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Objective Questions

Latest ICAR IARI Technician Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, General Studies, Social Science, Mathematics, Biology, Chemistry, Physics

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General Studies

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 3Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 4Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 5Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 6Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 7Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 8Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 9Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 10Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 11Single Answer

Which of the following estimates the National Income in India

A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation

Question 12Single Answer

India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in

A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978

Question 13Single Answer

11^th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year

A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012

Question 14Single Answer

Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11^th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct

A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points

Question 15Single Answer

Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council

A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister

General Knowledge

Question 16Single Answer

Which city is the host of the second edition of ‘The Africa-India Field Training Exercise’ AFINDEX-2023 ?

A
Pune
B
Panaji
C
Cairo
D
Nairobi

Question 17Single Answer

‘New India Literacy Programme’ will be implemented as which type of scheme ?

A
Central Sector Scheme
B
Centrally sponsored Scheme
C
Core Scheme
D
Core of the Core Scheme

Question 18Single Answer

Which state/UT recently released the ‘Lake Development Programme’ ?

A
Tamil Nadu
B
Telangana
C
Odisha
D
West Bengal

Question 19Single Answer

A ‘Space System Design Lab’ has been recently inaugurated in which state/UT ?

A
Gujarat
B
Karnataka
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Kerala

Question 20Single Answer

India recently signed a ‘Defence Cooperation Agreement’ with which European country ?

A
Malta
B
Romania
C
Finland
D
Denmark

Question 21Single Answer

Which state’s ‘Gandhamardan Hill’ was recently (in March ’23) declared as India’s 37^th biodiversity heritage site ?

A
Odisha
B
West Bengal
C
Gujarat
D
Jharkhand

Question 22Single Answer

Which country has recently (in March ’23) committed Rs 7,084.5 crore to India for infrastructure projects in Patna (Bihar), West Bengal, and Rajasthan ?

A
France
B
Japan
C
Singapore
D
Germany

Question 23Single Answer

Name the personality who was recently (in March ’23) awarded Abel Prize 2023 for Mathematics .

A
Luis Angel Caffarelli
B
Lawrence C. Evans
C
Dennis Sullivan
D
Luigi Ambrosio

Question 24Single Answer

Who was recently (in March ’23) appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) ?

A
Vijay Kuradagi
B
Rajendra Kumar Gupta
C
Sanjay Kumar Panigrahi
D
Lalit Kumar Gupta

Question 25Single Answer

Which organisation of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has recently (in March ’23) developed application “Maaptol Grievance” to facilitate registration & redressal of consumer grievances ?

A
Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
B
Digital India Corporation
C
National Informatics Centre
D
Controller of Certifying Authorities

Social Science

Question 26Single Answer

Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:

A
Leeds and Manchester
B
Bristol and Manchester
C
Carlisle and Leeds
D
Chester and Leeds

Question 27Single Answer

Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?

A
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B
Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C
Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D
None of these

Question 28Single Answer

What is Urbanization?

A
Migration of population from rural to urban area
B
Migration of people from urban to rural
C
Migration of people from one country to another
D
Migration of population from one state to another one

Question 29Single Answer

What is de urbanization in the colonial context?

A
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C
a and b both
D
None of these

Question 30Single Answer

Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay

A
i and ii
B
i, iv and ii
C
i, ii and iii
D
i, ii, iii and iv

Question 31Single Answer

In which year Delhi became the capital of British India?

A
1916
B
1913
C
1915
D
1911

Question 32Single Answer

When was Shahjahanabad built?

A
by ShahJahan in 1640
B
by ShahJahan in 1638
C
by ShahJahan in 1639
D
None of these

Question 33Single Answer

Before Delhi, which city was the capital of British India?

A
Calcutta
B
Madras
C
Bombay
D
Agra

Question 34Single Answer

What is Gulfaroshan?

A
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Patna during 16^th century
B
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 18^thcentury
C
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 11^th century
D
All of these

Question 35Single Answer

Which period was referred as Delhi renaissance?

A
1857-1860
B
1860-1863
C
1865-1870
D
1830-1857

Question 36Single Answer

In the 1870s, for what reasons the western walls of Shahjahanabad were broken?

A
The walls were broken to establish the railway and to allow the city to expand beyond the walls.
B
The walls were broken to establish textile and iron industries
C
Both a and b
D
None of these

Question 37Single Answer

On which hills was the city of New Delhi built on ?

A
Almoda hills
B
Vindhva hills
C
Raisina Hill
D
None of these

Question 38Single Answer

Name the architects who designed New Delhi and its buildings.

A
Edward Lutyens and Herbert Baker
B
Herbert Baker and Harbar Lutyens
C
Edward Lutyens and Harbar Lutyens
D
None of these

Question 39Single Answer

How many years did it take to build the city of New Delhi?

A
15 years
B
35 years
C
20 years
D
25 years

Question 40Single Answer

Where was Bahadur Shah Zafar exiled to after 1857 revolt?

A
Kashmir
B
south region
C
Afghanistan
D
Burma

Question 41Single Answer

Which of the following Defines Renaissance?

A
It means rebirth of art and learning
B
It is a term often used to describe a time when there is great creative activity
C
a and b both
D
None of these

Question 42Single Answer

When was Delhi College established?

A
1792
B
1793
C
1794
D
1792

Question 43Single Answer

Kamal Khan Gakkhar was made a Mansabdar by:

A
Babur
B
Akabar
C
Shanjahan
D
Jahangir

Question 44Single Answer

The British conquest of Bengal began with the Battle of?

A
Buxur
B
Tripoli
C
St.Tome
D
Plassey

Question 45Single Answer

Haidar Ali and Tipu Sultan were the rulers of?

A
Madhya province
B
Bengal
C
Awadh
D
Mysore

Question 46Single Answer

Dalhousie implemented the Doctrine of?

A
Annexation
B
Deviation
C
Aggression
D
Lapse

Question 47Single Answer

Maratha kingdoms were located mainly in the............... part of India.

A
South-West
B
North-east
C
South-east
D
North-west

Question 48Single Answer

Who introduced Doctrine of Lapse?

A
Lord Cornwallis
B
Lord Dalhousie
C
Lord Ellen borough
D
Lord hasting

Question 49Single Answer

Who led the East India Army in battle of Plassey?

A
William Bentinck
B
Robert Clive
C
Charles Napier
D
None of these

Question 50Single Answer

When was Battle of Plassey fought?

A
1758
B
1759
C
1757
D
1756

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Mathematics

Question 51Single Answer

The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x² : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to

A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}

Question 52Single Answer

A
B
C
D
None of these

Question 53Single Answer

If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as

A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}

Question 54Single Answer

The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is

A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}

Question 55Single Answer

If A

B and A

B, then

A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A

Question 56Single Answer

The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is

A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17

Question 57Single Answer

The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is

A
2^m – 1
B
m
C
m²
D
2^m

Question 58Single Answer

If A = {x : x = n², n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is

A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these

Question 59Single Answer

If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is

A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these

Question 60Single Answer

Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then

A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint

Question 61Single Answer

Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}

A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above

Question 62Single Answer

The set {x : x⁴ = 1 and x

R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to

A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton

Question 63Single Answer

The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x² – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x² – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is

A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}

Question 64Single Answer

If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},

C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and

D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are

A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D

Question 65Single Answer

If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then

A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these

Question 66Single Answer

Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are

A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7

Question 67Single Answer

Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .

A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b

Question 68Single Answer

The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .

A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25

Question 69Single Answer

60 Times of 8 Equals to

A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400

Question 70Single Answer

Consider the sets

A = {x : x is a real number and x² + 1 = 0}

B = {x : x is a real number and x² – 16 = 0}

C = {x : x is a real number and x² = x + 2}

Which of the following is are null set ?

A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C

Question 71Single Answer

If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to

A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y

Question 72Single Answer

Which of the following is / are correct?

I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}

II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}

III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}

IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}

A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct

Question 73Single Answer

Question 74Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 75Single Answer

What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?

A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11

Physics

Question 76Single Answer

Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of

A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these

Question 77Single Answer

Electron volt is a unit of

A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity

Question 78Single Answer

Dimensions of impulse are

A
[MLT ^–1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT^–2]
D
[ML^–1T^–3]

Question 79Single Answer

Potential is measured in

A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these

Question 80Single Answer

One Nanometer is equal to

A
10^–9m
B
10^–6m
C
10^–10m
D
10^–3m

Question 81Single Answer

Maxwell is the unit of

A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability

Question 82Single Answer

Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?

A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time

Question 83Single Answer

What are the units of magnetic permeability ?

A
Wb A^–1 m^–1
B
Wb^–1 Am
C
Wb A m^–1
D
Wb A^–1 m

Question 84Single Answer

The dimensions of pressure gradient are

A
[ML^–2 T^–2]
B
[ML^–2 T^–1]
C
[ML^–1 T^–1]
D
[ML^–1 T^–2]

Chemistry

Question 85Single Answer

Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:

A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster

Question 86Single Answer

Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?

A
Ca₃Al₂O₆
B
Ca₃SiO₅
C
Ca₂SiO₄
D
Ca₃(PO₄)₂

Question 87Single Answer

What is the reson for white cement to be white ?

A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium

Question 88Single Answer

Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?

A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus

Question 89Single Answer

Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?

A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate

Question 90Single Answer

What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?

A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder

Question 91Single Answer

Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?

A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based

Question 92Single Answer

Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?

A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate

Biology

Question 93Single Answer

Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?

A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria

Question 94Single Answer

Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural

A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus

Question 95Single Answer

Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?

A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium

Question 96Single Answer

Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?

A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria

Question 97Single Answer

For which among the following is not a true fruit ?

A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum

Question 98Single Answer

Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?

A
Cholesterol
B
Glycoplids
C
Proline
D
Phospholipids

Question 99Single Answer

The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in

A
S–phase
B
G₁–phase
C
G₂–phase
D
M-phase

Question 100Single Answer

During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?

A
Phophase
B
Metaphase
C
Anaphase
D
Telophase