Question for IBPS RRB Officer Scale II (Agriculture) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest IBPS RRB Officer Scale II Agriculture Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Professional Knowledge, Reasoning, Financial Awareness, English Language, Computer Knowledge, Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation

Question Bank IBPS RRB Officer Scale II (Agriculture) Exam - English

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Professional Knowledge

Question 1Single Answer

Which factor is most important for determining the suitability of a crop for a particular agro-climatic region?

A
Colour of harvested produce
B
Climatic requirements of the crop
C
Size of storage structure
D
Distance from market

Question 2Single Answer

Cropping intensity is expressed as the percentage ratio of gross cropped area to?

A
Cultivable waste land
B
Gross irrigated area
C
Total geographical area
D
Net sown area

Question 3Single Answer

Which of the following is predominantly a Kharif crop in India?

A
Chickpea
B
Mustard
C
Rice
D
Wheat

Question 4Single Answer

Rabi crops in India are generally sown during?

A
October to December
B
April to May
C
June to July
D
August to September

Question 5Single Answer

Which crop is commonly grown during the Zaid season?

A
Wheat
B
Chickpea
C
Mustard
D
Watermelon

Question 6Single Answer

The principal objective of primary tillage is to?

A
Separate grain from straw
B
Control storage pests
C
Grade harvested seeds
D
Open and loosen the soil

Question 7Single Answer

Which implement is most commonly associated with primary tillage?

A
Sprayer
B
Seed grader
C
Winnower
D
Mouldboard plough

Question 8Single Answer

Secondary tillage is mainly performed for?

A
Harvesting mature crops
B
Preparing a suitable seedbed
C
Grain storage
D
Deep inversion of soil

Question 9Single Answer

Puddling is an important field operation associated primarily with?

A
Chickpea
B
Transplanted rice
C
Mustard
D
Pearl millet

Question 10Single Answer

One major purpose of puddling in lowland rice is to?

A
Increase deep percolation
B
Increase soil aeration
C
Promote growth of upland weeds
D
Reduce percolation losses of water

Question 11Single Answer

The physical condition of soil in relation to plant growth is termed?

A
Tilth
B
Texture index
C
Harvest index
D
Crop coefficient

Question 12Single Answer

A fine and firm seedbed is particularly important for crops having?

A
Large tubers
B
Small seeds
C
Large planting cuttings
D
Rhizomes only

Question 13Single Answer

Zero tillage refers to crop establishment with?

A
Minimum prior soil disturbance
B
Repeated deep ploughing
C
Complete removal of residues
D
Continuous puddling

Question 14Single Answer

Conservation tillage is primarily intended to?

A
Increase soil erosion
B
Completely pulverize soil
C
Eliminate crop residues
D
Conserve soil and water resources

Question 15Single Answer

Which practice provides effective protection against soil erosion?

A
Cultivating directly up and down a slope
B
Keeping land continuously bare
C
Excessive pulverization
D
Maintaining crop residues on the soil surface

Question 16Single Answer

Seed rate of a field crop is strongly influenced by germination percentage, seed size and?

A
Grain colour
B
Market price
C
Storage period
D
Desired plant population

Question 17Single Answer

Compared with broadcasting, line sowing particularly facilitates?

A
Random plant distribution
B
Intercultural operations
C
Seed wastage
D
Uneven plant population

Question 18Single Answer

Broadcasting is a method in which seeds are?

A
Placed individually in holes
B
Scattered over the soil surface
C
Transplanted as seedlings
D
Planted exclusively in furrows

Question 19Single Answer

Dibbling involves?

A
Scattering seeds randomly
B
Placing seeds in holes at predetermined spacing
C
Mixing seeds with irrigation water
D
Raising every crop in a nursery

Question 20Single Answer

Which crop is extensively established through transplanting in India?

A
Rice
B
Chickpea
C
Mustard
D
Wheat

Question 21Single Answer

An important advantage of transplanting is that it allows?

