Question for HSSC JE (Mechanical) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest HSSC JE Mechanical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General awareness, Reasoning, Mathematics, Science, Haryana G.K., Computer Fundamentals, Mechanical

Question Bank HSSC JE Mechanical Exam - English

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General awareness

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 3Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 4Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Reasoning

Question 5Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 6Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 7Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 8Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Mathematics

Question 9Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 10Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 11Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 12Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Science

Question 13Single Answer

Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of

A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these

Question 14Single Answer

Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:

A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster

Question 15Single Answer

Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?

A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria

Question 16Single Answer

Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural

A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus

Haryana G.K.

Question 17Single Answer

In ancient times Haryana was known as ........

A
Brahmawata
B
Gujarat
C
Kurukshetra
D
Delhi

Question 18Single Answer

By what name was the state of Haryana known in ancient times ?

A
Brahmavrata Pradesh
B
Brahmashri Pradesh
C
Brahma Ki Uttawedi
D
All of the above

Question 19Single Answer

Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?

A
Syria
B
Iraq
C
Lebanon
D
Iran

Question 20Single Answer

What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?

A
Nuclear disarmament only
B
Border security
C
Economic sanctions enforcement
D
Regime change in Tehran

Computer Fundamentals

Question 21Single Answer

Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?

A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar

Question 22Single Answer

What is active desktop ?

A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these

Question 23Single Answer

What is meant by an active window?

A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first

Question 24Single Answer

What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?

A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system

Question 25Single Answer

An application is

A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these

Question 26Single Answer

The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called Binary Digits or

A
Bytes
B
Kilobytes
C
Decimal bytes
D
Bits

Question 27Single Answer

What language does a browser typically interpret to display information from the World Wide Web ?

A
Machine Code
B
Assembly Language
C
HTML
D
C++

Question 28Single Answer

______ is the process of finding errors in software code.

A
Compiling
B
Testing
C
Running
D
Debugging

Question 29Single Answer

The code for a Web page is written using _________.

A
A fifth generation language
B
WinZip
C
Peripherals
D
Hypertext Markup Language

Question 30Single Answer

A program is a sequence of ___________ written in a programming language.

A
Lines
B
Function
C
Instructions
D
Code words

Mechanical

Question 31Single Answer

A fin will be more effective when Bio number is

A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1

Question 32Single Answer

A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is

Question 33Single Answer

Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?

A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids

Question 34Single Answer

What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s²)

Question 35Single Answer

What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?

A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg

Question 36Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 37Single Answer

State whether following flow field is physically possible?

A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible

Question 38Single Answer

In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is

A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4

Question 39Single Answer

A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is

A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW

Question 40Single Answer

On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?

A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing

Question 41Single Answer

In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?

A
3 m/s²
B
6 m/s²
C
9 m/s²
D
15 m/s²

Question 42Single Answer

The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is

A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8

Question 43Single Answer

The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is

A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid

Question 44Single Answer

In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies

A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity

Question 45Single Answer

A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is

A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm

Question 46Single Answer

Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10^-6m²/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is

A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m

Question 47Single Answer

In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is

A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW

Question 48Single Answer

In a hydraulic coupling

A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque

Question 49Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?

A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4

Question 50Single Answer

A water jet 0.0015m²in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is

A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N

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Mechanical

Question 51Single Answer

Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?

A
Pascal
B
Poise
C
Stoke
D
Faraday
E
None of the above

Question 52Single Answer

Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 53Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 54Single Answer

A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is

A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW

Question 55Single Answer

A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its thermal efficiency is, nearly

A
18%
B
23%
C
26%
D
30%

Question 56Single Answer

One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T₂ K and another reversible heat engine operates between T₂K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the temperature T₂must be equal to

A
582.7 K
B
632.5 K
C
682.8 K
D
732.5 K

Question 57Single Answer

Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 58Single Answer

A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:

A
Reversible and isothermal
B
Irreversible
C
Reversible only
D
Isothermal only

Question 59Single Answer

Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?

