Statement: All banks should improve digital security. Which assumption is implicit?
A
Digital banking has no users
B
Security is important in digital banking
C
Banks should stop online services
D
Cash transactions are always unsafe
Question 2Single Answer
A company reduced the price of its product to increase sales. Which assumption is implicit?
A
Customers never consider price
B
Price can influence customer demand
C
Lower prices always reduce sales
D
Product quality becomes zero after discount
Question 3Single Answer
Road accidents increased considerably during heavy rainfall. Which conclusion is most reasonable?
A
Roads must remain permanently closed
B
All accidents happen only during rain
C
Every driver ignores traffic rules
D
Rain may make road conditions unsafe
Question 4Single Answer
A school introduced additional classes for academically weak students. Which assumption is implicit?
A
Weak students can never improve
B
Additional academic support may improve performance
C
Regular classes have no importance
D
All teachers are inefficient
Question 5Single Answer
A bank increased the number of ATMs in rural areas. What is the most likely objective?
A
Improve accessibility of banking services
B
Reduce banking services
C
Close every rural bank branch
D
Prevent customers from withdrawing cash
Question 6Single Answer
Citizens have been advised to conserve water. Which assumption is implicit?
A
Water supply is unlimited everywhere
B
Water resources require careful use
C
Citizens cannot conserve water
D
Water has no practical importance
Question 7Single Answer
Employees receiving regular training generally show better performance. Which inference is most reasonable?
A
Training always reduces productivity
B
Training may improve employee skills
C
Experienced employees cannot learn
D
Training has no connection with skills
Question 8Single Answer
A bank extended its working hours during the final week of the month. What is the most likely reason?
A
Customer demand may be higher during this period
B
Customers have stopped visiting banks
C
Employees have no work
D
Banking services have been discontinued
Question 9Single Answer
Many students performed poorly because they did not understand the new examination pattern. Which course of action is appropriate?
A
Explain the pattern through practice sessions
B
Stop conducting examinations
C
Reduce the marks of every student
D
Remove the syllabus
Question 10Single Answer
Air pollution has increased sharply in a large city. Which course of action is most appropriate?
A
Increase unnecessary vehicle use
B
Encourage uncontrolled emissions
C
Ignore the pollution level
D
Strengthen pollution monitoring and control measures
Question 11Single Answer
Online banking fraud cases have increased considerably. Which action is appropriate?
A
Customers should share OTPs with callers
B
Banks should increase customer awareness about cyber fraud
C
Banks should publish customer passwords
D
Customers should stop checking transactions
Question 12Single Answer
Most employees reach the office late because public transport is irregular. What is the direct cause mentioned?
A
Irregular public transport
B
Low salaries
C
Office furniture
D
Working conditions
Question 13Single Answer
A shop recorded higher sales after introducing discounts. Which inference is reasonable?
A
Discounts may attract more customers
B
Discounts always decrease demand
C
Customers dislike lower prices
D
Sales never depend on customer decisions
Question 14Single Answer
Customer complaints decreased after a bank opened a dedicated help desk. What can reasonably be inferred?
A
Complaints never existed earlier
B
Customers have stopped using banking services
C
The help desk may have improved problem resolution
D
The bank has closed its branches
Question 15Single Answer
Farmers are advised to check weather forecasts before sowing crops. Which assumption supports this advice?
A
Weather conditions can influence farming decisions
B
Weather forecasts create rainfall
C
Agriculture is independent of weather
D
Seeds determine the weather
Question 16Single Answer
A library remains open for two additional hours during examinations. Which assumption is implicit?
A
Examinations reduce the need for study
B
Students do not need books
C
Students may require additional study time
D
Libraries should close during examinations
Question 17Single Answer
A company installed CCTV cameras in its warehouse. What is the likely purpose?
A
Reduce storage space
B
Improve security and monitoring
C
Increase warehouse temperature
D
Reduce employee attendance
Question 18Single Answer
Customers are complaining about long waiting times at a bank branch. What should management do first?
A
Identify the reasons for delays
B
Close the branch permanently
C
Stop accepting customers
D
Remove service counters
Question 19Single Answer
A village experiences frequent electricity failures. Which action should be taken first?
A
Examine the causes of supply interruptions
B
Close all schools
C
Stop agricultural activities
D
Ban electronic devices
Question 20Single Answer
An organization introduced work-from-home during severe flooding. Which assumption is implicit?
A
Travelling during flooding may be unsafe
B
Flooding always improves road conditions
C
Employees cannot work remotely
D
Floods have no impact on transportation
Question 21Single Answer
A bank sends an SMS immediately after every account transaction. What is the primary purpose?
A
Prevent customers from using accounts
B
Reveal customers' PINs
C
Increase fraudulent transactions
D
Help customers monitor account activity
Question 22Single Answer
Mobile phones are prohibited during an examination. What is the most likely objective?
