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Objective Questions

Latest Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Electrical Engineer, Mechanical, Civil Engineer, Reasoning, Numerical Ability

Question Bank HVPNL Assistant Engineer Exam - English

Electrical Engineer

Question 1Single Answer

Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω

Question 2Single Answer

For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10^-6 (ohm-m)^-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m²/V-s and 0.04 m²/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?

A
7.0 × 10¹² m^-3
B
7.0 × 10^-12 m^-3
C
7.0 × 10^-12 m³
D
7.0 × 10¹² m³

Question 3Single Answer

The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m²/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m²/V-s?

A
9.2 × 10⁵/m³
B
2.77 × 10³/m³
C
2.43 × 10¹⁹/m³
D
8.9 × 10¹²/m³

Question 4Single Answer

Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place

A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms

Question 5Single Answer

Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is

A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above

Question 6Single Answer

An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if

A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating

Question 7Single Answer

The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is

A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures

Question 8Single Answer

Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?

A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile

Question 9Single Answer

The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from

A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments

Question 10Single Answer

Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?

A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene

Question 11Single Answer

For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is

A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C

Question 12Single Answer

The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called

A
Peak temperature
B
Neel temperatur
C
Critical temperature
D
Weiss temperature

Question 13Single Answer

Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?

A
Seeback effect
B
Thomson effect
C
Hall effect
D
Joule effect

Question 14Single Answer

Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are

A
Soft magnetic materials
B
Hard magnetic materials
C
High eddy current loss materials
D
High hysteresis loss materials

Question 15Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
Both 1 and 2
B
Neither 1 nor 2
C
1 only
D
2 only

Question 16Single Answer

The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of

A
Radiative recombination
B
Auger recombination
C
Surface recombination
D
Shockley-Read-Hall recombination

Question 17Single Answer

Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of

A
GeO₂
B
B₂O₃
C
P₂O_5x
D
Al₂O₃

Question 18Single Answer

If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will

A
Become twice
B
Become half
C
ecome four times
D
Remain unchanged

Question 19Single Answer

In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 20Single Answer

If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?

A
MCHTX
B
MXHTC
C
XMHCT
D
XMHTC

Question 21Single Answer

Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
3, 4 and 5 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 22Single Answer

A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is

A
Transistor
B
Varistor
C
Thyristor
D
Thermistor

Question 23Single Answer

The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because

A
The carrier concentration increases
B
The mobility of carrier increases
C
Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
D
The band gap decreases

Question 24Single Answer

Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law

A
2, 3 and 4
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 25Single Answer

In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?

A
An ellipse
B
A parabola
C
Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
D
A circle

Question 26Single Answer

Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite value to zero and remains there upon further cooling, are known as

A
Ferromagnetic materials
B
High-energy hard magnetic materials
C
Superconductors
D
Ferromagnetic materials

Question 27Single Answer

In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical temperature, the value of critical magnetic field will

A
Increase
B
Decrease
C
Not change
D
Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material

Question 28Single Answer

The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines

A
Component of current which is in phase with the applied field
B
Component of energy absorbed per m³
C
Amount of applied field
D
Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field

Question 29Single Answer

Direction: Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below

A
Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent magnets.
Statement (II):
Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.
B
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
C
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
D
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
E
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

Question 30Single Answer

In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H is

A
(H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00
B
(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
C
(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
D
(H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H

Question 31Single Answer

If the magnetic susceptibility of a specimen is small and positive, the specimen is

A
Diamagnetic
B
Paramagnetic
C
Ferromagnetic
D
Non-magnetic

Question 32Single Answer

Manganese ferrite is a 1 : 1 mixture of

A
Manganese nitride and iron oxide
B
Manganese oxide and iron nitride
C
Manganese nitride and iron sulphide
D
Manganese oxide and iron sulphide

Question 33Single Answer

When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, small changes in dimensions occur. Such a phenomenon is known as

A
Magnetic hysteresis
B
Magnetic expansion
C
Magnetostriction
D
Magneto-calorisation

Question 34Single Answer

In ferromagnetic , anti-ferromagnetic and ferromagnetic materials, the atomic thermal motions counteract the coupling forces between the adjacent atomic dipole moments, thereby causing

A
Some dipole misalignment regardless of whether an external field is present
B
Increase in dipole alignment regardless of whether an external field is present
C
No effect on dipole alignment
D
Atoms tend to de-randomize the direction of moments

Question 35Single Answer

The Hall effect voltage in intrinsic silicon

A
Is positive
B
Is zero
C
Is negative
D
Changes its sign based on application of magnetic field

Question 36Single Answer

Most outstanding property of indium antimonide is

A
A very wide range gap
B
High resistivity at room temperature
C
High carrier mobility
D
Very low conductivity at room temperature

Question 37Single Answer

Which of the following semiconducting compounds is used in photoconductive devices?

