Effective from 15th March 2003, the Information Technology Act, 2000 has been amended so as to bring which of the following instrument within its purview ?
A
Bills of exchange
B
Cheque
C
Promissory notes
D
Hundis
E
Electronic Cheques and Truncated Cheques
Question 3Single Answer
As per Prevention of Money - laundering (Maintenance of Records of the Nature and Value of Transactions, the Procedure and Manner of Maintaining and Time for Furnishing Information and Verification and Maintenance of Records of the Identity of the clients of the banking Companies, Financial Institutions and Intermediaries) Second Amendment Rules, 2010, no banking, financial institution and Intermediary, as the case may be, shall allow ?
A
The opening of or keep any anonymous account
B
Account in fictitious names
C
Account on behalf of other persons whose identity has not been disclosed or cannot be verified
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 4Single Answer
Which of the following are the requirements for finding a notice ?
A
It must be in writing giving the Borrower time of 60 days to discharge the liability
B
It must specify that secured creditor has right to exercise any action over the assets
C
It must give details of amount payable by the borrower and the secured assets
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 5Single Answer
Bank branch in Patna decides of sanction working capital limits to a public limited company having registered office in Patna and proposes to obtain equitable mortgage of immovable property of the company located in Delhi . The registration of the particulars of mortgage will be required to be done ?
A
With the Registrar of Companies having Jurisdiction over Patna
B
With the Registrar having jurisdiction over Delhi
C
With both the registrars
D
With any of the registrar
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
As per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 who is a competent witness ?
A
A lunatic
B
An accomplice
C
Husbands and wives
D
Parties to the suit
E
All of the above
Question 7Single Answer
A public charitable trust is governed by ?
A
Public Trust Act
B
Indian Trust Act, 1882
C
Waqf Act, 1995
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
The "Ambulance Room" is to be provided if a factory engages more than ?
A
50 employees
B
100 employees
C
200 employees
D
500 employees
E
1000 employees
Question 9Single Answer
In case of gift cheques, please identify which of the following is true ?
A
The payee can be a holder in due course
B
The payee cannot be a holder in due course
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Either (a) or (b)
E
None of these
Question 10Single Answer
What does the Latin phrase "Mutatis mutandis" mean ?
A
Changing most of the things
B
Changing most of the things which need to be changed
C
Changing all the things
D
Making no changes
E
None of these
Question 11Single Answer
The fee for filling an Original Application (OA) for recovery of debts amounting Rs. 1.5 Crores due to banks and financial institutions will be ?
A
Rs. 12,000
B
Rs. 1,52,000
C
Rs. 1,50,000
D
10 % of the actionable claim
E
Rs. 2,00,000
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following committees also recommended the setup of Debt Recovery Tribunals ?
A
Committee on Financial sector Reforms
B
Committee on Custom Service
C
Committee on RRBs
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
In terms of Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which of the following ingredients should be satisfied to be a valid contract ?
A
Intention to create legal obligation through offer and acceptance should be present
B
Free consent of the parties is necessary
C
Competency or capacity of parties to enter into contract must be ensured
D
Only (a) and (b)
E
All of the above
Question 14Single Answer
As per a recent RBI guidelines, minors above ____ years of age can open and operate independently savings bank account .
A
8 years
B
10 years
C
12 years
D
14 years
E
16 years
Question 15Single Answer
Canteen to be provided under the Factories Act, 1948, on how many number of employees ?
A
150
B
250
C
350
D
500
E
1000
Question 16Single Answer
The Banking Ombudsman Scheme covers the following Banks ?
A
Scheduled Commercial Banks
B
Regional Rural Banks
C
Co - operative Banks
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 17Single Answer
In which of the following cities is the DRAT (Debt Recover Appellate Tribunal) not located ?