A
Improve mobile connectivity
B
Prevent unfair practices
C
Encourage messaging
D
Increase phone usage
Question 23Single Answer
A factory replaced old machines with energy-efficient machines. Which result is most likely expected?
A
More power failures
B
Greater electricity wastage
C
Complete stoppage of production
D
Lower energy consumption
Question 24Single Answer
A bank regularly updates its cybersecurity procedures. What does this suggest?
A
Cybersecurity is unnecessary
B
Cybersecurity risks may change over time
C
Customer passwords should be public
D
Digital banking cannot be secured
Question 25Single Answer
Additional buses were introduced on an overcrowded route. Which problem is primarily being addressed?
A
Food shortage
B
Air temperature
C
Banking fraud
D
Insufficient transport capacity
Question 26Single Answer
A company conducts surveys before launching a new product. What is the primary purpose?
A
Avoid obtaining market information
B
Understand customer preferences
C
Eliminate customers
D
Stop product development
Question 27Single Answer
A bank advises customers never to disclose their ATM PIN. Which assumption is implicit?
A
Disclosure of PIN can compromise account security
B
PIN is meant to be public
C
PIN cannot be misused
D
Banking security is unnecessary
Question 28Single Answer
Employees are rewarded for suggesting innovative ideas. What is management most likely trying to encourage?
A
Reduced creativity
B
Absenteeism
C
Innovation and participation
D
Lack of communication
Question 29Single Answer
Parking charges were increased in highly congested areas. Which objective may this serve?
A
Increase road accidents
B
Increase congestion deliberately
C
Stop public transportation
D
Discourage excessive private vehicle use
Question 30Single Answer
A hospital established a separate entrance for emergency patients. Why?
A
To delay medical treatment
B
To provide faster emergency access
C
To prevent emergency patients from entering
D
To reduce the number of doctors
Question 31Single Answer
Several ATMs repeatedly run out of cash during holidays. What is the most appropriate action?
A
Ignore customer demand
B
Remove all ATMs
C
Stop cash withdrawals permanently
D
Improve cash replenishment planning
Question 32Single Answer
An organization has observed a steady decline in employee productivity. What should it do first?
A
Dismiss all employees
B
Identify the causes of declining productivity
C
Close the organization
D
Stop measuring performance
Question 33Single Answer
People are encouraged to use public transportation instead of private vehicles. Which potential benefit supports this advice?
A
Increase in private vehicle usage
B
Increase in parking demand
C
Reduction in traffic congestion
D
Reduction in public transportation
Question 34Single Answer
A bank introduced biometric verification for certain transactions. What is the main purpose?
A
Remove customers from the banking system
B
Increase stationery consumption
C
Strengthen customer authentication
D
Make transactions deliberately slower
Question 35Single Answer
Skill-development programs are provided to unemployed youth. What is the likely objective?
A
Increase unemployment
B
Reduce useful skills
C
Improve employability
D
Discourage professional training
Question 36Single Answer
A college introduced an online admission system. Which benefit is most likely?
A
Easier access to the application process
B
Elimination of applicants
C
Complete removal of admissions
D
Increase in unnecessary manual procedures
Question 37Single Answer
An organization regularly creates backups of important data. Why?
A
To prevent data recovery
B
To destroy organizational records
C
To disclose confidential passwords
D
To reduce the risk of permanent data loss
Question 38Single Answer
A bank organizes financial literacy programs in villages. What is the likely objective?
A
Increase financial fraud
B
Discourage people from saving
C
Stop rural banking
D
Improve financial awareness
Question 39Single Answer
A company replaces plastic packaging with recyclable packaging. Which concern is most directly addressed?
A
Working hours
B
Employee attendance
C
Office rent
D
Environmental sustainability
Question 40Single Answer
Traffic police increase enforcement after a rise in road accidents. What is the likely objective?
A
Stop every form of transportation
B
Increase accidents
C
Remove traffic rules
D
Improve road safety
Numerical Ability
Question 41Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 43Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 44Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 45Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 46Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 48Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 49Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 50Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
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Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 52Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 53Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 54Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 55Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 56Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 58Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 59Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 60Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 61Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 62Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 63Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 64Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 65Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 66Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 67Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 68Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 69Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 70Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 71Single Answer
Which of the following is composite ?
A
17
B
19
C
21
D
23
Question 72Single Answer
What is √0.0009 ?
A
0.003
B
0.03
C
0.3
D
0.09
Question 73Single Answer
What is √1156 ?
A
32
B
34
C
36
D
38
Question 74Single Answer
What is √2025 ?
A
35
B
40
C
45
D
50
Question 75Single Answer
What is (51^2) ?
A
2601
B
2501
C
2551
D
2651
Question 76Single Answer
7 8 18 57 ?