A
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
B
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
C
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
D
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder

Question 60Single Answer

Consider the following systems :
1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3 only

Question 61Single Answer

Consider the following conditions for the reversibility of a cycle:
1. The P and T of the working substance must not differ appreciably, from those of the surroundings at any state in the process.
2. All the processes, taking place in the cycle, must be extremely slow.
3. The working parts of the engine must be friction-free.
Which of the following conditions are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 62Single Answer

A Carnot engine operates between 300 K and 600 K. If the entropy change during heat addition is 1 kJ/K, the work produced by the engine is:

A
100 kJ
B
200 kJ
C
300 kJ
D
400 kJ

Question 63Single Answer

1000 kJ/s of heat is transferred from a constant temperature heat reservoir maintained at 1000 K to a system at a constant temperature of 500 K. The temperature of the surroundings is 300 K. The net loss of available energy as a result of this heat transfer is:

A
450 kJ/s
B
400 kJ/s
C
350 kJ/s
D
300 kJ/s

Question 64Single Answer

The effects of heat transfer from a high temperature body to a low temperature body are:
1. The energy is conserved
2. The entropy is not conserved
3. The availability is not conserved
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 65Single Answer

Which of the following statements pertaining to entropy are correct?
1. The entropy of a system reaches its minimum value when it is in a state of equilibrium with its surroundings
2. Entropy is conserved in all reversible processes
3. Entropy of a substance is least in solid phase
4. Entropy of a solid solution is not zero at absolute zero temperature

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 66Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. Gases have a very low critical temperature
2. Gases can be liquefied by isothermal compression
3. In engineering problems, water vapour in atmosphere is treated as an ideal or perfect gas
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 67Single Answer

The property of a thermodynamic system is:

A
A path function
B
A point function
C
A quantity which does not change in reversible process
D
A quantity which changes when system undergoes a cycle

Question 68Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. There is no change in temperature when a liquid is being evaporated into vapour.
2. Vapour is a mixed phase of liquid and gas in the zone between saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line.
3. The saturated dry vapour curve is steeper as compared to saturated liquid curve on a T-s diagram.
4. The enthalpy of vaporization decreases with increase in pressure.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 69Single Answer

The performance of a single stage reciprocating air compressor is evaluated by its:

A
Isentropic efficiency
B
Isothermal efficiency
C
Adiabatic efficiency
D
Volumetric efficiency

Question 70Single Answer

In a two stage reciprocating air-compressor with a suction pressure of 2 bar and delivery pressure of 8 bar, the ideal intercooler pressure will be:

A
10 bar
B
6 bar
C
4 bar
D
3 bar

Question 71Single Answer

Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 72Single Answer

A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be

A
800 N and 800 N
B
300 N and 800 N
C
800 N and – 300 N
D
300 N and – 300 N

Question 73Single Answer

A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?

A
Simple harmonic
B
Constant acceleration and deceleration
C
Constant velocity
D
Cycloidal

Question 74Single Answer

In a circular are cam with a roller follower, acceleration of the follower depends on
1. cam speed and location of centre of circular arc
2. roller diameter and radius of circular arc
Which of the above is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 75Single Answer

A manufacturing company is selling a product for 15 per unit with variable cost of 10 per unit. The fixed cost of the asset is 50,000. How many units should be produced to breakeven?

A
2000
B
5000
C
8000
D
10000

Question 76Single Answer

Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?