A
Caesium antimonide
B
Barium oxide
C
Lead sulphide
D
Zinc oxide

Question 38Single Answer

Consider the following transducers:
1.LVDT
2.Piezoelectric
3.Thermocouple
4.Photovoltaic cell
Which of the above are active transducers?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 39Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding magnetic materials:
1.A diamagnetic material has no permanent dipole
2.Paramagnetic material has anti-parallel orientation of equal moments with neighboring dipoles
3.Ferrimagnetic material has anti parallel orientation of unequal moments between neighboring dipoles
4.Anti-ferromagnetic material has negligible interaction between neighboring dipoles
Which of these statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 4
D
1 and 3

Question 40Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding hysteresis loops of hard and soft magnetic materials:
1.Hysteresis loss of hard magnetic material will be less than that of soft material
2.Coercivity of hard materials will be greater than that of soft material
3.Retentivity of the two materials will always be equal
Which of these statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Mechanical

Question 41Single Answer

A fin will be more effective when Bio number is

A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1

Question 42Single Answer

A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is

Question 43Single Answer

Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?

A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids

Question 44Single Answer

What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s²)

Question 45Single Answer

What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?

A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg

Question 46Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 47Single Answer

State whether following flow field is physically possible?

A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible

Question 48Single Answer

In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is

A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4

Question 49Single Answer

A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is

A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW

Question 50Single Answer

On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?

A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing

Mechanical

Question 51Single Answer

In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?

A
3 m/s²
B
6 m/s²
C
9 m/s²
D
15 m/s²

Question 52Single Answer

The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is

A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8

Question 53Single Answer

The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is

A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid

Question 54Single Answer

In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies

A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity

Question 55Single Answer

A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is

A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm

Question 56Single Answer

Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10^-6m²/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is

A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m

Question 57Single Answer

In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is

A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW

Question 58Single Answer

In a hydraulic coupling

A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque

Question 59Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?

A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4

Question 60Single Answer

A water jet 0.0015m²in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is

A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N

Question 61Single Answer

Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n².
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 62Single Answer

Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?

A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Momentum
D
Angle

Question 63Single Answer

Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in

A
Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B
Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C
Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D
Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid

Question 64Single Answer

Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 10⁵. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be

A
2Q
B
A little more than 2Q
C
A little less than 2Q
D
4Q

Question 65Single Answer

Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be

A
7.5 W/m²K
B
15 W/m²K
C
25 W/m²K
D
35 W/m²K

Question 66Single Answer

For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress

A
Remains constant over the cross-section
B
Varies linearly with the radial distance
C
Must be zero at all point
D
Varies parabolically with radial distance

Question 67Single Answer

Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of

A
Creep
B
Malleability
C
Ductility
D
Elasticity in the metal

Question 68Single Answer

Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?

A
Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B
Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C
The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D
No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream

Question 69Single Answer

Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?

A
Pressure and inertial forces
B
Gravity and inertial forces
C
Viscous and inertial forces
D
Pressure and inertial forces

Question 70Single Answer

Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at

A
Penstock/nozzl
B
Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C
Vanes receiving impact of jet
D
Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube

Question 71Single Answer

For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is

A
Inversely proportional to Re
B
Proportional to Re
C
Proportional to square of Re
D
Independent of Re

Question 72Single Answer

The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as

A
Mechanical efficiency
B
Static efficiency
C
Overall efficiency
D
Manometric efficiency

Question 73Single Answer

A pump is defined as a device which converts

A
Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B
Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C
Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D
None of the above

Question 74Single Answer

The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is

A
Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B
Requires unit power to develop unit head
C
Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D
Produces unit power with unit head available

