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Question Bank

Question for ICAR JRF Entomology and Nematology - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 120 · Max Marks: 120

View ICAR JRF Entomology and Nematology 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in ICAR JRF Entomology and Nematology exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in ICAR JRF Entomology and Nematology exams.

Latest ICAR JRF Entomology and Nematology Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Entomology and Nematology (MCQ)

Question Bank ICAR JRF Entomology and Nematology Exam - English

Entomology and Nematology (MCQ)

Q 1 :
Which of the following crops have been approved for commercial cultivation in India ?
  1. A.Bt cotton and Bt brinjal
  2. B.Bt cotton and Golden rice
  3. C.Bt maize and Bt cotton
  4. D.Bt cotton only
Q 2 :
This year (2010-11) the expected food grain production in India is
  1. A.212 million tonnes
  2. B.220 million tonnes
  3. C.235 million tonnes
  4. D.250 million tonnes
Q 3 :
The genome of which of the following crops is still not completely sequenced ?
  1. A.Rice
  2. B.Soybean
  3. C.Sorghum
  4. D.Wheat
Q 4 :
According to the approach paper to the 12th Five Year Plan, the basic objective of the 12th Plan is :
  1. A.Inclusive growth
  2. B.Sustainable growth
  3. C.Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
  4. D.Inclusive and sustainable growth
Q 5 :
To address the problems of sustainable and holistic development of rainfed areas, including appropriate farming and livelihood system approaches, the Government of India has set up the ?
  1. A.National Rainfed Area Authority
  2. B.National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas
  3. C.National Mission on Rainfed Areas
  4. D.Command Area Development and Water Management Authority
Q 6 :
Which of the following sub - schemes are not covered under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana ?
  1. A.Extending the Green Revolution to eastern India
  2. B.Development of 60,000 pulses and oilseeds villages in identified watersheds
  3. C.National Mission on Saffron
  4. D.National Mission on Bamboo
Q 7 :
The MSP for the common variety of paddy announced by the GOI for the year 2010-11 was
  1. A.1030
  2. B.1000
  3. C.980
  4. D.950
Q 8 :
According to the Human Development Report 2010 of the United Nations, India's rank in terms of the human development index was
  1. A.119
  2. B.134
  3. C.169
  4. D.182
Q 9 :
Which of the following does not apply to SRI method of paddy cultivation?
  1. A.Reduced water application
  2. B.Reduced plant density
  3. C.Increased application of chemical fertilizers
  4. D.Reduced age of seedlings
Q 10 :
Which organic acid, often used as a preservative, occurs naturally in cranberries, prunes, cinnamon and cloves?
  1. A.Citric acid 
  2. B.Benzoic acid
  3. C.Tartaric acid
  4. D.Lactic acid
Q 11 :
Cotton belong to the family
  1. A.Cruciferae
  2. B.Anacardiaceae
  3. C.Malvaceae
  4. D.Solanaceae
Q 12 :
Photoperiodism is
  1. A.Bending of shoot towards source of light
  2. B.Effect of light / dark durations on physiological processes
  3. C.Movement of chloroplast in cell in response to light
  4. D.Effect of light on chlorophyll synthesis
Q 13 :
Ergot disease is caused by which pathogen on which host?
  1. A.Claviceps purpurea on rye
  2. B.Puccinia recondita on wheat
  3. C.Drechlera sorokiniana on wheat
  4. D.Albugo candida on mustard
Q 14 :
Rocks are the chief sources of parent materials over which soils are developed. Granite, an important rock,is classified as
  1. A.Igneous rock
  2. B.Metamorphic rock
  3. C.Sedimentary rock
  4. D.Hybrid rock
Q 15 :