A
244
B
174
C
186
D
none of these
Question 77Single Answer
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A
25 years
B
27 years
C
26 years
D
24 years
Question 78Single Answer
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
A
2
B
-1
C
1
D
-2
Question 79Single Answer
How many factors does 100 have ?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Question 80Single Answer
If x = a – b, y = b – c, z = c – a, then the numerical value of the algebraic expression x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz will be
A
a + b + c
B
Zero
C
4 (a + b + c)
D
3 abc
English
Question 81Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 82Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 83Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 84Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 85Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 86Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 87Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 88Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 89Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 90Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 91Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 92Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 93Single Answer
The baby really enjoys that music.
A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Question 94Single Answer
The weather disrupted the final match.
A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Question 95Single Answer
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Question 96Single Answer
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A
In record time Preeti ran the race.
B
The race was run by Preeti in record time
C
The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D
The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Question 97Single Answer
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A
By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B
The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C
The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D
By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Question 98Single Answer
One must keep one’s promises.
A
One’s promises must be kept by one.
B
One’s promises had to be kept.
C
Promises must be kept.
D
Promises have to be kept by one.
Question 99Single Answer
I read the story in one night.
A
The story had been read by me in one night.
B
The story has been read by me in one night
C
n one night the story has been read by me.
D
the story was read by me in one night
Question 100Single Answer
We must take care of the old.
A
Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B
The old must be taken care of by us.
C
Those who are old need care by us
D
The old should be taken care of by us.
Question 101Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 102Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 103Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 104Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 105Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 106Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 107Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 108Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 109Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 110Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 111Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 112Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 113Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 114Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 115Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 116Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 117Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 118Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 119Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 120Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
General Awareness
Question 121Single Answer
Which institution is the central bank of India?
A
SBI
B
SEBI
C
NABARD
D
RBI
Question 122Single Answer
The Reserve Bank of India was established in which year?
A
1935
B
1934
C
1932
D
1947
Question 123Single Answer
RBI was nationalised in which year?
A
1949
B
1948
C
1947
D
1950
Question 124Single Answer
Which institution regulates the securities market in India?
A
NABARD
B
SEBI
C
SIDBI
D
IRDAI
Question 125Single Answer
NABARD is mainly associated with which sector?
A
Aviation
B
Agriculture and rural development
C
Foreign trade only
D
Stock exchanges
Question 126Single Answer
What is the full form of RBI?
A
Reserve Banking Institution
B
Reserve Bank of India
C
Regional Bank of India
D
Rural Bank of India
Question 127Single Answer
Which bank is known as the banker to the Government of India?
A
SBI
B
PNB
C
RBI
D
NABARD
Question 128Single Answer
Which institution is known as the lender of last resort in India?
A
SBI
B
SEBI
C
RBI
D
SIDBI
Question 129Single Answer
CRR stands for what?
A
Cash Reserve Ratio
B
Credit Reserve Rate
C
Cash Repo Ratio
D
Capital Reserve Ratio
Question 130Single Answer
SLR stands for what?
A
Statutory Liquidity Ratio
B
Statutory Lending Ratio
C
Standard Liquidity Reserve
D
Secured Lending Rate
Question 131Single Answer
Repo rate is the rate at which RBI lends money to whom?
A
State governments only
B
Insurance companies only
C
Commercial banks
D
Mutual funds
Question 132Single Answer
Monetary policy in India is primarily formulated by which institution?
A
SEBI
B
Ministry of Commerce
C
NABARD
D
RBI
Question 133Single Answer
The Monetary Policy Committee has how many members?
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
8
Question 134Single Answer
Which organisation regulates insurance companies in India?
A
IRDAI
B
SEBI
C
PFRDA
D
NABARD
Question 135Single Answer
PFRDA regulates which sector?
A
Banking sector
B
Pension sector
C
Commodity market
D
Insurance sector
Question 136Single Answer
What is the full form of SEBI?
A
Securities and Exchange Board of India
B
Securities and Economic Bank of India
C
Stock Exchange Bureau of India
D
Securities and Equity Board of India
Question 137Single Answer
Which institution is primarily responsible for rural credit development in India?
A
EXIM Bank
B
NABARD
C
SEBI
D
ECGC
Question 138Single Answer
NABARD was established in which year?
A
1975
B
1980
C
1985
D
1982
Question 139Single Answer
SIDBI primarily supports which category of enterprises?
A
Large multinational companies
B
Micro, small and medium enterprises
C
Foreign governments
D
Stock exchanges
Question 140Single Answer
SIDBI stands for what?
A
State Industries Development Bank of India
B
Small Industries Development Bank of India
C
Small Investment Development Board of India
D
Securities Investment Development Bank of India
Question 141Single Answer
Which institution facilitates India's international trade through financial assistance?
A
DICGC
B
NABARD
C
PFRDA
D
EXIM Bank
Question 142Single Answer
DICGC is associated with which activity?
