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Question for HRRL Engineer - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 120 Β· Questions: 100 Β· Max Marks: 100

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To boost your performance in HRRL Engineer exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in HRRL Engineer exams.

Latest HRRL Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, Intellectual Potential test (Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation), Technical / Professional Knowledge (Mechanical)

Question Bank HRRL Engineer (Mechanical) Exam - English

English Language

Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
  1. A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
  1. A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
  2. B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
  3. C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
  4. D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A. presented , stay
  2. B.introduced , keep
  3. C.announce , make
  4. D.created , let
  5. E.proclaimed , hold
Q 6 :
Assets
  1. A.liabilities
  2. B.responsibilities
  3. C.estates
  4. D.profits
Q 7 :
Affidavit
  1. A. Affirmation
  2. B.Slander
  3. C.Oath
  4. D.Testimony
Q 8 :
Hollow
  1. A.Alveolate
  2. B.Cleft
  3. C. Cavernous
  4. D.Solid
Q 9 :
Cosset 
  1. A.Ignoreb
  2. B.Close
  3. C.Caress
  4. D.Fondle
Q 10 :
Ogle
  1. A.Leer
  2. B.Gaze
  3. C.Ignore
  4. D.Gawk

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 11 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
Q 12 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
Q 13 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
Q 14 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 15 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
Q 16 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
Q 17 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
Q 18 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
Q 19 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
  1. A.318
  2. B.198
  3. C.213 
  4. D.206
Q 20 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
  1. A.558   
  2. B.718
  3. C.628  
  4. D.None of these

Intellectual Potential test (Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation)

Q 21 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 22 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 23 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 24 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
Q 25 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 26 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
Q 27 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
Q 28 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.

(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 29 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 30 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Technical / Professional Knowledge (Mechanical)

Q 31 :
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
  1. A.Pascal
  2. B.Poise
  3. C.Stoke
  4. D.Faraday
  5. E.None of the above
Q 32 :
Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?
  1. A.1 and 2 only            
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.1 only                        
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 33 :
Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity
  1. A.1 and 2 only            
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only                        
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 34 :
Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?
  1. A.1 only                     
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2           
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 35 :
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
  1. A.800 N and 800 N
  2. B.300 N and 800 N
  3. C.800 N and – 300 N
  4. D.300 N and – 300 N
Q 36 :
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
  1. A.Simple harmonic
  2. B.Constant acceleration and deceleration
  3. C.Constant velocity
  4. D.Cycloidal
Q 37 :
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
  1. A.0.96 × 10–6 J            
  2. B.0.69 × 10–6 J
  3. C.0.32 × 10–6 J            
  4. D.0.23 × 10–6 J
Q 38 :
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3                
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only                        
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 39 :
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
  1. A.11.7 mm                  
  2. B.14.6 mm
  3. C.17.5 mm                  
  4. D.20.4 mm
Q 40 :
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only                     
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2           
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 41 :
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
  1. A.Greater than 1
  2. B.Equal to 1
  3. C.Between 1 and 3
                   4        4
  4. D.Less than 1
Q 42 :
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
Q 43 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
  1. A.Newtonian fluid 
  2. B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
  3. C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
  4. D.Dilatent fluids
Q 44 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
  1. A.8
  2. B.6
  3. C.4
  4. D.2
Q 45 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
  1. A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
  2. B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
  3. C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
  4. D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 46 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.1 only 
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 
Q 47 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible? 
  1. A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
  2. B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
  3. C.Possible for steady, compressible flow 
  4. D.Not Possible 
Q 48 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A.0.25
  2. B.0.26
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
Q 49 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
  1. A.10 kW 
  2. B.20 kW
  3. C.30 kW
  4. D.50 kW
Q 50 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
  1. A.man power
  2. B.profit
  3. C.inventory
  4. D.manufacturing
Q 51 :
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
  1. A.3 m/s2
  2. B.6 m/s2
  3. C.9 m/s2
  4. D.15 m/s2
Q 52 :
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
  1. A.9
  2. B.-6
  3. C.117
  4. D.10.8
Q 53 :
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
  1. A.More for lighter fluid
  2. B.More for denser fluid
  3. C.Less for denser fluid
  4. D.Less for lighter fluid
Q 54 :
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
  1. A.Linearly with fluid density
  2. B.Inversely with pressure drop
  3. C.Directly as square of pipe radius
  4. D.Inversely with fluid velocity
Q 55 :
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
  1. A.1.5mm
  2. B.2.5mm
  3. C.4.0mm
  4. D.5.0mm
Q 56 :
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
  1. A.0.05m 
  2. B.0.07m
  3. C.0.08m
  4. D.0.09m
Q 57 :
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
 
  1. A.8 kW     
  2. B.4 kW
  3. C.2 kW    
  4. D. 1 kW
Q 58 :
In a hydraulic coupling
  1. A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
  2. B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
  3. C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
  4. D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque 
Q 59 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
  1. A.1,2 and 3 only
  2. B.1,2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1,2, 3 and 4 
Q 60 :
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
  1. A.150 N
  2. B.1470 N
  3. C.340 N
  4. D.900 N
Q 61 :
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
  1. A.thermal equilibrium
  2. B.neutral equilibrium
  3. C.unstable equilibrium
  4. D.stable equilibrium
Q 62 :
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
  1. A.energy of head loss is less
  2. B.It is cheaper
  3. C.pressure drop is more
  4. D.space is limited  
Q 63 :
Pitot tube measures ______.
  1. A.dynamic pressure of a moving stream
  2. B.guage pressure
  3. C.temperature of moving water
  4. D.pressure difference between two fluids
Q 64 :
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
  1. A.flow is irrotational
  2. B.it has no viscosity
  3. C.it has viscosity
  4. D.it is incompressible
Q 65 :
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
  1. A.enthalpy of steam into work
  2. B.enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
  3. C.enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
  4. D.pressure energy into work
Q 66 :
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
  1. A.All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
  2. B.Working fluid is a fixed mass
  3. C.Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
  4. D.Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Q 67 :
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
  1. A.tangential 
  2. B.axial
  3. C.radial
  4. D.mixed
Q 68 :
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
  1. A.hyperbolic
  2. B.linear
  3. C.elliptical
  4. D.parabolic
Q 69 :
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
  1. A.Turbine
  2. B.Evaporator
  3. C.Compressor
  4. D.Condenser
Q 70 :
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
  1. A.Temperature
  2. B.Total volume
  3. C.Pressure
  4. D.Density
Q 71 :
Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?
  1. A.Stoke
  2. B.Poise
  3. C.m²/sec
  4. D.N-m/sec
Q 72 :
__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .
  1. A.Hydrocarbon
  2. B.Phosphorous
  3. C.Water
  4. D.Coal
Q 73 :
_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .
  1. A.Stiffness
  2. B.Resilience
  3. C.Brittleness
  4. D.Toughness
Q 74 :
Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?
  1. A.Locomotive
  2. B.Steam jet
  3. C.Centrifugal fan
  4. D.Chimney
Q 75 :
For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .
  1. A.do not change with location
  2. B.change with time
  3. C.change with location
  4. D.do not change with time
Q 76 :
For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .
  1. A.thermal 
  2. B.stable 
  3. C.unstable
  4. D.neutral
Q 77 :
________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .
  1. A.Orifice meter
  2. B.Rotameter
  3. C.Vane meter
  4. D.Electro-magnetic flow meter
Q 78 :
A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)
  1. A.Three
  2. B.Four
  3. C.One
  4. D.Two
Q 79 :
Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .
  1. A.heavy truck
  2. B.buses
  3. C.moto cycles
  4. D.multi-utility vehicles
Q 80 :
_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .
  1. A.Simply supported
  2. B.Solenoid
  3. C.Plate
  4. D.Poppet
Q 81 :
Benson boiler have ______ water drum (s)
  1. A.One
  2. B.Zero
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Two
Q 82 :
_________ is used for pumping water into a boilers .
  1. A.Economiser
  2. B.Duplex pump
  3. C.Feed pump
  4. D.Rotor
Q 83 :
The function of a carburetor in internal combustion engines is :
  1. A.to control fuel alone
  2. B.to cool exhaust gases
  3. C.to maintain air-fuel ratio
  4. D.to control air alone
Q 84 :
The device which transfers energy from the ______ to _____ the is known as hydraulic turbine .
  1. A.atmosphere; fluid  
  2. B.  rotor; fluid
  3. C.fluid; rotor
  4. D.fluid; atmosphere
Q 85 :
The flash chamber in the single stage VCR cycle serves to ________ .
  1. A.decrease the compression ratio
  2. B.increase the refrigerating effect
  3. C.increase the compression ratio
  4. D.decrease the refrigerating effect
Q 86 :
Define thermodynamics .
  1. A.It is a science which deals with the relation between heat, work and properties of systems
  2. B.It is a science which deals with work done
  3. C.It deals with dynamics under thermal conditions
  4. D.It is science which deals with the relation between work and properties
Q 87 :
Which of the following statements is correct about a Benson boiler ?
  1. A.Air is sent through the same direction
  2. B.There is no recirculation of water
  3. C.Steam is sent out in multiple directions
  4. D.Flue gases pass only in one direction
Q 88 :
Within a refrigeration system, the expansion valve is incorporated between the ________ .
  1. A.Super-heater and sub-cooler 
  2. B.compressor and condenser
  3. C.evaporator and compressor
  4. D.condenser and evaporator
Q 89 :
The reversed ______ cycle employed for passenger aircraft systems . 
  1. A.Carnot     
  2. B.Atkinson
  3. C.Ericsson
  4. D.Brayton
Q 90 :
Fusible plug in a steam boiler is placed ______ .
  1. A.below the water level indicator
  2. B.at he crown of the furnace
  3. C.at the fire grate of the boiler
  4. D.near the manhole
Q 91 :
What is the state of a substance at the critical point on a phase diagram?
  1. A.Solid
  2. B.Liquid
  3. C.Gas
  4. D.Indistinguishable liquid-vapor phase
Q 92 :
What does the triple point on a phase diagram represent?
  1. A.Only solid exists
  2. B.Solid, liquid, and vapor coexist
  3. C.Only liquid exists
  4. D.Only vapor exists
Q 93 :
Which property is constant during a phase change at constant pressure?
  1. A.Temperature
  2. B.Volume
  3. C.Entropy
  4. D.Internal energy
Q 94 :
What is the quality of a saturated liquid-vapor mixture defined as?
  1. A.Ratio of liquid mass to total mass
  2. B.Ratio of vapor mass to total mass
  3. C.Ratio of liquid volume to total volume
  4. D.Ratio of vapor volume to total volume
Q 95 :
What is the specific volume of a substance in the saturated liquid state?
  1. A.vf
  2. B.vg
  3. C.vfg
  4. D.vavg
Q 96 :
The moment of a force about a point is equal to:
  1. A.Force Γ— Time
  2. B.Force Γ— Distance from point
  3. C.Force Γ— Area
  4. D.Force Γ· Distance
Q 97 :
Which of the following statements is true?
  1. A.A particle has mass but no dimensions.
  2. B.A rigid body can deform under load.
  3. C.A force cannot be represented by a vector.
  4. D.Varignon’s theorem applies only to particles.
Q 98 :
Varignon’s theorem states that the moment of a force about any point is equal to:
  1. A.The algebraic sum of the moments of the components
  2. B.Twice the product of the force and distance
  3. C.Half the sum of the components
  4. D.Product of mass and acceleration
Q 99 :
A rigid body is in equilibrium when:
  1. A.Net force
  2. B.Net moment
  3. C.Net force and net moment
  4. D.Either net force or net moment
Q 100 :
Which of the following is not a type of force system?
  1. A.Concurrent
  2. B.Parallel
  3. C.Non-concurrent
  4. D.Perpendicular
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