A
Delhi
B
Allahabad
C
Mumbai
D
Bangalore
E
Chennai
Question 18Single Answer
Which of the following is not an enclosure to paper Books which is enclosure to the application with Debt Recovery Tribunal ?
A
All the documents based on which the claim is formed
B
Details of payment of Fee
C
Application of the borrower
D
Affidavit of the Advocate if the case is filed through the Advocate
E
None of these
Question 19Single Answer
Section - 6 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to ?
A
Suits
B
Execution of a decree
C
Appeal
D
Suits & execution of a decree
E
All of the above
Question 20Single Answer
Which of the following is correct regarding the Basic Services Demat Account (BSDA) ?
A
An investor can convert an existing Demat Account in to BSDS category
B
SMART registration is mandatory for BSDA accounts
C
An Investor can open more than one Demat Account under BSDA category
D
Both (a) and (b)
E
All of the above
Question 21Single Answer
The origin of Information Technology Act in India is ?
A
Both the Houses of Parliament passed the Bill on May, 2000
B
The President approved the Bill in August, 2000
C
The Act is known as information Technology Act, 2000
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
The law stated by the Supreme Court becomes the law of the land under ?
A
Article - 164
B
Article - 141
C
Article - 123
D
Article - 121
E
Article - 122
Question 23Single Answer
A company has failed to file particulars of charge for a loan raised from bank and a period of 4 months has already lapsed ?
A
The charge can be filed by the company any time by paying penalty
B
The charge can be filed by the company and bank together
C
The charge can be filed with the permission of RoC by paying penalty
D
The charge can be field with the permission of Company Law Board, by paying penalty
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
To check the cheque related frauds, the examination under ultra - violet (UV) lamp for all cheques beyond a thresh old of Rs. ____ is mandatory .
A
Rs. 50,000
B
Rs. 1 Lakh
C
Rs. 2 Lakh
D
Rs. 5 Lakh
E
Rs. 10 Lakh
Question 25Single Answer
What is the doctrine of constructive notice ?
A
Any person who enters into a contract with a company is expected to have knowledge of power and position of the company and its directors
B
It is presumed that the person has gone through its memorandum and articles
C
No person who binds himself to the company can later plead that he had no knowledge of the contents of its memorandum and articles
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 26Single Answer
An arbitration proceeding is a ?
A
Judicial proceeding
B
Administrative proceeding
C
Quasi - Judicial Proceeding
D
Judicial & Administrative Proceeding
E
None of these
Question 27Single Answer
Under the Ombudsman Scheme for Banks effective from January 01, 2006, the Ombudsman functions as ?
A
Advisor for bank and customer
B
Advisee for bank and customer
C
Lok Adalat for banks and customer
D
Arbitrator between banks and customers
E
None of these
Question 28Single Answer
Jurisdiction to grant bail under Section 438 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 vests with ?
A
The court of magistrate
B
The court of sessions
C
The high court
D
The Court of Session and the high court and not the court of magistrate
E
All of the above
Question 29Single Answer
Limitation for filing an appeal commences from ?
A
The date of judgment
B
The date of signing of the decree
C
The date of application for copy of the judgment
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 30Single Answer
What are the main issues with which SARFAESI Act, 2002 deals with ?
A
Securitisation of Assets
B
Setting up of an Assets Reconstruction Company
C
Enforcement of Securities
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 31Single Answer
As per Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 for how many days can a party explain the court for delay in filing ?
A
From the date of the expiry of limitation period till the date of filing the application
B
Period after the date of the expiry of limitation period and before the date of filing the application
C
After the date of the expiry of limitation till the time of delay
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
A person who is aggrieved by a decision or an order of the cyber appeal tribunal can go to the High Court for appeal within ____ days .
A
30 days
B
50 days
C
90 days
D
120 days
E
140 days
Question 33Single Answer
The power of enforcement of security is available to ?