A
Elimination of irrigation
B
Complete prevention of weeds
C
Elimination of nursery management
D
Better regulation of plant population

Question 22Single Answer

Plant population per unit area is most directly affected by?

A
Grain colour
B
Harvesting date alone
C
Storage temperature
D
Row and plant spacing

Question 23Single Answer

Excessive plant population generally results in greater?

A
Root volume available per plant
B
Growing space per plant
C
Light availability within canopy
D
Competition among plants

Question 24Single Answer

Thinning is primarily carried out to?

A
Increase weed population
B
Reduce seed germination
C
Increase excessive crop density
D
Maintain optimum plant population

Question 25Single Answer

Gap filling in a crop is undertaken mainly to?

A
Remove healthy plants
B
Increase weed density
C
Delay crop maturity
D
Maintain a uniform plant stand

Question 26Single Answer

Growing different crops in a planned sequence on the same land is called?

A
Crop rotation
B
Mixed cropping
C
Monocropping
D
Sole cropping

Question 27Single Answer

Leguminous crops are valuable components of crop rotations because many of them can?

A
Prevent decomposition of organic matter
B
Increase soil salinity
C
Eliminate soil microorganisms
D
Fix atmospheric nitrogen symbiotically

Question 28Single Answer

Repeated cultivation of the same crop on the same field is termed?

A
Relay cropping
B
Monocropping
C
Sequential cropping
D
Intercropping

Question 29Single Answer

A major objective of mixed cropping is to?

A
Maximize production risk
B
Maintain a single crop species
C
Reduce the risk of complete crop failure
D
Eliminate crop diversity

Question 30Single Answer

In intercropping, two or more crops are generally grown?

A
In different years only
B
Simultaneously in a definite row arrangement
C
Without any spatial arrangement
D
Only after harvesting the preceding crop

Question 31Single Answer

Relay cropping refers to?

A
Sowing the succeeding crop before harvesting the standing crop
B
Growing only one crop annually
C
Leaving the field fallow after harvest
D
Growing crops only in separate fields

Question 32Single Answer

Multiple cropping means growing?

A
Only perennial crops
B
One crop for several consecutive years
C
Only two varieties of the same crop
D
More than one crop on the same land in a year

Question 33Single Answer

Sequential cropping involves?

A
Growing crops randomly together
B
Mixing seeds before sowing
C
Growing crops only under rainfed conditions
D
Growing two or more crops one after another

Question 34Single Answer

Harvest index is the ratio of economic yield to?

A
Biological yield
B
Seed rate
C
Root weight
D
Irrigation requirement

Question 35Single Answer

Biological yield of a crop refers to?

A
Only crop residues
B
Only marketable grain
C
Only root biomass
D
Total dry matter produced by the crop

Question 36Single Answer

In a grain crop, economic yield usually refers to the?

A
Total root biomass
B
Entire dry matter production
C
Harvested grain of economic value
D
Stubble remaining after harvest

Question 37Single Answer

The economic yield of wheat is primarily its?

A
Grain
B
Roots
C
Stubble
D
Leaves

Question 38Single Answer

The initial absorption of water by a dry seed is known as?

A
Scarification
B
Stratification
C
Imbibition
D
Vernalization

Question 39Single Answer

Which factor is essential for normal seed germination of most field crops?

A
Permanent waterlogging
B
High salinity
C
Complete absence of oxygen
D
Adequate moisture

Question 40Single Answer

The temperature below which development of a particular crop essentially stops is called?

A
Base temperature
B
Lethal temperature
C
Canopy temperature
D
Optimum temperature

Reasoning

Question 41Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line

According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?

A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these

Question 42Single Answer

‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to

A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy

Question 43Single Answer

'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to

A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these

Question 44Single Answer

Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?

A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger

Question 45Single Answer

'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to

A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these

Question 46Single Answer

'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to

A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these

Question 47Single Answer

Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?

A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these

Question 48Single Answer

Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?

A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these

Question 49Single Answer

Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?