Which one of the following is a kharif crop ?
  1. A.Pearl millet
  2. B.Lentil
  3. C.Mustard
  4. D.Wheat
Q 16 :
The coefficient of variation (C.V.) is calculated by the formula
  1. A.(Mean / SD) x 100
  2. B.(SD / Mean) x 100
  3. C.SD / Mean
  4. D.Mean / SD
Q 17 :
Which of the following is commonly referred to as muriate of potash ?
  1. A.Potassium nitrate
  2. B.Potassium chloride
  3. C.Potassium sulphate
  4. D.Potassium silicate
Q 18 :
Inbred lines that have same genetic constitution but differ only at one locus are called
  1. A.Multi lines
  2. B.Monohybrid
  3. C.Isogenic lin
  4. D.Pure lines
Q 19 :
For applying 100 kg of nitrogen, how much urea would one use?
  1. A.45 kg
  2. B.111 kg
  3. C.222 kg
  4. D.333 kg
Q 20 :
The devastating impact of plant disease on human suffering and survival was first realized by epidemic of
  1. A.Brown spot of rice in Bengal
  2. B.Late blight of potato in USA
  3. C.Late blight of potato in Europe
  4. D.Rust of wheat in India
Q 21 :
The species of rice (Oryza) other than0. sativa that is cultivated is
  1. A.0. rufipugon
  2. B.0. longisteminata
  3. C.0. glaberrima
  4. D.0. nivaraI
Q 22 :
The enzyme responsible for fixation of CO2 in mesophyll cells of C-4 plants
  1. A.Malic enzyme
  2. B.Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
  3. C.Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy- kinase
  4. D.RuBP carboxylase
Q 23 :
Which of the following is a Vertisol ?
  1. A.Black cotton soil
  2. B.Red sandy loam soil
  3. C.Sandy loam sodic soil
  4. D.Submontane (Tarai) soil
Q 24 :
What is the most visible physical characteristic of cells in metaphase 
  1. A.Elongated chromosomes
  2. B.Nucleus visible but chromosomes not
  3. C.Fragile double stranded loose chromosomes
  4. D.Condensed paired chromosomes on the cell plate
Q 25 :
All weather phenomena like rain, fog and mist occur in
  1. A.Troposphere
  2. B.Mesosphere
  3. C.Ionosphere
  4. D.Ozonosphere
Q 26 :
Which of the following elements is common to all proteins and nucleic acids?
  1. A.Sulphur
  2. B.Magnesium
  3. C.Nitrogen
  4. D.Phosphorous
Q 27 :
Silt has intermediate characteristics between
  1. A.Sand and loam
  2. B.Clay and loam
  3. C.Loam and gravel
  4. D.Sand and clay
Q 28 :
Certified seed is produced from
  1. A.Nucleus seed
  2. B.Breeder seed
  3. C.Foundation seed
  4. D.Truthful seed
Q 29 :
Seedless banana is an
  1. A.Autotriploid
  2. B.Autotetraploid
  3. C.Allotriploid
  4. D.Allotetraploid
Q 30 :
Which one of the following is used to test the goodness - of - fit of a distribution ?
  1. A.Normal test
  2. B.t-test
  3. C.Chi - square test
  4. D.F-test
Q 31 :
Insect groups hitherto not known from India
  1. A.Sialoidea
  2. B.Zoraptera and Sialoidea
  3. C.Grylloblattodea + Zoraptera + Mantophasmatodea
  4. D.Raphidoidea and Embioptera
Q 32 :
"Pteralia' and 'Patagia' are present, respectively in
  1. A.Lower margin of wing and Hymenoptera
  2. B.Middle of wing surface and Neuroptera
  3. C.Base of wing and Lepidoptera
  4. D.Anal region of wing and Lepidoptera
Q 33 :
Avermectins are
  1. A.Octopamine receptor agonists
  2. B.Chloride channel activators
  3. C.Nicotine acetylcholine receptor
  4. D.Sodium channel modulator
Q 34 :
Lufenuron is
  1. A.Electron transport inhibitor
  2. B.JH mimic
  3. C.Chitin synthesis inhibitor
  4. D.Water balance disruptor
Q 35 :
Aenasius bambawalei is an endoparasitoid belonging to
  1. A.Trichogrammatidae and parasitising Maconellicoccus hirsutus
  2. B.Encyrtidae and parasitising Phenacoccus solenopsis
  3. C.Eulophidae and parasitising Phenacoccus solenopsis
  4. D.Eu pelmidae and parasitising Ceratovacuna bambawalei
Q 36 :
