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Latest IBBI Officer Grade A Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, General Knowledge, Financial Awareness, Law
Question Bank IBBI Officer Grade A Exam - English
English
Q 1 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 2 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 3 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 4 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 5 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 6 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 7 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 8 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 9 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 10 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 11 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 12 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 13 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 14 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 15 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 16 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 17 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 18 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 19 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 20 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 21 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 22 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 23 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 24 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 25 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My neighbor along with his children
B.is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C.At Agra
D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B.but the former is
C.greater than latter
D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He has abandoned
B.the criminal activities
C.after returning from jail
D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.We must have
B.sympathy for
C.needy and the poor
D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Chinese is a very
B.difficult language to understand for those
C.who have never been to China
D.No error
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 31 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 32 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 33 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 34 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 35 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 36 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 37 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 38 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 39 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 40 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 41 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 42 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 43 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 44 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 45 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 46 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 47 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 48 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 49 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 50 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
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Reasoning Ability
Q 51 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 52 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 53 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 54 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 55 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 58 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 60 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 61 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 62 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 63 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 64 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 65 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 66 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 67 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 68 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 69 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 70 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
General Knowledge
Q 71 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 72 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 73 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 74 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 75 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 76 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 77 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 78 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 79 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 80 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 81 :
Which Indian state launched the ‘Green Energy Villages’ initiative in 2025 to promote renewable energy?
A.Uttar Pradesh
B.Rajasthan
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Gujarat
Q 82 :
Which organization developed the K-6 hypersonic Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) tested in 2025?
A.ISRO
B.HAL
C.Bharat Dynamics Limited
D.DRDO
Q 83 :
Which ministry established the Passport Seva Portal to streamline passport services in 2025?
A.Ministry of Home Affairs
B.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C.Ministry of External Affairs
D.Ministry of Electronics and IT
Q 84 :
What is the primary goal of the Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP) launched by the RBI in 2025?
A.Promote cash transactions
B.Enhance cybersecurity in digital payments
C.Reduce ATM usage
D.Increase bank branch networks
Q 85 :
Which Indian state topped the vulture population census in 2025?
A.Rajasthan
B.Gujarat
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Maharashtra
Q 86 :
Who was appointed as the first Indian-origin Director of the FBI in February 2025?
A.Ajit Pai
B.Neal Katyal
C.Kash Patel
D.Preet Bharara
Q 87 :
What was the theme of the Pusa Krishi Vigyan Mela 2025 held in New Delhi?
A.Organic Agriculture
B.Advanced Agriculture – Developed India
C.Digital Farming
D.Sustainable Irrigation
Q 88 :
Which space agency launched the ‘Artemis III’ mission to the Moon in 2025?
A.ESA
B.CNSA
C.ISRO
D.NASA
Q 89 :
Which Indian city hosted the 9th National Summit on Public Healthcare in February 2025?
A.Odisha
B.Maharashtra
C.Telangana
D.Karnataka
Q 90 :
Who was appointed as the Chairman of SEBI in February 2025?
A.Mani Shankar
B.Jitendra Kumar
C.Tuhin Kanta Pandey
D.Balbeer Singh
Financial Awareness
Q 91 :
Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
A.Henry Fayol
B.Elton Mayo
C.Chester Bernard
D.F. W. Taylor
Q 92 :
Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by –
A.Promoters
B.Board of Directors
C.Debenture holders
D.Government
Q 93 :
Bonus Shares are issued to –
A.Equity Shareholders
B.Preference Shareholders
C.Debenture Holders
D.Secured Creditors
Q 94 :
Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
A.Subrogation
B.Utmost good faith
C.Contribution
D.Average clause
Q 95 :
Rs. 10,000 spent on the replacement of worn out parts of an electronic machinery is treated as –
A.Capital expenditure
B.Revenue expenditure
C.Deferred revenue expenditure
D.Capital loss
Q 96 :
EPS is calculated as –
A.EBIT / Equity shares
B.EBIT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
C.EAT / Equity shares
D.EAT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
Q 97 :
Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
A.Line
B.Line and staff
C.Functional
D.Matrix
Q 98 :
In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
A.To machines
B.To paper work
C.To man
D.To production
Q 99 :
Standard costing is a technique of –
A.Planning
B.Organising
C.Coordination
D.Control
Q 100 :
‘Table A’ is an alternative to –
A.Prospectus
B.Articles of Association
C.Memorandum of Association
D.None of the above
Q 101 :
FEMA stands for –
A.Foreign Exchange Management Act
B.Funds Exchange Management Act
C.Finance Enhancement Monetary Act
D.Future Exchange Management Act
Q 102 :
What of the following is false about W.T.O. ?
A.It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement
B.It is global in its membership
C.It has far wider scope than GATT
D.Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member
Q 103 :
……........… has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade .
A.ISRD
B.ADS
C.WTO
D.DIMF
Q 104 :
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A.The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
B.Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India
C.Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner
D.None of the above
Q 105 :
Advance Income-tax is shown in the –
A.Debit side of Profit and Loss Account
B.Liability side of the Balance Sheet
C.Credit side of Profit and Loss Account
D.Assets side of the Balance Sheet
Q 106 :
In the absence of a Partnership Deed, the rate of interest allowed on the partner’s loan to the firm is –
A.5%
B.6%
C.10%
D.None of the above
Q 107 :
Interim Dividend is shown –
A.In Profit and Loss Account
B.In Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
C.On Asset side of Balance Sheet
D.On Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
Q 108 :
Memorandum of Association contains –
A.Objective clause
B.Name clause
C.Capital clause
D.All of the above
Q 109 :
If a cheque presented through the Clearing House is returned unpaid for any reason, the banker has to enclose the cheque to a Returning Memo while returning the instrument to the customer. This provision has been prescribed under:
A.Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D.RBI Clearing House Rules
Q 110 :
By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
A.By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
B.By order of Registrar of Companies
C.By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
D.None of the above
Q 111 :
Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Duty Drawback Scheme ?