A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice

Question 50Single Answer

Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to

A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these

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Reasoning

Question 51Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : the sets of numbers in the four alternatives given below, which is the most similar to the given set.

Given Set : (6, 15, 28)

A
(50,59,71)
B
(46, 56, 66)
C
(60, 69, 72)
D
(60, 69, 82)
E
None of these

Question 52Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : the sets of numbers in the four alternatives given below, which is the most similar to the given set.

Given Set : (81, 77, 69)

A
(56, 52, 44)
B
(64, 61, 53)
C
(92, 88, 79)
D
(75, 71, 60)
E
None of these

Question 53Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives

Kick : Football

A
Mop : Sweep
B
Dust : Rage
C
Wash : Dishes
D
Throw : Ring
E
None of these

Question 54Single Answer

Passage :

Rectangle : Pentagon

A
Triangle : Rectangle
B
Diagonal : Perimeter
C
Side : Angle
D
Circle : Square
E
None of the above

Question 55Single Answer

Passage :

Inherit : Acquire

A
Instinct : Habbit
B
Learn : Discover
C
Loss : Gain
D
Hierarchical : Succession
E
None of the above

Question 56Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.

Court : Justic

A
Police : Crime
B
Teacher : Study
C
Doctor : Sickness
D
Auditor : Accuracy
E
None of these

Question 57Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.

Coal : Thermal

A
Power : Energy
B
Bulb : Light
C
Air : Atmosphere
D
Water : Hydel
E
None of the above

Question 58Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer

Statements I=H>C> N < E=S
Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C > S

A
Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B
Either conclusion I or II is true
C
Only conclusion II is true
D
Only conclusion I is true
E
Both conclusions I and II are true

Question 59Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer

Statements G> R>E=A<T<S:D<A<J
Conclusions
I. T D
II. R > S

A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Question 60Single Answer

Passage :

Statements G>R> E=A<T<S:D<A<J
Conclusions
I J > G
II. J = G

A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Question 61Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 62Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 63Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 64Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 65Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 66Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 67Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 68Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 69Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 70Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 71Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 72Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 73Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 74Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 75Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 76Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 77Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 78Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 79Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 80Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Financial Awareness

Question 81Single Answer

What does the break-even point represent in financial analysis?

A
Point where profit is maximized
B
Point where total revenue equals total costs
C
Point where variable costs are zero
D
Point where fixed costs exceed revenue

Question 82Single Answer

In break-even analysis, which cost remains constant regardless of production volume?

A
Variable cost
B
Fixed cost
C
Marginal cost
D
Opportunity cost

Question 83Single Answer

How is the break-even point in units calculated?

A
Variable Costs ÷ Contribution Margin
B
Total Revenue ÷ Variable Cost per Unit
C
Fixed Costs ÷ Selling Price per Unit
D
Fixed Costs ÷ (Selling Price per Unit - Variable Cost per Unit)

Question 84Single Answer

What is the contribution margin in break-even analysis?

A
Total Revenue minus Total Costs
B
Total Revenue minus Fixed Costs
C
Fixed Costs minus Variable Costs
D
Selling Price per Unit minus Variable Cost per Unit

Question 85Single Answer

If a company has fixed costs of Rs 5,00,000, a selling price of Rs 100 per unit, and a variable cost of Rs 60 per unit, what is the break-even point in units?

A
10,000 units
B
12,500 units
C
15,000 units
D
8,000 units

Question 86Single Answer

What happens if the selling price per unit increases in break-even analysis?

A
Break-even point decreases
B
Break-even point increases
C
Fixed costs increase
D
Variable costs decrease

Question 87Single Answer

In break-even analysis, what is the margin of safety?

A
Difference between fixed and variable costs
B
Excess of actual sales over break-even sales
C
Total revenue minus fixed costs
D
Contribution margin divided by fixed costs

Question 88Single Answer

A firm has a break-even point of 10,000 units and actual sales of 15,000 units. If the selling price is Rs 50 per unit, what is the margin of safety in rupees?

A
Rs 5,00,000
B
Rs 2,50,000
C
Rs 7,50,000
D
Rs 1,00,000

Question 89Single Answer

Which factor does not affect the break-even point?

A
Variable costs
B
Fixed costs
C
Interest rate on loans
D
Selling price per unit

Question 90Single Answer

If fixed costs increase, what happens to the break-even point?

A
Remains unchanged
B
Decreases
C
Increases
D
Becomes negative

Question 91Single Answer

How many units must be sold to achieve a target profit of Rs 1,50,000?

A
8,000 units
B
10,000 units
C
12,500 units
D
15,000 units

Question 92Single Answer

In break-even analysis, what does a high contribution margin ratio indicate?

A
Lower break-even point
B
Higher fixed costs
C
Higher variable costs
D
Lower sales volume

Question 93Single Answer

If a company’s break-even point is 5,000 units, and it sells 7,000 units, what is the margin of safety percentage?

A
28.57%
B
40%
C
50%
D
20%

Question 94Single Answer

What is the effect of reducing variable costs on the break-even point?

A
Increases break-even point
B
Decreases break-even point
C
No effect on break-even point
D
Increases fixed costs

Question 95Single Answer

What is the break-even point in rupees?

A
Rs 2,50,000
B
Rs 4,00,000
C
Rs 3,20,000
D
Rs 5,00,000

Question 96Single Answer

In break-even analysis, which cost is directly proportional to production volume?

A
Opportunity cost
B
Fixed cost
C
Sunk cost
D
Variable cost

Question 97Single Answer

If the contribution margin ratio is 40% and fixed costs are Rs 4,00,000, what is the break-even point in sales revenue?

A
Rs 8,00,000
B
Rs 10,00,000
C
Rs 12,00,000
D
Rs 6,00,000

Question 98Single Answer

What does a break-even chart visually represent?

A
Relationship between costs, revenue, and output
B
Profit maximization levels
C
Fixed cost trends over time
D
Variable cost fluctuations

Question 99Single Answer

If a company’s break-even point is 8,000 units and the contribution margin per unit is Rs 25, what are the fixed costs?

A
Rs 1,50,000
B
Rs 2,00,000
C
Rs 2,50,000
D
Rs 1,00,000

Question 100Single Answer

In break-even analysis, what is the significance of the contribution margin?

A
Indicates fixed cost recovery
B
Represents total revenue
C
Equals variable costs
D
Covers fixed costs and generates profit

Question 101Single Answer

A firm has fixed costs of Rs 6,00,000, a selling price of Rs 150 per unit, and a variable cost of Rs 90 per unit. How many units must be sold to break even?

A
6,000 units
B
8,000 units
C
12,000 units
D
10,000 units

Question 102Single Answer

What happens to the break-even point if variable costs per unit increase?

A
Becomes negative
B
Decreases
C
Remains unchanged
D
Increases

Question 103Single Answer

In break-even analysis, what is the formula for the margin of safety in units?

A
Break-even Sales - Actual Sales
B
Actual Sales - Break-even Sales
C
Fixed Costs ÷ Contribution Margin
D
Total Revenue ÷ Selling Price

Question 104Single Answer

If a company’s fixed costs are Rs 4,50,000, selling price per unit is Rs 75, and variable cost per unit is Rs 45, what is the break-even point in units?

A
15,000 units
B
10,000 units
C
12,000 units
D
8,000 units

Question 105Single Answer

What does a low margin of safety indicate in break-even analysis?

A
High contribution margin
B
High profitability
C
Low fixed costs
D
High risk of losses

Question 106Single Answer

A company’s break-even point is 20,000 units, and it sells 25,000 units. If the selling price is Rs 40 per unit, what is the margin of safety in rupees?

A
Rs 3,00,000
B
Rs 2,00,000
C
Rs 1,50,000
D
Rs 4,00,000

Question 107Single Answer

In break-even analysis, what is the impact of increasing fixed costs?