A
discharge
B
velocity of gas
C
pressure intensity of gas
D
pressure intensity of liquid

Question 77Single Answer

A gear of 28 cm pitch circle diameter has 40 teeth. The circular pitch will nearly be

A
11 mm/tooth
B
22 mm/tooth
C
33 mm/tooth
D
44 mm/tooth

Question 78Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding gear tooth designing for gear drive :
1. Tooth profiles not designed as per ‘law of gearing’ will cause vibration and impact problems even at low speed.
2. As the gears go through their mesh, the pitch point must remain stationary on the line of centres.
3. In a correctly designed tooth profile, the line of action of successive instantaneous points of contact will pass through the stationary pitch point.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 79Single Answer

The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2000 kg. The starting torque of the engine is 2000 N-m. The kinetic energy of the flywheel after 10 seconds from start is

A
75 kN-m
B
100 kN-m
C
125 kN-m
D
150 kN-m

Question 80Single Answer

Consider two shafts connected with two gears as per the following options :
1. One on each shaft.
2. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft, and every shaft having one gear only.
3. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft having two gears, whereas the other shafts have one gear each
Which of the above represent(s) a simple gear train?

A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 81Single Answer

A riveting machine is driven by a constant-torque 3 kW motor. The moving parts including the flywheel are equivalent to 150 kg at 0.6 m radius. One riveting operation takes 1 second and absorbs 10000 N-m of energy. The speed of the flywheel is 300 r.p.m. before riveting. What is the speed (to nearest 10 r.p.m.) after riveting and what is the number of rivets that can be closed per minute?

A
260 r.p.m. and 18
B
290 r.p.m. and 15
C
360 r.p.m. and 18
D
390 r.p.m. and 15

Question 82Single Answer

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A
The product of diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to unity.
B
The pressure angle for involute gears depends upon the size of teeth.
C
In a gear having involute teeth, the normal to the involute is a tangent to the base circle.
D
For commercially cut gears, the limiting pitch line velocity is 60 m/min.

Question 83Single Answer

The thickness of the continuous weld used for connecting a horizontal square bar of 150 mm size and of cantilevered length 500 mm to a vertical plate, with the bar carrying a 25 kN vertical load at its outer tip, given that the permissible direct shear stress of the weld is 20 N/mm², is

A
3 mm
B
4 mm
C
5 mm
D
6 mm

Question 84Single Answer

A shaft of 50 mm diameter transmits a torque of 800 N-m. The width of the rectangular key used is 10 mm. The allowable shear stress of the material of the key being 40 MPa, the required length of the key would be

A
60 mm
B
70 mm
C
80 mm
D
90 mm

Question 85Single Answer

A governor is said to be hunting if the speed of the engine

A
remains constant at the mean speed
B
is above the mean speed
C
is below the mean speed
D
fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed

Question 86Single Answer

A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is

A
0.96 × 10^–6 J
B
0.69 × 10^–6 J
C
0.32 × 10^–6 J
D
0.23 × 10^–6 J

Question 87Single Answer

Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 88Single Answer

Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly

A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm

Question 89Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 90Single Answer

In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to

A
D^–1
B
D^–2
C
D^–3
D
D^–4

Question 91Single Answer

The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?

A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s

Question 92Single Answer

During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is

A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%

Question 93Single Answer

A
reversible and isothermal
B
irreversible
C
reversible only
D
isothermal only

Question 94Single Answer

A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be

Question 95Single Answer

For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of T_max and T_min, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be

A
zero
B
maximum
C
minimum
D
50% of the Carnot cycle

Question 96Single Answer

A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a source at 1300 K and rejects it to a sink at 400 K. The heat rejected is

A
20.3 kW
B
15.4 kW
C
12.4 kW
D
10.8 kW

Question 97Single Answer

An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated pipe at the rate of 3.3 kg. There is a pressure drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of the pipe. What is the rate of energy loss because of this pressure drop due to friction, given that R_gas= 0.287 kJ/kg K and the reference temperature T0 is 300 K?

A
42.62 kW
B
40.26 kW
C
38.14 kW
D
35.13 kW

Question 98Single Answer

A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be

A
30 J/m²/s
B
60 J/m²/s
C
60 J/s
D
30 J/s

Question 99Single Answer

A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m² and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is

A
1.8 K/W
B
1.8 W/K
C
1 K/W
D
1 W/K

Question 100Single Answer

Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be

A
7.5 W/m²K
B
15 W/m²K
C
25 W/m²K
D
35 W/m²K

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