A
Export promotion
B
Deposit insurance
C
Pension management
D
Stock trading
Question 143Single Answer
DICGC stands for what?
A
Deposit Insurance and Capital Guarantee Corporation
B
Deposit Investment and Credit Growth Corporation
C
Debt Insurance and Credit Guarantee Council
D
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following is a money-market instrument?
A
Equity share
B
Treasury Bill
C
Preference share
D
Equity mutual fund
Question 145Single Answer
Treasury Bills in India are issued by whom?
A
Commercial banks
B
SEBI
C
NABARD
D
RBI on behalf of the Government of India
Question 146Single Answer
Commercial Paper is generally issued by whom?
A
Corporates
B
Gram Panchayats
C
Individuals
D
Cooperative societies only
Question 147Single Answer
Certificate of Deposit is a negotiable money-market instrument issued mainly by whom?
A
Banks and eligible financial institutions
B
State legislatures
C
Insurance agents
D
Stock brokers
Question 148Single Answer
The market for short-term funds is called what?
A
Capital market
B
Money market
C
Commodity market
D
Foreign goods market
Question 149Single Answer
The market dealing mainly in long-term funds is known as what?
A
Money market
B
Call money market
C
Capital market
D
Repo market
Question 150Single Answer
IPO stands for what?
A
Initial Price Order
B
Internal Public Option
C
Indian Purchase Offering
D
Initial Public Offering
Question 151Single Answer
In an IPO, securities are offered to the public primarily through which market?
A
Secondary market
B
Primary market
C
Call money market
D
Forex market
Question 152Single Answer
Existing listed securities are generally traded in which market?
A
Primary market
B
Secondary market
C
Rural market
D
Credit market
Question 153Single Answer
BSE stands for what?
A
Bombay Stock Exchange
B
Banking Securities Exchange
C
Bharat Securities Exchange
D
Bombay Securities Enterprise
Question 154Single Answer
NSE stands for what?
A
National Securities Enterprise
B
National Savings Exchange
C
National Stock Exchange
D
New Securities Exchange
Question 155Single Answer
Which index is associated with BSE?
A
Nifty 50
B
Sensex
C
Bank Rate
D
CRR
Question 156Single Answer
Nifty 50 is associated with which stock exchange?
A
BSE
B
NSE
C
MCX only
D
RBI
Question 157Single Answer
A Demat account is used to hold what?
A
Securities in electronic form
B
Cash only
C
Gold jewellery
D
Foreign currency notes only
Question 158Single Answer
NSDL is associated primarily with which service?
A
Depository services
B
Agricultural loans
C
Insurance underwriting
D
Currency printing
Question 159Single Answer
What does NPA stand for?
A
Net Profit Asset
B
National Payment Account
C
Non-Performing Asset
D
New Performing Account
Question 160Single Answer
An asset becomes an NPA for a bank primarily when what happens?
A
The borrower deposits early
B
Principal or interest remains overdue beyond the prescribed period
C
Bank earns excess profit
D
Account balance increases
Computer Knowledge
Question 161Single Answer
Who is known as the Father of Computer?
A
Alan Turing
B
Charles Babbage
C
John von Neumann
D
Herman Hollerith
Question 162Single Answer
Which calculating device is considered one of the earliest known calculating tools?
A
Abacus
B
Pascaline
C
ENIAC
D
Difference Engine
Question 163Single Answer
Who invented the Pascaline?
A
John Napier
B
Gottfried Leibniz
C
Charles Babbage
D
Blaise Pascal
Question 164Single Answer
Napier's Bones were developed by:
A
George Boole
B
Charles Babbage
C
John Napier
D
Howard Aiken
Question 165Single Answer
Who developed the Stepped Reckoner?
A
Herman Hollerith
B
Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz
C
John Mauchly
D
Konrad Zuse
Question 166Single Answer
Charles Babbage designed the Difference Engine primarily to perform:
A
Communication
B
Image processing
C
Data transmission
D
Mathematical calculations
Question 167Single Answer
Which machine designed by Charles Babbage contained concepts similar to a modern computer?
A
Pascaline
B
Tabulating Machine
C
Analytical Engine
D
Mark I
Question 168Single Answer
Who is often regarded as the first computer programmer?
A
Grace Hopper
B
Jean Bartik
C
Margaret Hamilton
D
Ada Lovelace
Question 169Single Answer
Herman Hollerith developed a punched-card system for processing data related to the:
A
US Census
B
Banking industry
C
Railway system
D
Postal service
Question 170Single Answer
The company founded from Hollerith's tabulating-machine business ultimately became:
A
Microsoft
B
Apple
C
Intel
D
IBM
Question 171Single Answer
Which early electromechanical computer was developed by Howard Aiken with IBM?
5.015 =?