A
The members are not personally liable for any act or omission
B
No member can claim on the property of company
C
The continuity of a company is not affected by death disability or retirement
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 34Single Answer
The work done under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is ?
A
Nil
B
Valid
C
Voidable
D
Either nil or voidable
E
Situation is not clear
Question 35Single Answer
When can the judge make amendments in the judgment once passed by him ?
A
Order of punishment
B
Change in judgment
C
In case of clerical errors
D
Amendments in all the above casesAmendments in all the above cases
E
None of these
Question 36Single Answer
The number of witnesses required to prove any fact is ?
A
Two
B
One
C
Three
D
Five
E
No specific number is required
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the following is not essential of a contract ?
A
Transfer of ownership
B
Immediate delivery of the goods
C
The contract must satisfy essentials of a valid contract
D
Goods must be a movable property
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
A quasi contract is a contract that exists by ?
A
Order of a court
B
Agreement of the parties
C
Either (a) or (b)
D
Both (a) and (b)
E
None of these
Question 39Single Answer
Within how many days after the date on which the issues are settled, shall the parties present in court the witnesses ?
A
7 days
B
30 days
C
14 days
D
1 month
E
15 days
Question 40Single Answer
'Subprime lending' is a term applied to the loans made to ?
A
Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history
B
Those borrowers who have a good credit history
C
Those borrowers who do not have a good debit history
D
Those borrowers who have a good debit history
E
None of these
Reasoning
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 42Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 43Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 45Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 46Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 48Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 50Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
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Reasoning
Question 51Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : the sets of numbers in the four alternatives given below, which is the most similar to the given set.
Given Set : (6, 15, 28)
A
(50,59,71)
B
(46, 56, 66)
C
(60, 69, 72)
D
(60, 69, 82)
E
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : the sets of numbers in the four alternatives given below, which is the most similar to the given set.
Given Set : (81, 77, 69)
A
(56, 52, 44)
B
(64, 61, 53)
C
(92, 88, 79)
D
(75, 71, 60)
E
None of these
Question 53Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives
Kick : Football
A
Mop : Sweep
B
Dust : Rage
C
Wash : Dishes
D
Throw : Ring
E
None of these
Question 54Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives
Rectangle : Pentagon
A
Triangle : Rectangle
B
Diagonal : Perimeter
C
Side : Angle
D
Circle : Square
E
None of the above
Question 55Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives
Inherit : Acquire
A
Instinct : Habbit
B
Learn : Discover
C
Loss : Gain
D
Hierarchical : Succession
E
None of the above
Question 56Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.
Court : Justic
A
Police : Crime
B
Teacher : Study
C
Doctor : Sickness
D
Auditor : Accuracy
E
None of these
Question 57Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.
Coal : Thermal
A
Power : Energy
B
Bulb : Light
C
Air : Atmosphere
D
Water : Hydel
E
None of the above
Question 58Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements I=H>C> N < E=S Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C > S
A
Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B
Either conclusion I or II is true
C
Only conclusion II is true
D
Only conclusion I is true
E
Both conclusions I and II are true
Question 59Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements G> R>E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I. T D
II. R > S
A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Question 60Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements G>R> E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I J > G
II. J = G
A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Question 61Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 63Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 64Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 65Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 66Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 67Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 68Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 69Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 70Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 76Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 77Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 78Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 79Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 80Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Financial Awareness
Question 81Single Answer
What does the break-even point represent in financial analysis?
A
Point where profit is maximized
B
Point where total revenue equals total costs
C
Point where variable costs are zero
D
Point where fixed costs exceed revenue
Question 82Single Answer
In break-even analysis, which cost remains constant regardless of production volume?
A
Variable cost
B
Fixed cost
C
Marginal cost
D
Opportunity cost
Question 83Single Answer
How is the break-even point in units calculated?