A
Reduces contribution margin
B
Decreases break-even point
C
No effect on break-even point
D
Increases break-even point

Question 108Single Answer

If a company’s contribution margin ratio is 25% and fixed costs are Rs 2,00,000, what is the break-even point in sales revenue?

A
Rs 8,00,000
B
Rs 6,00,000
C
Rs 10,00,000
D
Rs 4,00,000

Question 109Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of break-even analysis?

A
Increase fixed costs
B
Maximize profits
C
Reduce variable costs
D
Determine minimum sales for no loss

Question 110Single Answer

If a firm’s break-even point is 12,000 units and the contribution margin per unit is Rs 50, what are the fixed costs?

A
Rs 4,00,000
B
Rs 6,00,000
C
Rs 8,00,000
D
Rs 2,00,000

Question 111Single Answer

In break-even analysis, what does the contribution margin ratio represent?

A
Total fixed costs divided by sales
B
Percentage of revenue covering fixed costs
C
Variable costs as a percentage of revenue
D
Profit per unit sold

Question 112Single Answer

A company has fixed costs of Rs 7,50,000, a selling price of Rs 200 per unit, and a variable cost of Rs 120 per unit. What is the break-even point in units?

A
10,000 units
B
8,000 units
C
9,375 units
D
7,500 units

Question 113Single Answer

What happens if the selling price per unit decreases in break-even analysis?

A
Fixed costs increase
B
Break-even point decreases
C
Break-even point increases
D
Variable costs decrease

Question 114Single Answer

In break-even analysis, what is the significance of a high margin of safety?

A
Lower risk of losses
B
Higher fixed costs
C
Lower contribution margin
D
Higher variable costs

Question 115Single Answer

If a company’s fixed costs are Rs 3,00,000, selling price per unit is Rs 60, and variable cost per unit is Rs 20, what is the break-even point in rupees?

A
Rs 3,75,000
B
Rs 4,50,000
C
Rs 5,00,000
D
Rs 6,00,000

Question 116Single Answer

What does the break-even point in sales revenue represent?

A
Revenue needed to cover all costs
B
Revenue needed to maximize profit
C
Revenue equal to variable costs
D
Revenue equal to fixed costs

Question 117Single Answer

A company’s break-even point is 10,000 units, and it sells 14,000 units. If the selling price is Rs 100 per unit, what is the margin of safety in rupees?

A
Rs 3,00,000
B
Rs 4,00,000
C
Rs 5,00,000
D
Rs 2,00,000

Question 118Single Answer

In break-even analysis, which factor directly affects the contribution margin?

A
Fixed cost
B
Variable cost per unit
C
Total revenue
D
Break-even point

Question 119Single Answer

If a company’s contribution margin ratio is 30% and fixed costs are Rs 9,00,000, what is the break-even point in sales revenue?

A
Rs 15,00,000
B
Rs 20,00,000
C
Rs 25,00,000
D
Rs 30,00,000

Question 120Single Answer

What is the impact of reducing fixed costs on the break-even point?

A
No effect on break-even point
B
Increases break-even point
C
Decreases break-even point
D
Increases contribution margin

English Language

Question 121Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 122Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 123Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 124Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 125Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 126Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 127Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 128Single Answer

We shall invite Suresh.

A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us

Question 129Single Answer

Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Question 130Single Answer

The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Question 131Single Answer

Why did break the vase?

A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him

Question 132Single Answer

Mariam was writing a note to her boss.

A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss

Question 133Single Answer

The baby really enjoys that music.

A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.

Question 134Single Answer

The weather disrupted the final match.

A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.

Question 135Single Answer

The management committee is required to publish a report every year.

A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.

Question 136Single Answer

Preeti ran the race in record time.

A
In record time Preeti ran the race.
B
The race was run by Preeti in record time
C
The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D
The race had been run by Preeti in record time

Question 137Single Answer

I shall have written the full thesis by December

A
By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B
The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C
The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D
By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.

Question 138Single Answer

One must keep one’s promises.

