in a young infant is usually
A
sterna and subcostal retraction
B
cyanosis
C
grunting
D
rapid respiration
Question 103Single Answer
The 3 C’s of tracheoesophagealfistula are-
A
coughing , chocking , cyanosis
B
cyanosis , carditis ,chorea
C
coughing, chocking, carditis
D
carditis , chorea, cyanosis
Question 104Single Answer
Ribbon like or pellet like stool is the characteristic of-
A
pyloric stenosis
B
megacolon
C
volvulus
D
anal atresia
Question 105Single Answer
The most serious complication of meningitis in young children is-
A
peripheral circulatory collapse
B
epilepsy
C
growth retardation
D
communicating hydrocephalus
Question 106Single Answer
A viral disease that begins with respiratory inflammation and skin rash and may result in grave complication is-
A
rubella
B
rubeola
C
small pox
D
typhoid
Question 107Single Answer
A foul smelling frothy stool in cystic fibrosis result from presence of large amount of-
A
phenylalanine
B
undigested fat
C
undigested CHO
D
undigested protein
Question 108Single Answer
Dietary treatment of children with PKU includes A-
A
low phenylalanine diet
B
low fat diet
C
low tyrosine diet
D
protein free diet
Question 109Single Answer
Sudden voluntary repetitive movements of voluntary muscle, in children is termed as-
A
pica
B
tic syndrome
C
ecolalia
D
ecoprexia
Question 110Single Answer
A common type of deformity in which the foot it twisted out of its normal shape and positions-
A
congenital club foot
B
talipes calcaneus
C
cleft foot
D
genu valgum
Question 111Single Answer
Which reflex is not found in infant?
A
moro’s reflex
B
pincer grasp reflex
C
papillary reflex
D
rooting reflex
Question 112Single Answer
The normal level of haemoglobin in female is-
A
15-18gm/dl
B
12-16gm/ dl
C
12-14gm/ dl
D
20-24gm/ dl
Question 113Single Answer
Neonates are more susceptible to hypoglycemia because of-
A
immature lungs
B
immature pancreas
C
immature liver
D
immature kidney
Question 114Single Answer
Apgar score was developed by-
A
Sigmund Freud
B
Virginia Apgar
C
Anderson Apgar
D
Jony Alexander
Question 115Single Answer
Vernix caseosa found normally on the skin of new born serves the function of-
A
insulation
B
protection
C
bacteriolytic
D
all of above
Question 116Single Answer
At birth infant is covered with grey white matter is called-
A
lanugo
B
vernixcaseosa
C
white gravidarum
D
oil sebum
Question 117Single Answer
Phototheraphy is provided to infant for treatment of jaundice because-
A
it reduces bilirubin
B
it enhances appetite
C
it reduce RBC destruction
D
none of them
Question 118Single Answer
The commonest site of meningomyocele-
A
lumbosacral region
B
lumbar region
C
sacral region
D
cervical region
Question 119Single Answer
Surgery done to repair cleft lip is-
A
myring go plasty
B
tympanoplasty
C
mandibuloplasty
D
cheiloplasty
Question 120Single Answer
Surgery done for repair cleft palate is-
A
myringgoplasty
B
staphylorrhaphy
C
mandibuloplasty
D
cheiloplasty
General Knowledge, Current Affairs & Everyday Science
Question 121Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 122Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 123Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 124Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 125Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 126Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 127Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 129Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 130Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 131Single Answer
What was the growth rate of H.P. in economic sector in Fiscal Year 2012-13 ?
A
5.7%
B
5.9%
C
6.1%
D
6.0%
Question 132Single Answer
What was the annual growth rate in primary sector in H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
9.6%
B
12.5%
C
14.9%
D
15.3%
Question 133Single Answer
As per Economic Survey of 2012-13, what was the contribution of ag culture sector in the revenue of H.P. ?
A
8.32
B
10.87%
C
12.25
D
14.42%
Question 134Single Answer
As per Economic Survey of the year 2015-16, what percentage downfall was recorded in primary sector in H.P. in comparison with 2014-15 ?
A
-1.3%
B
-1.7%
C
-1.9%
D
-2.3%
Question 135Single Answer
What was the estimated growth rate of H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
3.5%
B
5.9%
C
6.2%
D
6.6%
Question 136Single Answer
What was per capita income (at current prices) of H.P. during 2012-13 ?
A
Rs. 75185
B
Rs. 78210
C
Rs. 80370
D
Rs. 83899
Question 137Single Answer
What was the economic growth rate of H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
5.5%
B
5.9%
C
6.7%
D
6.2%
Question 138Single Answer
First State, 'nance Commission of H.P. was set up in
A
1993
B
1994
C
1995
D
1996
Question 139Single Answer
During the year 2012-13, in which sector of economy in H.P. highest growth was recorded in domestic product ?
A
Primary Sector
B
Scoial Service Sector
C
Transport and Trade
D
Finance & Real Estate
Question 140Single Answer
What was per capita income of H.P. in the year 2013-14 ?