A
Variable Costs ÷ Contribution Margin
B
Total Revenue ÷ Variable Cost per Unit
C
Fixed Costs ÷ Selling Price per Unit
D
Fixed Costs ÷ (Selling Price per Unit - Variable Cost per Unit)
Question 84Single Answer
What is the contribution margin in break-even analysis?
A
Total Revenue minus Total Costs
B
Total Revenue minus Fixed Costs
C
Fixed Costs minus Variable Costs
D
Selling Price per Unit minus Variable Cost per Unit
Question 85Single Answer
If a company has fixed costs of Rs 5,00,000, a selling price of Rs 100 per unit, and a variable cost of Rs 60 per unit, what is the break-even point in units?
A
10,000 units
B
12,500 units
C
15,000 units
D
8,000 units
Question 86Single Answer
What happens if the selling price per unit increases in break-even analysis?
A
Break-even point decreases
B
Break-even point increases
C
Fixed costs increase
D
Variable costs decrease
Question 87Single Answer
In break-even analysis, what is the margin of safety?
A
Difference between fixed and variable costs
B
Excess of actual sales over break-even sales
C
Total revenue minus fixed costs
D
Contribution margin divided by fixed costs
Question 88Single Answer
A firm has a break-even point of 10,000 units and actual sales of 15,000 units. If the selling price is Rs 50 per unit, what is the margin of safety in rupees?
A
Rs 5,00,000
B
Rs 2,50,000
C
Rs 7,50,000
D
Rs 1,00,000
Question 89Single Answer
Which factor does not affect the break-even point?
A
Variable costs
B
Fixed costs
C
Interest rate on loans
D
Selling price per unit
Question 90Single Answer
If fixed costs increase, what happens to the break-even point?
A
Remains unchanged
B
Decreases
C
Increases
D
Becomes negative
Question 91Single Answer
How many units must be sold to achieve a target profit of Rs 1,50,000?
A
8,000 units
B
10,000 units
C
12,500 units
D
15,000 units
Question 92Single Answer
In break-even analysis, what does a high contribution margin ratio indicate?
A
Lower break-even point
B
Higher fixed costs
C
Higher variable costs
D
Lower sales volume
Question 93Single Answer
If a company’s break-even point is 5,000 units, and it sells 7,000 units, what is the margin of safety percentage?
A
28.57%
B
40%
C
50%
D
20%
Question 94Single Answer
What is the effect of reducing variable costs on the break-even point?
A
Increases break-even point
B
Decreases break-even point
C
No effect on break-even point
D
Increases fixed costs
Question 95Single Answer
What is the break-even point in rupees?
A
Rs 2,50,000
B
Rs 4,00,000
C
Rs 3,20,000
D
Rs 5,00,000
Question 96Single Answer
In break-even analysis, which cost is directly proportional to production volume?
A
Opportunity cost
B
Fixed cost
C
Sunk cost
D
Variable cost
Question 97Single Answer
If the contribution margin ratio is 40% and fixed costs are Rs 4,00,000, what is the break-even point in sales revenue?
A
Rs 8,00,000
B
Rs 10,00,000
C
Rs 12,00,000
D
Rs 6,00,000
Question 98Single Answer
What does a break-even chart visually represent?
A
Relationship between costs, revenue, and output
B
Profit maximization levels
C
Fixed cost trends over time
D
Variable cost fluctuations
Question 99Single Answer
If a company’s break-even point is 8,000 units and the contribution margin per unit is Rs 25, what are the fixed costs?
A
Rs 1,50,000
B
Rs 2,00,000
C
Rs 2,50,000
D
Rs 1,00,000
Question 100Single Answer
In break-even analysis, what is the significance of the contribution margin?
A
Indicates fixed cost recovery
B
Represents total revenue
C
Equals variable costs
D
Covers fixed costs and generates profit
Question 101Single Answer
A firm has fixed costs of Rs 6,00,000, a selling price of Rs 150 per unit, and a variable cost of Rs 90 per unit. How many units must be sold to break even?