A
One’s promises must be kept by one.
B
One’s promises had to be kept.
C
Promises must be kept.
D
Promises have to be kept by one.

Question 139Single Answer

I read the story in one night.

A
The story had been read by me in one night.
B
The story has been read by me in one night
C
n one night the story has been read by me.
D
the story was read by me in one night

Question 140Single Answer

We must take care of the old.

A
Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B
The old must be taken care of by us.
C
Those who are old need care by us
D
The old should be taken care of by us.

Question 141Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 142Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 143Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 144Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 145Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

Question 146Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Ogle

A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk

Question 147Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Intrinsic

A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired

Question 148Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Coalesce

A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate

Question 149Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Loiter

A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii

Question 150Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.

A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing

Question 151Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Deep-seated

A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious

Question 152Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Vibrant

A
Drab
B
Gaudy
C
Jazzy
D
Vivid

Question 153Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

To scowl

A
To glower
B
To smirk
C
To Grimace
D
To grin

Question 154Single Answer

Passage :

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error .

I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)

Question 155Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Atheist

A
Skeptic
B
Pagan
C
Disciple
D
Agnostic

Question 156Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Abdicate

A
Forgo
B
Usurp
C
Waive
D
Cede

Question 157Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

Mandarin Chinese is spoken by people.

A
Little
B
Few
C
Many
D
Big

Question 158Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

A person who is good at foreign languages is known as-

A
Virtuoso
B
Linguist
C
Ventriloquist
D
Scholar

Question 159Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Astringe

A
Liberate
B
Constringe
C
Circumscribe
D
Tauten

Question 160Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.

The ………..of gurudakshina is very ancient.

A
habit
B
approach
C
perception
D
concept

Computer Knowledge

Question 161Single Answer

Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?

A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar

Question 162Single Answer

What is active desktop ?

A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these

Question 163Single Answer

What is meant by an active window?

A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first

Question 164Single Answer

What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?

A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system

Question 165Single Answer

An application is

A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these

Question 166Single Answer

Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?

A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these

Question 167Single Answer

The term Briefcase is used for

A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these

Question 168Single Answer

In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?

A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically

Question 169Single Answer

A channel (in windows terminology) is

A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these

Question 170Single Answer

What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?

A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline

Question 171Single Answer

The term classic style implies

A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these

Question 172Single Answer

The term click implies

A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these

Question 173Single Answer

What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?

A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window

Question 174Single Answer

A command button

A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these

Question 175Single Answer

What is smallest unit of the information?

A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble

Question 176Single Answer

A cursor is

A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these

Question 177Single Answer

What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?

A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations

Question 178Single Answer

The meaning of cut is

A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct

Question 179Single Answer

A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as

A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these

Question 180Single Answer

The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is

A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these

Question 181Single Answer

What is a dialog box in a graphical user interface?

A
An on-screen window used to display information or obtain user input and selections
B
A tool used exclusively for audio and video calls
C
A hardware device used for voice commands
D
A program used exclusively to browse websites

Question 182Single Answer

A letter, memo, proposal, or other that is created using Microsoft word is called as

A
Master
B
slide
C
document
D
worksheet
E
None of these

Question 183Single Answer

The meaning of double click is

A
pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice in rapid succession when the on - tree mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
appearance of an icon
C
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
D
All of the above
E
None of these

Question 184Single Answer

The term drag and drop means

A
appearance of an icon
B
used for selecting text
C
to move text or an object by positioning the mouse pointer on the item you want to move, pressing and holding the mouse button to drop the object into its new location
D
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
E
None of these

Question 185Single Answer

What does dragging with a mouse mean?

A
Holding down a mouse button while moving the mouse pointer
B
Closing an application
C
Double-clicking an icon without moving the mouse
D
Restarting the computer

Question 186Single Answer

What is the purpose of a drop-down list in a graphical user interface?

A
To display a list of selectable choices when expanded
B
To permanently delete selected files
C
To close all running applications
D
To display only error messages

Question 187Single Answer

The default name for a desktop icon that opens an explore window displaying information about your system’s disk drives and also special system folders like printers and control panel

A
my computer
B
news groups
C
message box
D
network neighbourhood
E
None of these

Question 188Single Answer

________________ means to enlarge window to its maximum area so that it will full entire desktop

A
maximize
B
zoom
C
enlarge
D
extend
E
None of these

Question 189Single Answer

What is HTML primarily used for?

A
Defining the structure and meaning of content on web pages
B
Managing computer hardware drivers
C
Encrypting all Internet traffic
D
Controlling the computer's BIOS

Question 190Single Answer

What is the process of visually emphasizing selected text or an object on a computer screen commonly called?

A
Shading
B
Hyperlinking
C
Highlighting
D
Compiling

Question 191Single Answer

Which data structure stores elements in contiguous memory locations?

A
Linked List
B
Stack
C
Array
D
Queue

Question 192Single Answer

What is the time complexity of accessing an element in an array by its index?

A
O(n)
B
O(log n)
C
O(1)
D
O(n log n)

Question 193Single Answer

Which data structure follows the Last-In, First-Out (LIFO) principle?

A
Queue
B
Linked List
C
Stack
D
Tree

Question 194Single Answer

Computer network is?

A
Collection of hardware
B
Database
C
Software system
D
Interconnected computers

Question 195Single Answer

Internet is?

A
Single network
B
MAN
C
LAN
D
Network of networks

Question 196Single Answer

LAN stands for?

A
Long Area Network
B
Large Area Network
C
Local Area Network
D
Logical Area Network

Question 197Single Answer

DBMS stands for?

A
Data Base Management System
B
Data Backup Management System
C
Database Monitoring System
D
Data Build Management System

Question 198Single Answer

Database is?

A
Program
B
Collection of related data
C
Hardware
D
Network

Question 199Single Answer

Microsoft Word is primarily used for?

A
Database management
B
Web hosting
C
Video editing
D
Word processing

Question 200Single Answer

Microsoft Word is developed by?

A
Apple
B
Google
C
Microsoft
D
IBM

Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation

Question 201Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 202Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 203Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 204Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 205Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 206Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 207Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 208Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 209Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 210Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 211Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 212Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 213Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 214Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 215Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 216Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 217Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 218Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 219Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 220Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 221Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :

How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 222Single Answer

Passage :

The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 223Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 224Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 225Single Answer

Passage :

What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 226Single Answer

Passage :

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 227Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 228Single Answer

Passage :

What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 229Single Answer

Passage :

What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 230Single Answer

Passage :

How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 231Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.

Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :

A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I Quantity II
C
Quantity II Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Question 232Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.

Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?

A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I Quantity II
C
Quantity II Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Question 233Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.

Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation

A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C
Quantity II > Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Question 234Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.

Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation

A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C
Quantity II > Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Question 235Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it.you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer.

Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.

A
Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 236Single Answer

Passage :

Is x an integer ?

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 237Single Answer

Passage :

Out of the four teams A, B, C and D which team is not likely to win as per the opinion poll ?
(I) As per the opinion poll, chances of team C’s winning are more than that of team A.
(II) As per the opinion poll team C’s chances of winning are less than that of team B but not less than that of team D, whose chances of winning are more than that of team A.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 238Single Answer

Passage :

A, B and C are positive integers. Is their product an even number ?
(I) A is an even number.
(II) The product of A and B is an even number and that of A and C is also an even number.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 239Single Answer

Passage :

What was Mr. Srinivasula’s combined income for the year 1994-1999 ? In 1994, he made Rs.10,00,000.
(I) His average yearly income for the years 1994-1999 was Rs.12,00,000.
(II) In 1999, his income was Rs.20,00,000.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement(I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 240Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it .you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question . Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (2) alone is not sufficient

A, B, C and D made their project presentation, one on each day, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day did ‘C’ make his presentation ?
(1) The first presentation was made on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by ‘D’s presentation.
(2) ‘A’ did not make his presentation on 25th and one of them made his presentation, between A’s and B’s.

A
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B
statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

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