Question 75Single Answer

Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is

A
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed

Question 76Single Answer

The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m² above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be

A
0.156 N/m
B
0.313 N/m
C
0.624 N/m
D
0.078 N/m

Question 77Single Answer

A Newtonian fluid is one which

A
Is viscous but incompressible
B
Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C
Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D
Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation

Question 78Single Answer

Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to

A
Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B
Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C
Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D
Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer

Question 79Single Answer

Manometer is a device used for measuring

A
Velocity at a point in a fluid
B
Pressure at a point in a fluid
C
Discharge of a fluid
D
None of the above

Question 80Single Answer

When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is

A
0.10 N/m²
B
0.5 N/m²
C
1.0 N/m²
D
0.15 N/m²

Civil Engineer

Question 81Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 82Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 83Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5

Question 84Single Answer

The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is

A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30

Question 85Single Answer

If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as

A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8

Question 86Single Answer

Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 87Single Answer

Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 88Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 89Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question 90Single Answer

What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m³?

A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l

Question 91Single Answer

Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?

A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963

Question 92Single Answer

Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 93Single Answer

The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are

A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration

Question 94Single Answer

Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?

A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter

Question 95Single Answer

The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than

A
440 kg/cm²
B
175 kg/cm²
C
100kg/cm²
D
75kg/cm²

Question 96Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 97Single Answer

Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 98Single Answer

Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?

A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate

Question 99Single Answer

Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?

A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement

Question 100Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5

Question 101Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 4
D
3 and 4

Question 102Single Answer

Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A
1 and 4
B
3 and 4
C
1 and 2
D
2 and 3

Question 103Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 4 and 5
D
3, 4 and 5

Question 104Single Answer

Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?

A
4 and 5
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 4
D
3 and 5

Question 105Single Answer

Consider the following statements:Presence of Na₂O and K₂O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 106Single Answer

The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is

A
625
B
480
C
330
D
250

Question 107Single Answer

Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between

A
A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
B
A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
C
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
D
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate

Question 108Single Answer

Consider the following statements concerning ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 109Single Answer

Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl₂ in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 2

Question 110Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 111Single Answer

Excrescences in wood are
1.Defects found in trees
2.Formed due to injuries inflicted on trees when they are growing
3.Defects which render wood suitable as firewood only

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 112Single Answer

What treatment is adopted for making timber fire-resistant?

A
ASCU treatment
B
Abel’s process
C
Creosoting
D
Tarring

Question 113Single Answer

Deterioration of structure of timber due to dry rot is:
1.Caused by fungi
2.Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
3.Due to attack of termites
4.ndicated by surface stripes on scantlings

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 114Single Answer

Alternate wetting and drying of timber :
1.Results in shrinkage and swelling
2.Brings about wet rot onset
3.Increases the durability
4.Causes transmission of spores from germination

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 115Single Answer

As per I.S. classification, the minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be

A
75 kg/cm³
B
100kg/cm³
C
125 kg/cm³
D
150 kg/cm³

Question 116Single Answer

When provided with alternating courses of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, the front elevation of such brick masonry is designated as

A
English bond
B
Single Flemish bond
C
Double Flemish bond
D
Rat-trap bond

Question 117Single Answer

I.S. code specifies that the compressive strength of brick shall be determined by keeping the brick:
1.On edge
2.On bed
3.After soaking in water for 2 hrs
4.After soaking in water for 24 hrs

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 4

Question 118Single Answer

Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine its

A
Alumina content
B
Iron oxide content
C
Free lime content
D
Durability under sea water

Question 119Single Answer

The objectives of producing cement include:
1.Incorporating industrial wastes
2.Increasing free lime
3.Increasing fineness
4.Saving energy needed in the process

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 120Single Answer

A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 24 mm mm dia. over its length of 400 mm. The rod when held vertical is subjected to an axial tensile load of 12 kN. E = 2 × 10⁵ N/mm². The extension of the rod in mm would be:

A
3
2
B
2
3
C
3
D
1
3

Reasoning

Question 121Single Answer

In a certain code ‘ke pa lo ti’ means ‘lamp is burning bright’ and ‘lo si ti ba ke’ means ‘bright light is from lamp’Which of the following is the code for ‘burning’ in that language ?