A
6,000 units
B
8,000 units
C
12,000 units
D
10,000 units
Question 102Single Answer
What happens to the break-even point if variable costs per unit increase?
A
Becomes negative
B
Decreases
C
Remains unchanged
D
Increases
Question 103Single Answer
In break-even analysis, what is the formula for the margin of safety in units?
A
Break-even Sales - Actual Sales
B
Actual Sales - Break-even Sales
C
Fixed Costs ÷ Contribution Margin
D
Total Revenue ÷ Selling Price
Question 104Single Answer
If a company’s fixed costs are Rs 4,50,000, selling price per unit is Rs 75, and variable cost per unit is Rs 45, what is the break-even point in units?
A
15,000 units
B
10,000 units
C
12,000 units
D
8,000 units
Question 105Single Answer
What does a low margin of safety indicate in break-even analysis?
A
High contribution margin
B
High profitability
C
Low fixed costs
D
High risk of losses
Question 106Single Answer
A company’s break-even point is 20,000 units, and it sells 25,000 units. If the selling price is Rs 40 per unit, what is the margin of safety in rupees?
A
Rs 3,00,000
B
Rs 2,00,000
C
Rs 1,50,000
D
Rs 4,00,000
Question 107Single Answer
In break-even analysis, what is the impact of increasing fixed costs?
A
Reduces contribution margin
B
Decreases break-even point
C
No effect on break-even point
D
Increases break-even point
Question 108Single Answer
If a company’s contribution margin ratio is 25% and fixed costs are Rs 2,00,000, what is the break-even point in sales revenue?
A
Rs 8,00,000
B
Rs 6,00,000
C
Rs 10,00,000
D
Rs 4,00,000
Question 109Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of break-even analysis?
A
Increase fixed costs
B
Maximize profits
C
Reduce variable costs
D
Determine minimum sales for no loss
Question 110Single Answer
If a firm’s break-even point is 12,000 units and the contribution margin per unit is Rs 50, what are the fixed costs?
A
Rs 4,00,000
B
Rs 6,00,000
C
Rs 8,00,000
D
Rs 2,00,000
Question 111Single Answer
In break-even analysis, what does the contribution margin ratio represent?
A
Total fixed costs divided by sales
B
Percentage of revenue covering fixed costs
C
Variable costs as a percentage of revenue
D
Profit per unit sold
Question 112Single Answer
A company has fixed costs of Rs 7,50,000, a selling price of Rs 200 per unit, and a variable cost of Rs 120 per unit. What is the break-even point in units?
A
10,000 units
B
8,000 units
C
9,375 units
D
7,500 units
Question 113Single Answer
What happens if the selling price per unit decreases in break-even analysis?
A
Fixed costs increase
B
Break-even point decreases
C
Break-even point increases
D
Variable costs decrease
Question 114Single Answer
In break-even analysis, what is the significance of a high margin of safety?
A
Lower risk of losses
B
Higher fixed costs
C
Lower contribution margin
D
Higher variable costs
Question 115Single Answer
If a company’s fixed costs are Rs 3,00,000, selling price per unit is Rs 60, and variable cost per unit is Rs 20, what is the break-even point in rupees?
A
Rs 3,75,000
B
Rs 4,50,000
C
Rs 5,00,000
D
Rs 6,00,000
Question 116Single Answer
What does the break-even point in sales revenue represent?
A
Revenue needed to cover all costs
B
Revenue needed to maximize profit
C
Revenue equal to variable costs
D
Revenue equal to fixed costs
Question 117Single Answer
A company’s break-even point is 10,000 units, and it sells 14,000 units. If the selling price is Rs 100 per unit, what is the margin of safety in rupees?
A
Rs 3,00,000
B
Rs 4,00,000
C
Rs 5,00,000
D
Rs 2,00,000
Question 118Single Answer
In break-even analysis, which factor directly affects the contribution margin?
