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Latest ICAI Executive Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness Logical Reasoning Quantitative Aptitude English Language & Comprehension, Technical Subject
Question Bank ICAI Executive Officer Exam - English
General Awareness Logical Reasoning Quantitative Aptitude English Language & Comprehension
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 4 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 5 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 6 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 7 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 8 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 9 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 10 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 11 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 12 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 13 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 14 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 15 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 16 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 17 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 18 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 19 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 20 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 21 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 22 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 23 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 24 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 25 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 26 :
Which country holds the BRICS Chairmanship in 2026?
A.Brazil
B.Russia
C.China
D.India
Q 27 :
What is the theme of Indiaโs BRICS Chairmanship 2026?
A.Inclusive Growth for All
B.Sustainable Global Economy
C.One Earth One Future
D.Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
Q 28 :
Where was the BRICS Foreign Ministers' Meeting held in May 2026?
A.Mumbai
B.Hyderabad
C.Bengaluru
D.New Delhi
Q 29 :
Which summit on Artificial Intelligence was hosted by India in February 2026?
A.World AI Congress
B.AI Action Summit
C.India AI Impact Summit 2026
D.Global AI Forum
Q 30 :
Where was the India AI Impact Summit 2026 organized?
A.Pragati Maidan, Delhi
B.Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
C.Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
D.Hyderabad International Convention Centre
Technical Subject
Q 31 :
What is the primary objective of setting accounting standards?
A.To minimize the tax liability of companies.
B.To ensure comparability and consistency in financial reporting.
C.To maximize the profits reported by companies.
D.To comply with the requirements of the Companies Act.
Q 32 :
Which body is primarily responsible for formulating accounting standards in India?
A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
C.Accounting Standards Board (ASB) of ICAI.
D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA).
Q 33 :
What is the typical process followed by the ASB in setting accounting standards?
A.Issuing a standard directly after international consultation.
B.Identifying areas, forming a study group, preparing a draft, public consultation, and issuing the standard.
C.Adopting IFRS without any modifications.
D.Following the guidelines issued by the government.
Q 34 :
What are International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS)?
A.Accounting standards issued by the Indian government.
B.A set of accounting standards issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB).
C.Guidelines for taxation of multinational corporations.
D.Rules for internal audit procedures.
Q 35 :
What is the concept of convergence with IFRS in the context of Indian Accounting Standards?
A.Completely adopting IFRS without any changes.
B.Aligning Indian Accounting Standards with IFRS while considering local economic and legal conditions.
C.Ignoring IFRS and developing purely domestic standards.
D.Partially adopting some aspects of IFRS.
Q 36 :
What is the main difference between convergence and adoption of IFRS?
A.Convergence involves modifications, while adoption means taking IFRS verbatim.
B.Adoption is mandatory, while convergence is optional.
C.Convergence is done by IASB, while adoption is done by national bodies.
D.There is no significant difference between the two.
Q 37 :
What does the term "carve-out" refer to in the context of formulating Indian Accounting Standards based on IFRS?
A.Including additional requirements in Ind AS compared to IFRS.
B.Excluding certain requirements of IFRS while formulating Ind AS.
C.Postponing the application of certain IFRS requirements.
D.Simplifying the language of IFRS for easier understanding.
Q 38 :
What could be a reason for having "carve-outs" in Indian Accounting Standards compared to IFRS?
A.To make the standards more complex.
B.To align with specific legal or economic conditions prevalent in India.
C.To delay the implementation of new accounting practices.
D.To confuse the users of financial statements.
Q 39 :
What does the term "carve-in" potentially refer to in the context of formulating Indian Accounting Standards based on IFRS?
A.Excluding certain India-specific requirements from Ind AS.
B.Including additional requirements in Ind AS that are not present in IFRS.
C.Simplifying the application guidance of IFRS.
D.Accelerating the adoption of certain IFRS requirements.
Q 40 :
Which of the following is a potential benefit of having accounting standards?
A.Reducing the cost of preparing financial statements.
B.Enhancing the reliability and credibility of financial information.
C.Allowing companies to follow accounting practices that best suit their interests.
D.Making it easier for companies to evade taxes.
Q 41 :
Interest income accruing outside India but received by a resident in India is taxable in India if he is:
A.A non-resident
B.A resident but not ordinarily resident
C.A resident who is ordinarily resident
D.Any resident
Q 42 :
Income from a business controlled from India is taxable in the hands of a resident who is ordinarily resident even if it accrues or arises outside India, if:
A.The whole income is taxable
B.50% of the income is taxable
C.Only the income attributable to the control in India is taxable
D.The income is exempt
Q 43 :
A foreign company is said to be resident in India if its place of effective management (POEM) in the previous year is:
A.In India
B.Outside India
C.Partly in India and partly outside India
D.Irrelevant for residency
Q 44 :
An individual who has been a non-resident in India for 9 out of the 10 previous years preceding the relevant previous year is a:
A.Resident
B.Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
C.Non-resident
D.Deemed resident
Q 45 :
An individual who has been in India for a period of 730 days or more during the 7 previous years preceding the relevant previous year and also satisfies the basic condition for being a resident is a:
A.Non-resident
B.Resident who is Ordinarily Resident
C.Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
D.Deemed resident
Q 46 :
Income earned from agricultural land situated in Pakistan is taxable in India for:
A.A resident who is ordinarily resident in India
B.A resident but not ordinarily resident in India
C.A non-resident in India
D.All the assessees
Q 47 :
Salary received in India for services rendered outside India is taxable in the case of:
A.Non-resident only
B.Resident only
C.All assessees
D.Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident only
Q 48 :
Profits from a business situated in London but controlled entirely from India are taxable in India for:
A.A resident who is ordinarily resident in India
B.A resident but not ordinarily resident in India
C.A non-resident in India
D.All the assessees
Q 49 :
Interest received outside India by a non-resident from a business controlled in India is:
A.Fully taxable in India
B.Not taxable in India
C.Taxable only if remitted to India
D.Taxable at a concessional rate
Q 50 :
Royalty received outside India by a resident but not ordinarily resident from a business in India is:
A.Taxable in India
B.Not taxable in India
C.Taxable only if remitted to India
D.Exempt from tax
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Technical Subject
Q 51 :
What is the primary objective of financial statement analysis?
A.To determine tax liability
B.To evaluate financial performance and position of the entity
C.To assess the entity's market share
D.To comply with legal provisions
Q 52 :
Which of the following is a liquidity ratio?
A.Debt-Equity Ratio
B.Current Ratio
C.Interest Coverage Ratio
D.Return on Capital Employed
Q 53 :
What does a high inventory turnover ratio indicate?
A.Excessive holding of inventory
B.Decline in inventory value
C.Fast movement of inventory
D.Inventory obsolescence
Q 54 :
Which financial metric measures how efficiently a company uses its assets to generate revenue?
A.Earnings per Share
B.Asset Turnover Ratio
C.Current Ratio
D.Gross Profit Ratio
Q 55 :
Return on Equity (ROE) is calculated as:
A.Net Profit / Total Assets
B.Net Profit / Equity Share Capital
C.Net Profit / Shareholdersโ Equity
D.EBIT / Shareholdersโ Equity
Q 56 :
The DuPont Analysis breaks ROE into which components?
A.Liquidity, Solvency, and Profitability
B.Sales, Purchases, and Inventory
C.Asset Turnover, Equity Multiplier, Net Profit Margin
D.Debt, Equity, and Cash
Q 57 :
Which of the following is a measure of solvency?
A.Gross Profit Margin
B.Debt to Equity Ratio
C.Quick Ratio
D.Operating Profit Margin
Q 58 :
A high current ratio generally indicates:
A.Under-leverage
B.Over-utilization of funds
C.Excessive debt
D.Strong liquidity position
Q 59 :
Which ratio would best help in analyzing short-term solvency?
A.Return on Equity
B.Earnings Per Share
C.Current Ratio
D.Interest Coverage Ratio
Q 60 :
An increase in the receivables turnover ratio implies:
A.Slower collection of debtors
B.Faster collection of receivables
C.Increase in bad debts
D.Lower cash flow
Q 61 :
What is the primary objective of financial management?
A.Maximizing sales
B.Maximizing profit
C.Maximizing shareholder wealth
D.Minimizing expenses
Q 62 :
Which of the following is not part of the scope of financial management?
A.Investment decisions
B.Financing decisions
C.Dividend decisions
D.Marketing strategies
Q 63 :
Financial management mainly deals with which of the following?
A.Acquisition of funds only
B.Proper utilization of funds only
C.Sales and marketing
D.Both acquisition and utilization of funds
Q 64 :
What does โfinancial planningโ involve?
A.Advertising products
B.Determining the firmโs overall financial objectives and resources
C.Hiring employees
D.Manufacturing process design
Q 65 :
Which of the following is a key function of financial management?
A.Production planning
B.Customer relationship management
C.Capital budgeting
D.Product designing
Q 66 :
The concept of โtime value of moneyโ means:
A.Money available today is worth more than the same amount in the future
B.Money loses value over time due to inflation
C.Money has constant value over time
D.Money gains value over time automatically
Q 67 :
Financial management decisions aim to:
A.Maximize the current profit
B.Maximize the firmโs value and shareholdersโ wealth
C.Minimize cost only
D.Increase the number of employees
Q 68 :
What is a financing decision in financial management?
A.Deciding how to raise funds
B.Deciding where to invest funds
C.Deciding the firmโs marketing plan
D.Setting production schedules
Q 69 :
Which of the following best defines the objective of liquidity management?
A.Ensuring that the firm can meet its short-term obligations
B.Maximizing profit
C.Raising long-term capital
D.Designing financial statements
Q 70 :
Which one is not an objective of financial management?
A.Profit maximization
B.Wealth maximization
C.Ensuring safety of investment
D.Increasing product variety
Q 71 :
Which financial policy decision deals with the proportion of debt and equity in the capital structure?
A.Dividend policy
B.Investment policy
C.Capital structure policy
D.Working capital policy
Q 72 :
What is the primary objective of financial policy in a corporation?
A.Maximize sales
B.Minimize costs
C.Maximize shareholder wealth
D.Maximize employee satisfaction
Q 73 :
According to the pecking order theory, firms prefer to finance their investments using:
A.Equity first
B.Debt first
C.External equity first
D.Internal funds first
Q 74 :
Which of the following is NOT a component of corporate financial strategy?
A.Marketing strategy
B.Capital structure
C.Capital budgeting
D.Dividend policy
Q 75 :
What kind of financial strategy focuses on maintaining a balance between risk and profitability?
A.Conservative strategy
B.Aggressive strategy
C.Moderate strategy
D.Defensive strategy
Q 76 :
Which of the following is an example of a defensive financial strategy?
A.Aggressive debt financing
B.High dividend payout ratio
C.Maintaining high liquidity and low leverage
D.Leveraged buyouts
Q 77 :
Which financial ratio is most useful to analyze a companyโs leverage?
A.Current ratio
B.Debt to equity ratio
C.Return on assets
D.Price-to-earnings ratio
Q 78 :
What is the main goal of working capital management?
A.Maximize fixed assets
B.Increase long-term debt
C.Maintain liquidity while minimizing cost
D.Maximize dividends
Q 79 :
What is meant by โfinancial leverageโ?
A.The use of debt to increase return to equity holders
B.The use of fixed costs in operations
C.The total assets of a company
D.The dividend payout ratio
Q 80 :
What is the main benefit of using debt financing in a companyโs capital structure?
A.No interest payment
B.Dilution of ownership
C.No repayment obligation
D.Tax shield on interest payments
Q 81 :
What is the primary purpose of Cost Accounting?
A.Ascertainment and control of costs
B.Financial reporting to external users
C.Tax planning and compliance
D.Investment decisions
Q 82 :
Which of the following best describes Management Accounting?
A.A process primarily focused on historical data
B.A system for external reporting only
C.Providing information to managers for decision making, planning, and control
D.A legally mandated reporting system
Q 83 :
What is 'Costing' defined as?
A.The technique and process of ascertaining costs
B.The process of cost ascertainment
C.The application of costing principles
D.The recording of all expenses incurred
Q 84 :
Which of these is NOT an objective of Cost Accounting?
A.Ascertainment of cost
B.Ensuring the company makes a profit
C.Cost control and cost reduction 1
D.Determination of selling price
Q 85 :
Management Accounting information is primarily directed towards whom?
A.Internal users like managers
B.Shareholders and investors
C.Government authorities
D.Creditors and lenders
Q 86 :
Which of the following is a key difference between Cost Accounting and Management Accounting?
A.Cost Accounting is broader in scope than Management Accounting
B.Management Accounting uses principles of Cost Accounting
C.Cost Accounting is primarily future-oriented
D.Management Accounting is mandatory
Q 87 :
What is a 'Cost Unit'?
A.A location for which cost is ascertained
B.A factor that causes a change in the cost
C.The total cost of production
D.A unit of product, service, or time in relation to which costs are ascertained
Q 88 :
What is a 'Cost Centre'?
A.The total cost incurred by a department
B.A unit of output for which cost is calculated
C.A location, person, or item of equipment for which costs may be ascertained and used for cost control
D.The selling price of a product
Q 89 :
Which of the following is an example of a direct material cost?
A.Salary of a factory supervisor
B.Wood used in furniture manufacturing
C.Rent of the factory
D.Lubricants used in machinery
Q 90 :
What are 'Overheads'?
A.Total direct costs
B.Total indirect costs
C.Prime cost
D.Total cost of sales
Q 91 :
'Regulation' shall mean?
A.A law passed by the Parliament
B.A regulation made by the President under Article 240 of the Constitution and shall include a regulation made by the President under any other provision of the Constitution empowering him to make regulations for any Union Territory
C.A rule made by a government department
D.A decision of a court
Q 92 :
'Enactment' shall include?
A.Only Acts passed by the Parliament
B.Only rules and bye-laws
C.A Regulation and any provision contained in any Act or in any such Regulation
D.Only constitutional provisions
Q 93 :
'Commencement' used with reference to an Act or Regulation, shall mean the time at which the Act or Regulation?
A.Was drafted
B.Was passed by the legislature
C.Comes into force
D.Was signed by the President
Q 94 :
'Prescribed' shall mean prescribed by?
A.The court
B.Rules or bye-laws made under the Central Act or Regulation
C.The General Clauses Act
D.A government notification
Q 95 :
'Public officer' shall mean?
A.Only gazetted officers
B.Only high-ranking government officials
C.Every officer who is in the service or pay of the Government or remunerated by fees or commission for the performance of any public duty
D.Any person working in a government-owned entity
Q 96 :
'Gazette' shall mean?
A.Any newspaper circulating in India
B.The proceedings of the Parliament
C.Any government publication
D.The Official Gazette of India
Q 97 :
'Advocate-General' shall mean?
A.The Attorney General of India
B.Any lawyer registered with the Bar Council of India
C.The Advocate-General for a State
D.A public prosecutor
Q 98 :
'Collector' shall mean?
A.Any revenue officer
B.A tax recovery officer
C.The chief officer in charge of the revenue administration of a district
D.A land surveyor
Q 99 :
'District Judge' shall mean?
A.Any judge in a district court
B.A judge of the High Court
C.A magistrate of the first class
D.The principal civil court of original jurisdiction in a district
Q 100 :
The General Clauses Act helps in avoiding?
A.The need for any legal dictionaries
B.The need for legal experts
C.The consultation of previous case laws
D.The repetition of common legal provisions in statutes
Q 101 :
Which element of a firmโs system of quality control ensures that personnel possess adequate competence for audit engagements?
A.Human resources
B.Leadership responsibilities
C.Engagement performance
D.Monitoring
Q 102 :
What complicates the implementation of ethical requirements in a multi-office audit firm?
A.Uniform professional standards
B.High variability in local regulations and cultures
C.Excessive staff training
D.Simplified independence policies
Q 103 :
Under SA 220, what is the primary responsibility of the firmโs leadership for quality control?
A.Performing all audit procedures
B.Promoting a quality-oriented internal culture
C.Conducting client risk assessments
D.Reviewing all audit reports
Q 104 :
Why is independence critical in the client acceptance process?
A.It ensures uniform audit procedures
B.It reduces audit fees
C.It simplifies audit planning
D.It mitigates risks of bias and conflicts of interest
Q 105 :
What complicates the monitoring of a firmโs quality control system?
A.Uniform audit methodologies
B.Excessive compliance with standards
C.High variability in engagement complexity
D.Simplified remedial actions
Q 106 :
Statement (1): Auditor should perform compliance procedures to determine nature, timing and extent of substantive procedures
Statement (2): Auditor should perform substantive procedures to determine the nature, timing and extent of compliance procedures?
A.Only Statement (1) is true
B.Only Statement (2) is true
C.Both the Statements are true
D.None of the statements is true
Q 107 :
In the context of an audit, what does the term 'independence' primarily imply as per the definition of audit?
A.The auditor must be employed by the entity being audited
B.The auditor's judgment is subordinate to the directions of the entity's management
C.The auditor must rely solely on management's representations without verification
D.The auditor's judgment is not subordinate to the wishes or directions of the party engaging him
Q 108 :
Which of the following scenarios would most likely lead to the issuance of a modified opinion by the auditor?
A.The financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud
B.Sufficient appropriate audit evidence is obtained for all aspects of the financial statements
C.The financial statements comply with all statutory requirements without any exceptions
D.The auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence for a material portion of the financial statements
Q 109 :
What is the primary distinction between 'error' and 'fraud' in the context of material misstatements in financial statements?
A.Fraud involves intentional acts, while errors are unintentional
B.Errors are always intentional, while fraud is unintentional
C.Both errors and fraud are unintentional acts by management
D.Errors relate to non-compliance with laws, while fraud relates to accounting policies
Q 110 :
According to SA 200, the auditor's objective to obtain reasonable assurance implies which of the following?
A.A high level of assurance that material misstatements are detected, but not absolute certainty
B.A complete guarantee that the financial statements are free from all misstatements
C.Limited assurance based on sample testing only
D.Assurance only on the entity's internal controls, not on the financial statements
Q 111 :
Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, the term "person" includes?
A.An individual only
B.Only resident individuals
C.Only companies and firms
D.An individual, HUF, company, firm, AOP, BOI, local authority, and artificial juridical person
Q 112 :
The "assessment year" as defined under the Income-tax Act, 1961, refers to?
A.The year in which tax is assessed and paid
B.The year in which income is earned
C.The calendar year preceding the previous year
D.The year in which the return is filed
Q 113 :
The "previous year" under the Income-tax Act, 1961, is?
A.The year in which tax is paid
B.The calendar year preceding the assessment year
C.The financial year immediately preceding the assessment year
D.The year in which income is assessed
Q 114 :
Which of the following is NOT one of the five heads of income under the Income-tax Act, 1961?
A.Income from Salaries
B.Income from House Property
C.Income from Other Sources
D.Income from Agricultural Land
Q 115 :
The term "assessee" under the Income-tax Act, 1961, refers to?
A.Only non-residents
B.Only individuals filing income tax returns
C.Only companies liable to pay tax
D.A person by whom any tax or other sum of money is payable
Q 116 :
Income tax is levied on the income earned during?
A.The assessment year
B.The fiscal year
C.The calendar year
D.The previous year
Q 117 :
The concept of "income" under the Income-tax Act, 1961, includes?
A.Only cash receipts
B.All receipts, whether in cash or kind, having monetary value
C.Only profits from business
D.Only salary income
Q 118 :
The financial year in India runs from?
A.April 1 to March 31
B.January 1 to December 31
C.July 1 to June 30
D.October 1 to September 30
Q 119 :
Which of the following is considered a "person" under the Income-tax Act, 1961?
A.All of the above
B.A sole proprietorship
C.A charitable trust
D.A Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)
Q 120 :
The maximum marginal rate of tax for individuals in the Assessment Year 2024-25 is?