A
Si
B
Pa
C
Ti
D
Ke
E
None of these

Question 122Single Answer

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetic order given below?
C B A A C B A A B C B A A B C C B A A B ?

Question 123Single Answer

How many meaningful English works can be formed with the letters ‘RAE’ using each letter only once in each word ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 124Single Answer

The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English alphabetic series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternative shall replace the question mark?
AD, C, HK, MJ,?

A
NQ
B
OQ
C
OR
D
MP
E
None of these

Question 125Single Answer

If the letters in the word 'DOLPHIN' are rearranged as they appear in English alphabetical order, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left?

A
O
B
D
C
I
D
L
E
None of these

Question 126Single Answer

In a certain code EXPERT is written as $Z%$Q5 and PETROL is written as %$5Q#9. How will 'EXPLORE' be writ n in that code?

A
$ Z % 9 Q # $
B
$ Z % 9 # Q $
C
$ Z % 9 # $ Q
D
$ Z % 9 $ # Q
E
None of these

Question 127Single Answer

Sunil walks towards the East from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked towards the East. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and B?

A
Cannot be determined
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 128Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, the symbols @, $,

, # and d are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q' meanns 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P

d Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.
'P

Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly

‘RT is related to ‘VX’ and ‘BD’ is related to ‘FH’. In the same way as ‘KM’ is related to -

A
NP
B
OR
C
OQ
D
PR
E
None of these

Question 129Single Answer

Passage :

Which of the following has the
same relationship as that of
Money : Wealth?
(1) Pity : Kindness
(2) Cruel : Anger
(3) Wise : Education
(4) Pride : Humility
(5) None of these

Which of the following has the same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?

A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these

Question 130Single Answer

In a certain code 'BACK' is written as '5914' and 'KITE' is written as '4876'. How is 'BEAT' written in that code?

A
5697
B
5967
C
4697
D
5687
E
None of these

Question 131Single Answer

West : North - East :: South : ?

A
North - West
B
South - East
C
North
D
East

Question 132Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALEP using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
one
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 133Single Answer

Four of the following, five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A
39
B
48
C
56
D
31
E
72

Question 134Single Answer

In a certain code language, 'go and come' is written as 'na ta ka' and 'black and white' is written as 'pa ma ta'. How is 'go' written in that code language?

A
na
B
ka
C
pa
D
na or ka
E
None of these

Question 135Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHANNEL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 136Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ATLE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 137Single Answer

In a certain code GROWN is written as 7 @ % 36 and NAME written as 64 $ How is GEAR written in that code ?

A
74$@
B
7$4@
C
7%4@
D
7@$4
E
none of these

Question 138Single Answer

How many pairs of digits are there in the number 6315784 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 139Single Answer

What should come next in the following letter series?
BDFH L NACE GIKMBDFHJ LACEGIKBDFBJ

A
B
B
L
C
M
D
F
E
None of these

Question 140Single Answer

In a certain code DISPLAY is written as RHCQZBM. How is GROU ED written in that code?

A
PSH EFO
B
NOFVCDO
C
NOF IEFO
D
PSHTCDO
E
None of these

Question 141Single Answer

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A
169
B
441
C
361
D
529
E
289

Question 142Single Answer

Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than Wand lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest?

A
R
B
W
C
R or W
D
Data inadequate
E
None of these

Question 143Single Answer

If 'R' denotes '+'; 'P' denotes 'x; 'W' denotes '+' and 'V' denotes '-'; then 14 W 16 R 4 V 3 P 5 = ?

A
15
B
4
C
6
D
3
E
None of these

Question 144Single Answer

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A
PM
B
EB
C
TO
D
IF
E
VY

Question 145Single Answer

Pointing to a woman, Suresh said, 'she is the daughter of my grandfather's only daughter'. How is Suresh related to the woman?

A
Brother
B
Cousin
C
Uncle
D
Can’t be determined
E
None of these

Numerical Ability

Question 146Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question

The function x^x decreases in the interval

A
(0, e)
B
(0, 1)
C
(0, 1/e)
D
None of these
E
none of these

Question 147Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question

Four of the following, five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A
39
B
48
C
56
D
31
E
72

Question 148Single Answer

The difference between 63% of a number and 45% of the same number is 34.2 what is 78% of that number ?

A
1342
B
1482
C
1558
D
1670
E
none of these

Question 149Single Answer

What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount Rs. 4000 at the rate of 5% per annum after 3 yr

A
Rs. 612
B
Rs. 578
C
Rs. 525.5
D
Rs. 630.5
E
none of these

Question 150Single Answer

A car covers a distance of 1450 km in 25 h. What is the speed of the car ?

A
58 km/h
B
66 km/h
C
72 km/h
D
cannot be determined
E
none of these

Question 151Single Answer

The average age of a man and his son is 40 yr. The ratio of their ages is 7:3 respectively. What is the man’s age

A
70 yr
B
63 yr
C
56 yr
D
49 yr
E
none of these

Question 152Single Answer

A canteen requires 28 dozen bananas for a week How many dozen bananas will it require for 47 days

A
2256
B
322
C
196
D
2352
E
none of these

Question 153Single Answer

The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number ?

A
83
B
79
C
81
D
77
E
none of these

Question 154Single Answer

The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B and D ?

A
11440
B
11024
C
10608
D
11232
E
none of these

Question 155Single Answer

The owner of a cell phones shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs 7011 for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone ?

A
Rs. 5845
B
Rs. 6750
C
Rs. 5900
D
Rs. 6925
E
none of these

Question 156Single Answer

IF (16)³ is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3825. What is the number ?

A
69
B
59
C
89
D
79
E
none of these

Question 157Single Answer

If an amount of Rs 85602 is distributed equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each person get ?

A
Rs. 2594
B
Rs. 2954
C
Rs. 2549
D
Rs. 2495
E
none of these

Question 158Single Answer

43% of a number is 559. What is 32% of that number ?

A
416
B
429
C
403
D
384
E
none of these

Question 159Single Answer

In Boolean algebra, which of the following statement is correct

A
(a + b)’ = a’ + b'
B
(a + b)’ = a’ . b'
C
(a + b)’ = (a’ . b’)
D
None of the above
E
none of these

Question 160Single Answer

If (92)² is added to the square of a number the answer so obtained is 10768 . what is the number

A
46
B
2304
C
48
D
2116
E
none of these

Question 161Single Answer

The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school

A
49 : 52
B
51 : 50
C
50 : 51
D
52 : 49
E
none of these

Question 162Single Answer

Sumit invests Rs. 4762, Which is 25% of his monthly income, in insurance policies. What is his monthly income

A
Rs. 28572
B
Rs. 23810
C
Rs. 19048
D
Rs 14285
E
none of these

Question 163Single Answer

There are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred ?

A
603
B
402
C
804
D
703
E
none of these

Question 164Single Answer

In an examination shalini scores a total of 436 marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the examination

A
83
B
65
C
82
D
78
E
70

Question 165Single Answer

What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs 8930 at the rate of 8% per annum after 5 yr ?

A
Rs. 5413
B
Rs. 2678
C
Rs. 3572
D
Rs 4752
E
none of these

Question 166Single Answer

The cost of 12 chairs and 15 tables is Rs 58968. What is the cost of 4 chairs and 5 tables

A
Rs. 19656
B
Rs. 29484
C
Rs. 39312
D
cannot be determined
E
none of these

Question 167Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: study of the following graph carefully and answer the question given below Income and Expenditure of various companies During a Year

When the present age of mother is added to the present age of the daughter, the total is 40 years. What will be their total age in years after 5 years?

A
45
B
50
C
40
D
55
E
None of these

Question 168Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: study of the following graph carefully and answer the question given below Income and Expenditure of various companies During a Year

The equation 73 sin x + cos x = 4 has

A
infinitely many solutions
B
no solution
C
two solutions
D
only one solution
E
65

Question 169Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: study of the following graph carefully and answer the question given below Income and Expenditure of various companies During a Year

The coefficient of x²⁰ in the expansion of (1 + 3x + 3x² +x³)²⁰ is

A
⁶⁰C₄₀
B
³⁰c₂₀
C
¹⁵C₂
D
None of these
E
25

Question 170Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: study of the following graph carefully and answer the question given below Income and Expenditure of various companies During a Year

The sum of the integers from 1 to 100 which are divisible by 3 and 5, is

A
2317
B
2632
C
315
D
2489
E
none of these

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