A
Fixed cost
B
Variable cost per unit
C
Total revenue
D
Break-even point
Question 119Single Answer
If a company’s contribution margin ratio is 30% and fixed costs are Rs 9,00,000, what is the break-even point in sales revenue?
A
Rs 15,00,000
B
Rs 20,00,000
C
Rs 25,00,000
D
Rs 30,00,000
Question 120Single Answer
What is the impact of reducing fixed costs on the break-even point?
A
No effect on break-even point
B
Increases break-even point
C
Decreases break-even point
D
Increases contribution margin
English Language
Question 121Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 122Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 123Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 124Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 125Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 126Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 127Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 128Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 129Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 130Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 131Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 132Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 133Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 134Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 135Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 136Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 137Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 138Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 139Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 140Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 141Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 142Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 143Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 144Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 145Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 146Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 147Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 148Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 149Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 150Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 151Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To sleep with the fishes
A
Always be in a dream world
B
To make absurd excuses
C
To sleep peacefully
D
To be dead
Question 152Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A
To exterminate
B
To expurgate
C
To intricate
D
To extricate
Question 153Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A
Irascible
B
Crucible
C
Miscible
D
Risible
Question 154Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Shooting fish in a barrel
A
To do random acts of stupidity
B
To behave in a cruel manner
C
Ridiculously easy
D
To escape through a narrow opening
Question 155Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A
was bounded by
B
was limitless
C
was limited
D
was bound to
Question 156Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
“There are more cyclists than pedestrians on the streets of Amsterdam”.
Choose the sentence which means the same as the above statement.
A
Pedestrians outnumber cyclists on the streets of Amsterdam
B
Cyclists are not as many is number as pedestrians
C
Walking is not as common as cycling is on the streets of Amsterdam
D
Cycling is not as common as walking is on the streets of Amsterdam
Question 157Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Use the appropriate idiom to complete the expression. You may go home early if you are
A
Feeling a bit under the weather
B
Hitting the nail on the head
C
Sitting on the fence
D
Adding insult to the injury
Question 158Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To bend over backwards
A
To accommodate every unreasonable request usually without getting anything back
B
Stepping away from an unpleasant situation
C
To make every effort to achieve something, especially to be fair or helpful
D
Submitting oneself completely to a higher authority
Question 159Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.
A
To annul
B
To negate
C
To efface
D
To undo
Question 160Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.
A
Pious
B
Reverent
C
Humble
D
Devout
Computer Knowledge
Question 161Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 162Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 163Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 164Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 165Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 166Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 167Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 168Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 169Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 170Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 171Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 172Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 173Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 174Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 175Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 176Single Answer
A cursor is
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 177Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 178Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 179Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 180Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 181Single Answer
What is a dialog box in a graphical user interface?
A
An on-screen window used to display information or obtain user input and selections
B
A tool used exclusively for audio and video calls
C
A hardware device used for voice commands
D
A program used exclusively to browse websites
Question 182Single Answer
A letter, memo, proposal, or other that is created using Microsoft word is called as
A
Master
B
slide
C
document
D
worksheet
E
None of these
Question 183Single Answer
The meaning of double click is
A
pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice in rapid succession when the on - tree mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
appearance of an icon
C
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 184Single Answer
The term drag and drop means
A
appearance of an icon
B
used for selecting text
C
to move text or an object by positioning the mouse pointer on the item you want to move, pressing and holding the mouse button to drop the object into its new location
D
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
E
None of these
Question 185Single Answer
What does dragging with a mouse mean?
A
Holding down a mouse button while moving the mouse pointer
B
Closing an application
C
Double-clicking an icon without moving the mouse
D
Restarting the computer
Question 186Single Answer
What is the purpose of a drop-down list in a graphical user interface?