Insect development in which successive instars have quite different forms is known as
  1. A.Hemimetamorphosis
  2. B.Hypermetamorphosis
  3. C.Heteromorphosis
  4. D.Amorphosis
Q 37 :
Spinosyn is derived from
  1. A.Saccharopolyspora spinosa
  2. B.Polyspora spinosa
  3. C.Streptomyces avermitilis
  4. D.Streptomyces spinosa
Q 38 :
Emamectin benzoate is derived from
  1. A.Streptomyces avermitilis
  2. B.Streptomyces scabies
  3. C.Saccharopolyspora spinosa
  4. D.Streptomyces emamectis
Q 39 :
In cyclorrhapous dipterans, the fusion of corpora cardiaca, corpora allata and prothoracic glands is referred to as
  1. A.Craber's organ
  2. B.Simpher's organ
  3. C.Weismann's organ
  4. D.Gyroscopic organ
Q 40 :
In solid cone nozzle, the solid cone is formed due to
  1. A.Bigger size of the cap
  2. B.Bigger size of the orifice plate
  3. C.Central hole in swirl plate
  4. D.Small size of the strainer
Q 41 :
What will be the amount of cartap 50 SP required to prepare 10 litres of 0.1% spray material ?
  1. A.2.0 g
  2. B.10 g
  3. C.20 g
  4. D.30 g
Q 42 :
Insecticide fogs produced by thermal energy nozzles using a stream of hot gas to vapourise liquid pesticide form
  1. A.Fogs of droplet size > 15 um dia
  2. B.Aerosol droplets of size < 15 um dia
  3. C.High volume sprays
  4. D.Mist droplets of size 20-500 um dia
Q 43 :
Mango stem borer complex belonging to the genus Batocera in India and adjacent S.E. Asian countries comprises of
  1. A.Only rufomaculata DeGeer
  2. B.rufomaculata, rubus, royilei and numetor
  3. C.Only rubus (Linnaeus)
  4. D.Only rufomaculata (DeGeer)
Q 44 :
The hosts on which parasitoids oviposit readily, that they do not attack normally in the field are termed as
  1. A.Factitious hosts
  2. B.Alternate hosts
  3. C.Laboratory hosts
  4. D.Mass culture hosts
Q 45 :
Phyllocnistis citrella is a leaf miner pest of
  1. A.Citrullus vulgaris
  2. B.Only Citrus sp., and it is a specific pest
  3. C.Citrus spp. + other Rutaceae
  4. D.All Rutaceae
Q 46 :
Vapour heat treatment as a quarantine measure is to be done between temperature range of
  1. A.40 and 47°C and hours of exposure is important
  2. B.50 and 57°C and hours of exposure is immaterial
  3. C.40 and 47°C and time and flow rate not important
  4. D.50 and 57°C and density of load is immaterial
Q 47 :
Computer generated IPM models as practiced in developed countries like USA have synthesized menu based IPM systems comprising of
  1. A.Input of weather data + developmental models of significant pests
  2. B.Pest risk analysis data
  3. C.IPM protocols of a single major pest
  4. D.Simulated host phenology + Inputof weather data + developmental models of significant pests
Q 48 :
Pest Risk Analysis (PRA) is a sanitary and phytosanitary measure typically to be done by
  1. A.Recipient/Importing country on the information largely given by the producer/exporting country
  2. B.Producer/Exporting country on the information given by recipient/ importing country
  3. C.Plant quarantine machinery of the producer/exporting country
  4. D.Only the Government of India for export of wheat
Q 49 :
Total Population Management (TPM) is the term framed by the proponents of :
  1. A.Genetic control - Knipling (1955)
  2. B.Genetic control - Knipling (1966)
  3. C.Wide area management of fruit flies
  4. D.Genetic engineering
Q 50 :
Sprays with a higher number of droplets of < 1100 um dia are categorized as 'very fine' and are
  1. A.Recommended for crops due to high field efficacy
  2. B.Efficient as these entirely deposit on plants effectively without any drift hazard
  3. C.Not recommended for crops due to  drift hazard
  4. D.Recommended as these do not cause any pollution

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