A
Rs. 55,472
B
Rs. 75,380
C
Rs. 85,792
D
Rs. 95,582
Question 141Single Answer
’National Health Authority’s Scan and Share Service’ was launched as part of which scheme ?
A
Swachh Bharat Mission
B
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
C
Mission Indradhanush
D
Janani Suraksha Yojana
Question 142Single Answer
Kaziranga National Park is located in which state ?
A
West Bengal
B
Assam
C
Odisha
D
Sikkim
Question 143Single Answer
Which country launched the ‘National Green Fiscal Incentives Policy Framework’ ?
A
USA
B
UAE
C
Australia
D
Kenya
Question 144Single Answer
Which state was ranked the top performer in the ‘Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Index 2022’ ?
A
West Bengal
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Karnataka
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 145Single Answer
A mix of Fentanyl and animal tranquilizer called Xylazine, known as ‘Tranq Dope’ is causing concerns in which country ?
A
India
B
Sri Lanka
C
USA
D
China
Question 146Single Answer
49th Pre-Retirement Counselling Workshop held in which city ?
A
Dehradun
B
Delhi
C
Chandigarh
D
Lucknow
Question 147Single Answer
For which movie Sam Elliott won Outstanding Performance by a Male Actor in a Television Movie in Screen Actors Guild Awards 2023 ?
A
George & Tammy
B
The Whale
C
1883
D
Ozark
Question 148Single Answer
Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi get the 13th instalment of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sammaan Yojana ?
A
Kalaburgi
B
Vijayawada
C
Palakkad
D
Belagavi
Question 149Single Answer
Unique Identification Authority of India works under which ministry ?
A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Question 150Single Answer
Molasses Control Amendment Bill 2023 was passed by which state ?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Rajasthan
D
Odisha
Social Science
Question 151Single Answer
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
A
Leeds and Manchester
B
Bristol and Manchester
C
Carlisle and Leeds
D
Chester and Leeds
Question 152Single Answer
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
A
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B
Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C
Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D
None of these
Question 153Single Answer
What is Urbanization?
A
Migration of population from rural to urban area
B
Migration of people from urban to rural
C
Migration of people from one country to another
D
Migration of population from one state to another one
Question 154Single Answer
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
A
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C
a and b both
D
None of these
Question 155Single Answer
Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay
A
i and ii
B
i, iv and ii
C
i, ii and iii
D
i, ii, iii and iv
Question 156Single Answer
In which year Delhi became the capital of British India?
A
1916
B
1913
C
1915
D
1911
Question 157Single Answer
When was Shahjahanabad built?
A
by ShahJahan in 1640
B
by ShahJahan in 1638
C
by ShahJahan in 1639
D
None of these
Question 158Single Answer
Before Delhi, which city was the capital of British India?
A
Calcutta
B
Madras
C
Bombay
D
Agra
Question 159Single Answer
What is Gulfaroshan?
A
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Patna during 16th century
B
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 18th century
C
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 11th century
D
All of these
Question 160Single Answer
Which period was referred as Delhi renaissance?
A
1857-1860
B
1860-1863
C
1865-1870
D
1830-1857
Question 161Single Answer
In the 1870s, for what reasons the western walls of Shahjahanabad were broken?
A
The walls were broken to establish the railway and to allow the city to expand beyond the walls.
B
The walls were broken to establish textile and iron industries
C
Both a and b
D
None of these
Question 162Single Answer
On which hills was the city of New Delhi built on ?
A
Almoda hills
B
Vindhva hills
C
Raisina Hill
D
None of these
Question 163Single Answer
Name the architects who designed New Delhi and its buildings.
A
Edward Lutyens and Herbert Baker
B
Herbert Baker and Harbar Lutyens
C
Edward Lutyens and Harbar Lutyens
D
None of these
Question 164Single Answer
How many years did it take to build the city of New Delhi?
A
15 years
B
35 years
C
20 years
D
25 years
Question 165Single Answer
Where was Bahadur Shah Zafar exiled to after 1857 revolt?
A
Kashmir
B
south region
C
Afghanistan
D
Burma
Logic
Question 166Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 167Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 168Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 169Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 170Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 171Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 172Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 173Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 174Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 175Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 176Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 177Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 178Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 179Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 180Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
General English
Question 181Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 182Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 183Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 184Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 185Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 186Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 187Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 188Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 189Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 190Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
General Hindi
Question 191Single Answer
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
A
गुण संधि के अनुसार
B
यण संधि के अनुसार
C
वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
D
अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Question 192Single Answer
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
A
त्
B
न्
C
द्
D
भ्
Question 193Single Answer
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
A
ल
B
ष
C
ड़
D
न
Question 194Single Answer
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
A
ख
B
ग
C
च
D
द
Question 195Single Answer
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
A
ट ड द ढ
B
च छ ज झ
C
त थ द ध
D
प फ ब भ
Question 196Single Answer
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
A
मूर्धा
B
कण्ठ
C
तालु
D
ओष्ठ
Question 197Single Answer
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
A
ए - ऐ
B
ए - ओ
C
ए - ऊ
D
त - द
Question 198Single Answer
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?