A.Relieving export goods of duties paid for components used for manufacturing the export goods
B.Providing cash incentives to exporters to compensate the duty paid by them in foreign countries
C.Compensating importers to the extent of import duty paid by them for importing life-saving drugs
D.Providing a facility for withdrawing the duty paid by exporters if their exports are rejected in foreign countries
Q 112 :
In foreign trade, what is the price quoted by a supplier which includes all charges incurred up to door delivery of goods to the buyer, called ?
A.Loco price
B.C.I.F. price
C.Franco price
D.Landed price
Q 113 :
If the cost of goods sold is Rs. 1,00,000, the value of opening stock is Rs. 20,000 and the value of closing stock is Rs. 80,000, then the stock turnover ratio would be –
A.5 Times
B.4 Times
C.2 Times
D.1 Time
Q 114 :
If profit made during the year is Rs. 10,000; increase and decrease in the current assets is Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively, then the cash from operation equals –
A.Rs. 9,000
B.Rs. 10,000
C.Rs. 11,000
D.Rs. 19,000
Q 115 :
Commercial paper is a –
A.long-term corporate security meant for small investors
B.medium-term corporate security meant for institutional investors
C.treasury paper meant for corporate investors
D.short-term corporate security meant for large-scale investors
Q 116 :
A cartel is a combination of firms –
A.which are functioning in a particular industry
B.whose combined assets are worth more than 90% of total assets of the industry
C.who control major chunk of the market
D.whose combined profits are enormous
Q 117 :
One of the major difficulties improving the industrial efficiency in enterprises is –
A.low investment
B.low productivity
C.ineffective marketing
D.poor inventory control
Q 118 :
Exam Bank of India provides financial assistance to exporters and importers in India :
A.in foreign currency only
B.both in Indian currency and foreign currencies
C.as zero-interest loans
D.as subsidies
Q 119 :
‘Object Clause’ of a Memorandum of Association can be altered by –
A.Ordinary resolution
B.Special resolution
C.Special resolution and confirmation by Registrar of Companies
D.Special resolution and confirmation by Company Law Board
Q 120 :
The takeover of a company in which most of the purchase price is paid with borrowed money is referred to as –
A.hostile takeover
B.illegal takeover
C.leveraged buy-out
D.management buy-out
Law
Q 121 :
A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces
A.A B C D
2 3 1 4
B.4 1 2 3
C.3 4 1 2
D.1 2 3 4
Q 122 :
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 123 :
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
A.1 and 2 are correct
B.2 and 3 are correct
C.1 and 3 are correct
D.None of the above
Q 124 :
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 3
Q 125 :
Which one is not correctly matched?
A.Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B.Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C.conscience
Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D.(d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice
Q 126 :
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A.Prime Minister
B.Vice- President
C.Chief Minister
D.Chief Justice
Q 127 :
An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian constitution.
A.Codes:
1, 3, 2
B.1, 2, 3
C.3, 1, 2
D.2, 1,3
Q 128 :
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A.75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B.76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C.77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D.78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Q 129 :
Match the following:
A. Right to go 1. Bhim Singh's case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's 4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
A.Codes:
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B.4 2 3 1
C.2 4 3 1
D.4 2 1 3
Q 130 :
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
A.Three months
B.Six months
C.Nine months
D.Twelve months
Q 131 :
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B.Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C.Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D.Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Q 132 :
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.
A.A B C D
2 4 1 3
B.4 2 3 1
C.2 4 3 1
D.4 2 1 3
Q 133 :
Match the following:
A.Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B.Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
C.In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
D.In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Q 134 :
List-I List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights
Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus 3. Right to life and personal liberty
vs. State of MP
Bashesher Nath 4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability
A.A B C D
4 2 3 1
B.5 4 3 2
C.4 3 2 1
D.5 3 2 1
Q 135 :
List-I List-II
Independence of judiciary 1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation 2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial functions 3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance
A.A B C D
2 1 4 3
B.3 4 1 2
C.2 4 1 3
D.3 I 4 2
Q 136 :
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
A.3
B.4
C.2
D.1
Q 137 :
List-I List-II
​A Habeas corpus 1. Violation of natural justice
B. Mandamus 2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto 3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari 4. Non performance of public duty.
A.A B C D
2 4 3 1
B.1 3 4 2
C.2 3 4 1
D.1 4 3 2
Q 138 :
The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include:
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 3
Q 139 :
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
A.First
B.Second
C.Third
D.Fourth
Q 140 :
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
A.It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B.It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C.It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D.It allocates seats in the council of states.
Q 141 :
The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:
A.Fundamental rights
B.DPSP
C.List of languages recognised by the constitution
D.Number of states and UTS
Q 142 :
Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
A.2nd schedule
B.5th schedule
C.8th schedule
D.10th schedule
Q 143 :
At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
A.8
B.10
C.12
D.11
Q 144 :
The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
A.30 days
B.45 days
C.60 days
D.90 days
Q 145 :
When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
A.The President
B.The prime minister
C.The chief justice of India
D.Council of ministers
Q 146 :
The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of:
A.France
B.USA
C.United Kingdom
D.None of these
Q 147 :
Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
A.The election commission
B.President
C.Speaker of Lok Sabha
D.Prime minister
Q 148 :
Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?
A.Part IX
B.Part IX-A
C.Part X
D.Part X-A
Q 149 :
It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:
A.Preamble
B.Fundamental rights
C.Fundamental duties
D.Directive principles of state policy
Q 150 :
Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by