A
To display a list of selectable choices when expanded
B
To permanently delete selected files
C
To close all running applications
D
To display only error messages
Question 187Single Answer
The default name for a desktop icon that opens an explore window displaying information about your system’s disk drives and also special system folders like printers and control panel
A
my computer
B
news groups
C
message box
D
network neighbourhood
E
None of these
Question 188Single Answer
________________ means to enlarge window to its maximum area so that it will full entire desktop
A
maximize
B
zoom
C
enlarge
D
extend
E
None of these
Question 189Single Answer
What is HTML primarily used for?
A
Defining the structure and meaning of content on web pages
B
Managing computer hardware drivers
C
Encrypting all Internet traffic
D
Controlling the computer's BIOS
Question 190Single Answer
What is the process of visually emphasizing selected text or an object on a computer screen commonly called?
A
Shading
B
Hyperlinking
C
Highlighting
D
Compiling
Question 191Single Answer
Which data structure stores elements in contiguous memory locations?
A
Linked List
B
Stack
C
Array
D
Queue
Question 192Single Answer
What is the time complexity of accessing an element in an array by its index?
A
O(n)
B
O(log n)
C
O(1)
D
O(n log n)
Question 193Single Answer
Computer network is?
A
Collection of hardware
B
Database
C
Software system
D
Interconnected computers
Question 194Single Answer
Internet is?
A
Single network
B
MAN
C
LAN
D
Network of networks
Question 195Single Answer
DBMS stands for?
A
Data Base Management System
B
Data Backup Management System
C
Database Monitoring System
D
Data Build Management System
Question 196Single Answer
Database is?
A
Program
B
Collection of related data
C
Hardware
D
Network
Question 197Single Answer
Microsoft Word is primarily used for?
A
Database management
B
Web hosting
C
Video editing
D
Word processing
Question 198Single Answer
Microsoft Word is developed by?
A
Apple
B
Google
C
Microsoft
D
IBM
Question 199Single Answer
Which file extension is the default for modern Microsoft Word documents?
A
.xlsx
B
.docx
C
.pptx
D
.accdb
Question 200Single Answer
Which file extension was commonly used by Word 97–2003?
A
.rtf
B
.dotx
C
.doc
D
.txtx
Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation
Question 201Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 202Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 203Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 204Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 205Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 206Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 207Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 208Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 209Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 210Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 211Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 212Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 213Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 214Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 215Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 216Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 217Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 218Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 219Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 220Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 221Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS. (II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 222Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 223Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 224Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 225Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 226Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 227Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 228Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 229Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 230Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 231Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I Quantity II
C
Quantity II Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 232Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I Quantity II
C
Quantity II Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 233Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C
Quantity II > Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 234Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : in the following question two statements (Quantity – I and Quantity – II) are given .You have to solve both the statements and give answer.
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A
Quantity I > Quantity II
B
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C
Quantity II > Quantity I
D
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Question 235Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it.you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer.
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
A
Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 236Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it.you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer.
Is x an integer ?
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 237Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it.you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer.
Out of the four teams A, B, C and D which team is not likely to win as per the opinion poll ?
(I) As per the opinion poll, chances of team C’s winning are more than that of team A.
(II) As per the opinion poll team C’s chances of winning are less than that of team B but not less than that of team D, whose chances of winning are more than that of team A.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 238Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it.you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer.
A, B and C are positive integers. Is their product an even number ?
(I) A is an even number.
(II) The product of A and B is an even number and that of A and C is also an even number.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 239Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it.you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and give answer.
What was Mr. Srinivasula’s combined income for the year 1994-1999 ? In 1994, he made Rs.10,00,000.
(I) His average yearly income for the years 1994-1999 was Rs.12,00,000.
(II) In 1999, his income was Rs.20,00,000.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement(I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 240Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it .you have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question . Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
A, B, C and D made their project presentation, one on each day, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day did ‘C’ make his presentation ?
(1) The first presentation was made on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by ‘D’s presentation.
(2) ‘A’ did not make his presentation on 25th and one of them made his presentation, between A’s and B’s.
A
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B
statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C
BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient